Term
(001) Working together in Joint Warfare constitutes what concept?
a. Team.
b. Adult.
c. Child.
d. Group |
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Definition
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Term
(001) Competent joint war fighters must be skilled in thinking about all of the following except
a. having a joint perspective.
b. conducting force shaping training.
c. applying strategic and operational art.
d. thinking strategically and optimizing joint capabilities. |
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Definition
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Term
(001) Which value does not have special impact on the conduct of joint operations?
a. Integrity.
b. Competency.
c. Physical courage.
d. Excellence in all we do |
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Definition
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Term
(001) Which goal is achieved as the result of effective unified action?
a. Base.
b. Global.
c. National.
d. Developing |
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Definition
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Term
(001) Which term is not used in reference to unified action in the military?
a. Integration.
b. Coordination.
c. Familiarization.
d. Synchronization. |
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Definition
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Term
(001) The secretary of a military department operates that department under all of the following
except
a. control.
b. planning.
c. authority.
d. direction. |
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Definition
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Term
(001) The commanders of geographic commands are each assigned a geographic
a. deputy commander.
b. assistant commander.
c. area of responsibility.
d. temporary duty location. |
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Definition
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Term
(001) Which of the following is not a functional command?
a. United States Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM).
b. United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM).
c. United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM).
d. United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM). |
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Definition
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Term
(001) Unity of command means that all forces operate under
a. a single commander.
b. a joint force commander.
c. the Secretary of the Army.
d. the Secretary of the Air Force |
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Definition
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Term
(002) What authorizations were reduced during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 to save
money?
a. Programs.
b. Manpower.
c. Equipment.
d. Additional duties |
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Definition
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Term
(002) Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 enabled reductions at base level to deliver quality
service to meets what delivery goal?
a. Tactical.
b. National.
c. Strategic.
d. Operational. |
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Definition
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Term
(002) The information technology solution provided to commanders to support their personnel
needs is better known as?
a. Military personnel data system (MilPDS).
b. Personnel service delivery model (PSDM).
c. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).
d. Automated records management system (ARMS) |
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Definition
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Term
(003) Which element is not part of the new Military Personnel Section (MPS) structure?
a. Customer support.
b. Career development.
c. Career enhancement.
d. Force management operations. |
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Definition
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Term
(004) Manpower, Personnel, and Services structures were not organized to
a. reduce overhead.
b. minimize overtime.
c. achieve efficiencies.
d. maximize customer service. |
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Definition
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Term
(004) During phase I of Mission Support Squadron testing (MSS), each organization was
realigned and consolidated into how many flights?
a. 4.
b. 5.
c. 6.
d. 7. |
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Definition
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Term
(004) How many flights comprise the Force Support Squadron (FSS)?
a. two.
b. three.
c. four.
d. five. |
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Definition
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Term
(004) The standardized Force Support Squadron (FSS) structure was comprised of all the
following flights except
a. Force management.
b. Force development.
c. Sustainment services.
d. Community services. |
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Definition
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Term
(005) Within the Personnel Services Deliver (PSD) plan, what group of personnel absorbed some
of the work formerly done in the Military Personnel Flight (MPF)?
a. Total Force contact center (TSFC).
b. Air Force personnel center (AFPC).
c. Commander’s action group (CAG).
d. Commander’s support staff (CSS). |
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Definition
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Term
(005) Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC), when personnel specialists were asked a
question they could not answer, they contacted the
a. Numbered Air Force (NAF).
b. Major command (MAJCOM).
c. Military personnel section chief.
d. Manpower and personnel flight commander. |
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Definition
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Term
(005) If you are in the rank of E–6 or below and have a question that Total Force Service Center
(TFSC) personnel cannot answer,
a. a trouble ticket is submitted with your name and your question.
b. the person will take a message and call you back within 12 hours.
c. the person will take a message and call you back within 48 hours.
d. the person will locate a subject matter expert (SME) to answer your question. |
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Definition
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Term
(006) Which group is not serviced by Military Personnel Section (MPS) personnelist?
a. Air Force (AF) retirees.
b. AF dependents.
c. AF active duty members.
d. Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members. |
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Definition
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Term
(006) The Military Personnel Section (MPS) was created based on what concept?
a. Streamlining.
b. Transformation.
c. Do more with less.
d. Learning organization. |
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Definition
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Term
(006) The difference between the new concept of the Military Personnel Section (MPS) and the
old concept of the Military Personnel Flight (MPF) is, rather than assign specific individuals to
specific tasks,
a. the base training manager will assist the personnelist.
b. each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area.
c. manning assistance will be requested to assist the personnelist with the task.
d. each personnelist is responsible for learning manpower, personnel, and services tasks. |
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Definition
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Term
(007) Once Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 hit the ground running, many of the daily
operations of the commander’s support staff (CSS) was
a. dissolved.
b. streamlined.
c. reassigned to individuals amongst the squadron.
d. reassigned to the most knowledgeable base agencies. |
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Definition
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Term
(007) Which personnel action is not required to be completed by commander-appointed
individuals?
a. Allocation notices.
b. Decoration processing.
c. Performance feedback notices.
d. Enlisted/officer performance reports |
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Definition
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Term
(008) How many personnel activities are there?
a. Two.
b. three.
c. four.
d. five. |
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Definition
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Term
(008) Which office is responsible for the personnel activities?
a. Customer support element.
b. Military personnel section.
c. Commanders support staff.
d. Force management operations element. |
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Definition
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Term
(008) A unit is considered a Geographically Separated Unit (GSU) if it is not within what driving
time (one way) of its servicing Military Personnel Section (MPS)?
a. one hour.
b. two hours.
c. three hours.
d. four hours. |
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Definition
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Term
(008) Who determines which military personnel responsibilities are performed by the Satellite
Personnel Activity (SPA)?
a. Major command commander.
b. Numbered Air Force commander.
c. Manpower and personnel flight commander.
d. Headquarters Air Force personnel center commander |
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Definition
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Term
(008) When AF population does not warrant a Military Personnel Section (MPS), what authority
may a request to establish a SPA?
a. Major command (MAJCOM).
b. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
c. Force support squadron commander (FSS/CC).
d. Manpower and personnel flight commander (FSM). |
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Definition
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Term
(009) The classification structure was designed to ensure the Air Force consisted of the proper
number of people, with the proper level of what?
a. Authority.
b. Experience.
c. Knowledge.
d. Responsibility. |
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Definition
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Term
(009) The duties and responsibilities of each rank were designed to ensure that each person at
each rank had the proper level
a. duties.
b. experience.
c. knowledge.
d. responsibilities. |
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Definition
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Term
(009) Which criteria for career progression is not provided by the classification system?
a. Promotion.
b. Retention.
c. Upgrade.
d. Award. |
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Definition
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Term
(009) An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a
a. listing of experience needed to qualify for position.
b. grouping of people with precise skills and qualifications.
c. listing of training classes needed to qualify for a position.
d. grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications |
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Definition
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Term
(009) The list of duties and responsibilities for any enlisted specialty can be found in the
a. Recruiter’s Directory.
b. Enlisted Classification Directory.
c. Enlisted Force Structure Directory.
d. Retraining Classification Directory. |
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Definition
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Term
(009) Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify positions or persons
not elsewhere identified?
a. reporting identifiers.
b. special duty identifiers.
c. Air Force specialty codes.
d. special experience identifiers. |
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Definition
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Term
(009) Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify experience and training
not otherwise identified in the personnel data system?
a. Reporting.
b. Special duty.
c. Military status.
d. Special experience. |
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Definition
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Term
(009) Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify manpower positions
and persons performing duties not within a specific career field?
a. reporting identifiers.
b. special duty identifiers.
c. Air Force specialty codes.
d. special experience identifiers. |
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Definition
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Term
(009) An individual’s ineligibility to retain the desired specialty code, will be characterized as
a. disqualified.
b. released.
c. revoked.
d. denied. |
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Definition
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Term
(009) When declared disqualified for reasons within control, prior to initiating retraining, what
must commanders consider?
a. Reenlistment eligibility.
b. Career intent.
c. Separation.
d. Manning. |
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Definition
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Term
(009) Which of the following is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a
member’s control?
a. A medical condition.
b. Loss of security clearance.
c. Drug or alcohol involvement.
d. Failure to progress in training |
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Definition
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Term
(010) What is not a specific duty of the personnelist career field?
a. performs personnel actions.
b. creates, maintains and audits personnel records.
c. conducts interview to determine individual interests.
d. advises officers and airmen on military personnel issues and programs. |
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Definition
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Term
(010) Responsibilities of the personnelist does not include having to
a. administer the casualty program.
b. update computerized personnel data.
c. oversee personnel activities and functions. |
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Definition
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Term
(012) Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?
a. The material may get confiscated.
b. You will bring attention to yourself.
c. The foreign government may want to take it from you.
d. The material may not be important enough to hand carry |
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Definition
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Term
(011) United State documents that contain foreign government information are marked on the
a. front cover only.
b. front cover or first page.
c. middle of the front cover.
d. front cover or back cover. |
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Definition
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Term
(011) The first marking in the subject line of an E-mail will be the overall classification of the
E-mail. Which symbol is not used for this action?
a. (S) for secret.
b. (TS) for top secret.
c. (C) for confidential.
d. (U) for unclassified. |
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Definition
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Term
(011) When classified documents are removed from secured storage, they are kept under constant
surveillance, which standard form (SF) cover sheets shall be placed on all documents?
a. SF 701, SF 702, SF 703.
b. SF 701, SF 703, SF 704.
c. SF 702, SF 703, SF 704.
d. SF 703, SF 704, SF 705. |
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Definition
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Term
(011) A one-time verbal attestation for all military and civilians with a top secret (TS) eligibility
or access to a specially controlled access category or compartment is given under the authority of
which office?
a. The Secretary of Defense.
b. The Department of Defense.
c. The Secretary of the Air Force.
d. The Department of the Air Force. |
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Definition
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Term
(011) When a person refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified
information, the commander (or equivalent) or staff agency chief does all of the following except
a. initiates a security incident report.
b. denies the individual access to classified information.
c. initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF).
d. grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed. |
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Definition
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Term
(011) Personnel requiring access to secure rooms containing classified information can enter
a. with the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for the classified information.
b. with only a secret security clearance even if the information needed is marked top secret.
c. without an escort as long as he or she shows identification.
d. with only a letter from his or her commander. |
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Definition
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Term
(012) When couriers are transporting laptops and disks containing classified information, they
must
a. travel with another authorized courier.
b. inform the flight attendant of what they are carrying.
c. communicate to the passengers what they are carrying.
d. keep laptops and disks under constant surveillance or in secure facilities. |
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Definition
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Term
(012) When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except
a. password protect laptops.
b. completely erase laptops and disks before transporting.
c. mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1–R Information Security Program.
d. keep laptops and disks containing classified information under constant surveillance |
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Definition
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Term
(012) Documentation is not required for hand carrying classified material to activities
a. within government buildings.
b. within non-duty days.
c. within an installation.
d. within duty days. |
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Definition
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Term
(013) As a personnelist, your main job is to
a. complete training.
b. process paperwork.
c. prepare for deployments.
d. provide service to customers. |
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Definition
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Term
(014) The first thing you notice when meeting someone is their appearance, so it is so important
to maintain a professional appearance
a. at all times.
b. when working in an office.
c. only when helping customers.
d. during open ranks inspection. |
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Definition
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Term
(014) Which communication skill is considered to be the most neglected?
a. Hearing.
b. Writing.
c. Listening.
d. Speaking. |
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Definition
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Term
(015) In respect to the Privacy Act, Department of Defense (DOD) policy allows individuals
to do all of the following except
a. correct or amend their records.
b. allow individuals unwarranted access to other people’s record.
c. allow individuals access to a copy of all or any portion of their record.
d. protect individuals from unwarranted invasion of their personal privacy |
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Definition
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Term
(015) Release of personal information to third parties is appropriate when the subject
a. agrees in writing.
b. is under investigation.
c. agrees over the telephone.
d. is considering civilian employment. |
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Definition
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Term
(015) What information does not require written consent from the subject before being released?
a. Number, name, and sex of dependents.
b. Civilian education degrees.
c. Basic pay information.
d. Marital status. |
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Definition
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Term
(015) Written consent is required for release of what information?
a. Age.
b. Rank.
c. Civilian salary.
d. Air Force specialty code. |
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Definition
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Term
(015) When balancing the public interest against the individual’s probable loss of privacy, all are
considered factors to not consider except
a. date of request.
b. circumstances.
c. proposed use.
d. purpose. |
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Definition
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Term
(016) What system was designed to consolidate military personnel record processing efforts?
a. Military personnel data system (MilPDS).
b. Virtual military personnel system (vMPF).
c. Personnel records display application (PRDA).
d. Automated records management system (ARMS). |
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Definition
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Term
(016) Which is not a reason for the consolidation effort of military record into a single system?
a. Reduce manpower and costs.
b. Reduce customer inquiries.
c. Improve customer service.
d. Improve efficiency. |
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Definition
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Term
(016) Within the electronic record processing system, what application is considered an
electronic viewer containing role based access (RBA)?
a. Military personnel data system (MilPDS).
b. Virtual military personnel system (vMPF).
c. Personnel records display application (PRDA).
d. Automated records management system (ARMS). |
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Definition
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Term
(016) Personnel records display application (PRDA) is considered an application module of what
system?
a. Virtual military personnel system (vMPF).
b. Military personnel data system (MilPDS).
c. Virtual personnel services center (vPSC).
d. Air Force portal (AFP). |
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Definition
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Term
(016) Which personnel records display application (PRDA) does not require the establishment
and authentication of the user’s identity?
a. Virtual military personnel system (vMPF).
b. Air Force personnel center secure (AFPC).
c. Virtual personnel services center (vPSC).
d. Air Force portal (AFP). |
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Definition
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Term
(016) Role based access (RBA) provides a means to name and describe relationships between
individuals and rights, which means does not allow a user to acquire a role of access?
a. System.
b. Attached.
c. Assigned.
d. Associated |
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Definition
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Term
(016) Custodians are required to make the Officer Command Selection Record Group (OCSRGp)
for most line of the Air Force (LAF) officers in the grade of captain after how many years of
active commissioned service?
a. Three.
b. Five.
c. Seven.
d. Nine. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(201) During what operations does the United States adheres to domestic and international law?
a. Multilateral and multinational.
b. Unilateral and multinational.
c. Universal and multilateral.
d. Universal and unilateral. |
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Definition
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Term
(201) The National Security Act of 1974 established all of the military departments except
a. Army.
b. Navy.
c. Marines.
d. Air Force. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(201) Which is not an instrument of national power to achieve objectives that contribute to national
security?
a. Military.
b. Economic.
c. Diplomatic.
d. Democratic |
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Definition
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|
Term
(201) Strategy involves understanding the desired policy goals for what type of operation?
a. Unexpected.
b. Completed.
c. Projected.
d. Executed. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(202) Under the total force policy, what plan covers all degrees of volunteerism, involuntary recall,
mobilization, and demobilization to support the Joint Strategic Plan (JSCP) and Deliberate Plans
and Crisis Action Planning?
a. Demobilization.
b. Mobilization.
c. Execution.
d. Strategic. |
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Definition
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Term
(202) Accounting for all Air Force at all times regardless of location is what element of
accountability?
a. Tasked wing.
b. Total force.
c. Transient.
d. Strength. |
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Definition
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Term
(202) What element of accountability is it when enabling planners and managers to support the
commander’s concept of operations?
a. Unit.
b. Strength.
c. Total force.
d. Tasked wing. |
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Definition
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Term
(202) Regardless of status, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) maintains
accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients at their deployed and
designated geographically separated location. Which element of accountability does this describe?
a. Tasked wing.
b. Total force.
c. Transient.
d. Strength. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(202) When there is a need to know where assigned personnel are at any given time, where they
live, and where they work describes which element of accountability?
a. Unit.
b. Strength.
c. Total force.
d. Tasked wing. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(202) Forces that spend at least one night in billeting at a location but their final duty location is
elsewhere describes which element of accountability?
a. Replacement.
b. Total force.
c. Transient.
d. Strength. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(202) The Air National Guard (ANG) is a very important component of the total force in all the
following operations except
a. relief.
b. offensive.
c. defensive.
d. deterrence. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(202) The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both
a. federal and overseas missions.
b. federal and state missions.
c. state and community missions.
d. overseas and community missions. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(202) The reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by
supporting what type of engagement?
a. Regional.
b. National.
c. Global.
d. Local. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(202) The readiness of the reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what
form of movement?
a. Deployment.
b. Employment.
c. Mobilization.
d. Demobilization. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
(202) With what invaluable aspect does reserve forces bring depth of experience to the mission
and the Air Force?
a. Responsibility.
b. Commodity.
c. Equality.
d. Unity. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(203) Air expeditionary force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for
what type of defense?
a. Aerial.
b. Global.
c. Regional.
d. National. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(203) The air expeditionary force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide
a. warfighter support.
b. stability to Airmen.
c. predictability to Airmen.
d. fair share tempo band support |
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Definition
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|
Term
(203) The air expeditionary force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air
and space power along with understanding the proper way to do all of these except
a. deploy.
b. sustain.
c. present.
d. organize. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(203) The Air Force presents its force capabilities to satisfy commander requirements through
which concept?
a. Air expeditionary force (AEF).
b. Operations plan (OPLAN).
c. Strategic warfare.
d. Global warfare. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(203) What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and
publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?
a. Air Staff.
b. Joint Staff.
c. HQ Air Force (HAF).
d. Department of Defense (DOD). |
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Definition
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|
Term
(203) The Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP) is an allocation of specific
rotational forces to combatant commanders, under the approval of what authority?
a. Air Staff.
b. Joint Staff.
c. Secretary of Defense (SecDef).
d. Secretary of the Air Force (SecAF). |
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Definition
|
|
Term
(203) The air expeditionary force (AEF) sets a baseline tempo band “A” of how many blocks?
a. two month.
b. four month.
c. six month.
d. eight month. |
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Definition
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|
Term
(203) Various surging and or mobilization of Air Reserve Components (ARC) include all of the
following methods except
a. reaching deeper.
b. reaching foward.
c. rebanding capability areas.
d. rebanding functional requirements. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
(203) What component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is capable of establishing and
operating on an air base?
a. Air expeditionary wing (AEW).
b. Air expeditionary group (AEG).
c. Air expeditionary squadron (AES).
d. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF). |
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Definition
|
|
Term
(203) What component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) normally consists of one or two
operations squadrons, associated maintenance squadrons, and mission-specific expeditionary
combat support (ECS) squadrons?
a. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).
b. Air expeditionary squadron (AES).
c. Air expeditionary group (AEG).
d. Air expeditionary wing (AEW). |
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Definition
|
|
Term
(203) What component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is considered the basic war
fighting organization and the building block of the AETF structure?
a. Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).
b. Air expeditionary group (AEG).
c. Air expeditionary squadron (AES).
d. Air expeditionary wing (AEW). |
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Definition
|
|
Term
(204) What process of planning is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at
the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war?
a. Joint contingency.
b. Joint operation.
c. Mobilization.
d. Deployment. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
(204) What planning process guides the combatant commanders (CCDR) in developing plans for
the possible employment of the military instrument of national power to meet contingencies and
respond to unforeseen crises?
a. Joint operation.
b. Mobilization.
c. Employment.
d. Deployment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of
readiness for war or other national emergency describes
a. deployment.
b. sustainment.
c. employment.
d. mobilization. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from
their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describe what kind of
planning activity?
a. Redeployment.
b. Employment.
c. Mobilization.
d. Deployment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) The application to attain specified military objectives within an operational area describes
a. redeployment planning.
b. employment planning.
c. mobilization planning.
d. deployment planning. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) Which activity planning describes the provision of logistics and personnel services required
to maintain and prolong operations until the mission is successfully accomplished?
a. Joint operation.
b. Redeployment.
c. Sustainment.
d. Operations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) Plans that are tasked by the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) for humanitarian
assistance, disaster relief, peacekeeping, or counter-drug operations describes
a. concept.
b. operation.
c. functional.
d. supporting. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) Which plan is prepared as tasked by the supported combatant commanders in support of
their contingency?
a. Supporting.
b. Functional.
c. Operation.
d. Concept. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) Which joint and service planning system is designed to facilitate rapid building and timely
maintenance of plans and rapid development of effective options through adaptation of approved
operation plans during crisis?
a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) Which joint and service planning system is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning
and execution processes which include associated joint policy procedures?
a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the
Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the
US Armed Forces and certain foreign organizations.
a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(204) All units with a United States Air Force (USAF) personnel accounting symbol (PAS) code
are registered within what joint and service planning system?
a. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
b. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
c. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
d. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) Air Force manpower and logistics requirements documented in JOPES/DCAPES timephased
force deployment data are used in support of all the following except
a. operations plan (OPLAN).
b. operations order (OPORD).
c. functional plan (FUNCPLAN).
d. concept of operations (CONPLAN) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) A unit type code (UTC) is considered usable when it is registered in
a. DCAPES with MFE and/or equipment estimates.
b. the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail.
c. the TUCHA without MFE and/or equipment detail.
d. DCAPES without MFE and/or equipment estimates. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) A unit type code (UTC) is considered complete once it is registered in
a. the TUCHA without MFE and/or equipment detail.
b. the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail.
c. DCAPES without MFE and/or equipment estimates.
d. DCAPES with MFE and/or equipment estimates. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) What type of unit type code (UTC) is used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and
logistics requirements for deployment, movement planning, and plan execution?
a. Standard.
b. Associate.
c. Non-standard.
d. Non-associate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) What type of unit type code (UTC) is considered a placeholder for all deployable positions
that cannot be described or do not fit into an existing deployable UTC.
a. Standard.
b. Associate.
c. Nonstandard.
d. Nonassociate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) Which unit type code (UTC) attribute is used by war planners to determine which UTCs can
fill their requirements?
a. Mission capability statement (MISCAP).
b. Deployment indicator (DEPID).
c. AutAuthorized personnel (AUTH).
d. Passengers (PAX). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) The manpower force packaging system (MANFOR) provides Air Force planners with
standardized force capability outlining manpower requirements for all of the following except
a. operations planning.
b. execution documents.
c. employment planning.
d. readiness measurement. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) Which of these is not one of the guidelines used to determine when a unit type code (UTC)
must be developed?
a. New equipment types enter the inventory.
b. When new equipment needs to be replaced.
c. Significant program changes occur in manpower or equipment.
d. Deployable units experience a significant change in either operational concept or mission. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) When a unit type code (UTC) is no longer needed, who can request the UTC be cancelled?
a. Installation deployment officer (IDO).
b. MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA).
c. Unit deployment manager (UDM).
d. Major command (MAJCOM). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(205) How many years after unit type codes (UTCs) are cancelled do they remain in the
MEFPAK and TUCHA?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(206) All Air Force personnel contribute to the air expeditionary force (AEF); therefore, all
authorizations must be postured in the
a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
b. mission capability statement (MISCAP).
c. unit type code (UTC) availability.
d. unit manning document (UMD). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(206) Specific unit type codes (UTCs) to posture is based on the Air Staff FAM prioritization and
sequencing instructions that can be found in or on the
a. AEFC AEF Online Web site.
b. HQ AFPC readiness Web site.
c. AFCSM 36–699, Military Personnel Data System.
d. AFI 10–401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(206) Who provides guidance on which unit type codes should be postured by the MAJCOMs,
made available for planning purposes based on component headquarters’ requirements, and the
AETF force modules?
a. Installation deployment officer (IDO).
b. Unit deployment manager (UDM).
c. MAJCOM FAM.
d. Air Staff FAM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(206) A-UTCs are postured in the UTC availability and aligned to the
a. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
b. air and space expeditionary force (AEF) libraries.
c. needs of the deployment location.
d. tempo bands. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) Mobilization of the air reserve component (ARC) is also called or considered
a. initiation.
b. activation.
c. recruitment.
d. employment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) To meet immediate requirements for augmentation of the active Air Force during
emergency or contingency operations describes which type of activation?
a. Volunteerism.
b. Total mobilization.
c. Partial mobilization.
d. Presidential selected reserve callup. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) Expansion of the active armed forces by mobilization of reserve component (RC) units
and/or individual reservists to deal with a situation where armed forces may be required to protect
life, federal property and functions or to prevent disruption of federal activities describes which
type of activation?
a. Full mobilization.
b. Total mobilization.
c. Partial mobilization.
d. Selective mobilization for a domestic emergency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) Activation that requires passage by the Congress of a public law or joint resolution
declaring war or a national emergency describes
a. full mobilization.
b. total mobilization.
c. partial mobilization.
d. presidential selected reserve call up. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) What type of activation is used to accelerate the mobilization of selected members of the
pre-trained individual manpower (PIM) in anticipation of their need to fill wartime requirements?
a. Push-Pull.
b. Full mobilization.
c. Total mobilization.
d. Partial mobilization. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(207) Normally, Push-Pull activation will not be recommended unless all of the following factors
are present except
a. major contingencies involve larger groups of personnel.
b. shortages can be predicted in terms of AFSC, quantity, and timing.
c. large deployments of Air Force forces are required accompanied by expected personnel
shortages.
d. pre-trained individual manpower (PIM) resources represent the best source of personnel to
satisfy the projected shortages. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(208) Once the deactivation process occurs, the projected separation in the personnel data system
(PDS) flows from base to Headquarters Air Force (HAF); the HAF records status changes from
10 to
a. 17.
b. 18.
c. 19.
d. 20. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(208) On the projected effective date of deactivation, Headquarters Air Force (HAF) changes the
member’s record status from 20 to
a. 81.
b. 82.
c. 83.
d. 84. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(208) When demobilization orders are not required, what two documents are used to verify
deactivation?
a. DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher.
b. Copy of activation orders and DD Form 214.
c. DD Form 214 and a copy of temporary duty (TDY) orders.
d. Copy of temporary duty (TDY) orders and paid travel voucher. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(208) In order to be issued a DD Form 214, how many days must an activated volunteer serve?
a. 30.
b. 45.
c. 60.
d. 90. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) In order for the installation deployment officer to perform his or her duties he or she must
be a qualified
a. logistic cargo manager.
b. logistic readiness officer.
c. unit deployment manager.
d. deployment readiness officer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) When a deployment tasking hits the base, who is the first person to receive all deployment
taskings, including individual augmentee taskings?
a. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
b. Installation deployment officer (IDO).
c. Wing/installation commander (WG/CC).
d. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) Who determines the frequency and scope of exercises based on what is necessary to ensure
the deployment process runs efficiently and that all units, including associate units, are prepared
to deploy?
a. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
b. Installation deployment officer (IDO).
c. Wing/installation commander (WG/CC).
d. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) It is very important for the wing/installation commander to establish a direct line of
responsibility and communication with the installation deployment officer (IDO) in order to
approve the local procedures for deploying forces through the installation deployment plan for all
of the following in except
a. supplies.
b. mobility.
c. planning.
d. readiness. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) The wing/installation commander ensures procedures are established to notify Airmen
within how many hours of receipt for AEF rotational taskings?
a. 24.
b. 48.
c. 72.
d. 96. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) Who provides overall management including, but not limited to, secure storage, issue and
receipt, and shelf life control for mobility bags under their control?
a. Installation deployment officer (IDO).
b. Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).
c. Force support squadron commander (FSS/CC).
d. Logistic readiness squadron commander (LRS/CC). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) Who does the installation deployment cell (IDRC) have a direct line of communication and
responsibility to?
a. Logistics readiness flight (LGRR).
b. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
c. Installation deployment officer (IDO).
d. Wing/installation commander (WG/CC). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) The permanent staff of the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) consists of all the
following except
a. Logistics plan.
b. Logistics cargo.
c. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
d. Installation deployment officer (IDO). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) The installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) is responsible for all of the following
except
a. loading taskings and information into (DCAPES).
b. distributing taskings and information.
c. identifying taskings and information.
d. validating taskings and information. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(209) Who has the responsibility to make sure subordinate units have the necessary equipment
and communication to support command and control readiness systems?
a. Unit personnel.
b. Unit deployment manager.
c. Supporting wing/installation.
d. Supporting major command. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) What agency is responsible for assessing and assisting Airmen and family members during
emergencies?
a. Airman and Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).
b. Air Force personnel readiness cell (AFPRC).
c. Major command readiness (MAJCOM).
d. Veterans Affair (VA). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) Who will each major command (MAJCOM) and the National Guard Bureau (NGB) direct
to make sure all wing and installation commanders and geographically separated units (GSU)
have evacuation plans and tracking procedures in place to account for all personnel in the event of
a natural disaster or national emergency?
a. HQ AFPC/DPA.
b. HQ AFPC/CAT.
c. Plans and Programs.
d. Plans and Requirements. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) Within 48 hours of a natural disaster or national emergency, who will make sure unit
commanders are aware of their responsibilities and that evacuation plans for bases have fully
addressed the need to account for all categories of personnel after a natural disaster or national
emergency?
a. Installation commanders.
b. Installation deployment officer.
c. Installation personnel readiness.
d. Installation deployment readiness center. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) Accounting for all categories of personnel after a natural disaster or national emergency
must occur within how many hours?
a. 12.
b. 24.
c. 36.
d. 48. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) In the event a member is stranded in a crisis area with no communications available,
members are encouraged to report their status to
a. their supervisor only.
b. any available agency.
c. any responding agency.
d. their unit commander only. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) Who is considered the first and most critical link when it comes to establishing
accountability?
a. Individual unit commanders (CC).
b. Individual unit control centers (UCC).
c. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
d. Installation deployment officer (IDO). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) Whose responsibility is it to ensure UCCs are trained and in place for members to report
their evacuation location in the event the member and/or their families are required to relocate?
a. Unit commander (CC).
b. Major command (MAJCOM).
c. National Guard Bureau (NGB).
d. Installation deployment officer (IDO). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) Who is responsible for accounting for assigned Department of Defense (DOD) civilians?
a. Unit commanders (CC).
b. Unit control centers (UCC).
c. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
d. Installation deployment officer (IDO). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(210) Who is responsible for maintaining realistic and actionable evacuation plans in anticipation
of national crises or natural disasters?
a. Individual unit control centers.
b. Individual unit commanders.
c. Individual support agencies.
d. Individual members |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency
operation (PERSCO) augmentation team?
a. RFPF1.
b. RFPF2.
c. RFPF3.
d. RFPF4. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) Who serves as the focal point for scheduling and documenting all initial and recurring
ancillary deployment training and classified courier training for personnel support for
contingency operation team (PT) members?
a. Force support squadron unit deployment manager.
b. Military personnel section superintendant.
c. Military personnel section commander.
d. Force support squadron commander. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) Who is responsible for making sure personnel support for contingency operations team (PT)
has a training program and certifies all PERSCO Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS)
items before the person enters their assigned AEF on-call window?
a. Force support squadron unit deployment manager.
b. Military personnel section superintendant.
c. Military personnel section commander.
d. Force support squadron commander. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) Who establishes strength accountability for everyone under their responsibility, regardless
of location, and makes sure the appropriate updates are completed in the accountability system?
a. Unit commander (CC).
b. Unit control center (UCC).
c. Deployment control center (DCC).
d. Personnel support for contingency operations team (PT). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) What product is reviewed by units to maintain accountability by identifying personnel who
have departed or have not in-processed?
a. Employment requirements manning document.
b. Requirements mismatch report.
c. Duplicate position report.
d. Alpha roster. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) After arriving in the deployed location, who is responsible for collecting and updating
personnel deployment processing discrepancies?
a. Unit commander (CC).
b. Unit control center (UCC).
c. Deployment control center (DCC).
d. Personnel support for contingency operations team (PT). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) Within how many hours after arriving in the deployed location, is collecting and updating
personnel deployment processing discrepancies completed?
a. 24.
b. 36.
c. 48.
d. 72. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) Concepts that apply to onward or forward deployments as well as returns to home station
describe what kind of actions?
a. Reconstitution.
b. Sustainment operations.
c. Rotation and redeployment.
d. Planning phase and pre-deployment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) On behalf of the deployed commander, who is responsible for coordinating and monitoring
rotation, redeployment, and base closure activities?
a. Logistics planners.
b. Deployment control center.
c. Installation personnel readiness.
d. Personnel support for contingency operations team |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) During what action phase will the PERSCO team conduct a complete inventory of supplies
and equipment to make sure everything is accounted for or replenish in the case of consumables?
a. Planning phase and pre-deployment actions.
b. Rotation and redeployment actions.
c. Sustainment operations actions.
d. Reconstitution actions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(211) During what phase of deployment is the most opportune time to review training and make
sure of its accuracy?
a. After.
b. Before.
c. During.
d. Between. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) What agency owns global command and control system Air Force (GCCS-AF) equipment
at base-level?
a. Major command (MAJCOM).
b. Military personnel section (MPS).
c. Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
d. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQAFPC). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) Personnel planners are responsible for ensuring sufficient personnel support for contingency
operation teams (PT) and equipment are scheduled with what team?
a. Command and control.
b. Advanced echelon.
c. Augmentation.
d. Sustainment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(212) How often will the PT chief make sure the equipment custodian (EC) completes an
inventory of supplies and equipment?
a. Every six months.
b. Every two years.
c. Semi-annually.
d. Annually. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
. (401) The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientation (INTRO) program
is tied to
a. the newcomer’s first impressions of the sponsor.
b. how many times the sponsor calls the newcomer.
c. the Airman and Family Readiness Center’s sponsor kits.
d. how well the gaining commander speaks with the newcomer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(401) As a sponsor, what question would you not ask the newcomer?
a. Do you need information about other services?
b. Will your family members accompany you?
c. What type of vehicle do you drive?
d. Do you want a post office box? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
. (401) For information about on- and off-base housing and, if the newcomer has dependents, where
does the sponsor go?
a. Airman and Family Readiness Center.
b. Family support center.
c. Base housing office.
d. Lodging office. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) What form is used to document a member’s active duty service commitment (ADSC)
incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)?
a. Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) 63.
b. AF Form 899.
c. AF IMT 330.
d. AF IMT 2096. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) Once the member in-processes, no-fee passports are
a. kept by the member.
b. collected by the military personnel section (MPS).
c. collected by the unit deployment manager (UDM).
d. destroyed by the member. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(402) What is not included in the three main phases of accession processing?
a. Delivery.
b. Collection.
c. Verification.
d. Confirmation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(403) When issuing an identification (ID) card to a member considered retired with pay, what
source document can be used?
a. Leave and earnings statement (LES).
b. DD Form 363AF, Certificate of Retirement.
c. DD Form 1160, Military Retirement Actions.
d. DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active duty. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(403) Without senior personnel official appointment, identification (ID) card verifying and issuing
officials cannot be
a. a commissioned officer.
b. an Airman first class.
c. a DoD contractor.
d. a warrant officer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(403) Once you retrieve a Teslin identification (ID) card, you may do all of the following except
a. cut.
b. shred.
c. destroy.
d. line out. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(403) When a dependent child under age 21 is emancipated, what happens to their entitlement to
ID card benefits and privileges?
a. It’s reinstated when they return home.
b. It expires when they departed home.
c. The entitlements remain the same.
d. It’s removed by the sponsor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(404) The expression “use or lose” refers to leave days. Normally, in excess of how many days
will be lost by the end of the fiscal year (FY) if it is not used?
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
. (404) Leave must begin and end where?
a. In the local area.
b. At your duty section.
c. On a military installation.
d. At your requested leave area. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
. (405) Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset costs for members and
a. their dependents.
b. no one else.
c. children.
d. spouses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(405) The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is based in the historic origins of the military in
which the military provided what two items?
a. Food and housing requirements.
b. Room and laundry services.
c. Rations and transportation.
d. Room and board. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(406) Essential station messing (ESM) is also termed
a. dining in-kind.
b. rations in-kind.
c. messing in-kind.
d. services in-kind. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(407) A line of duty (LOD) determination protects the interests of the United States government
and that of
a. the member.
b. the squadron.
c. the dependents.
d. the military installation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(407) Who is not subject to line of duty (LOD) determinations?
a. Active duty Air Force members.
b. Air Reserve Component members who die, incur or aggravate an illness/injury.
c. Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps (JROTC) members.
d. Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) members. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(407) A line of duty (LOD) determination process must be initiated when a member, whether
hospitalized or not, has an illness, injury or disease that results in all of the following except the
a. death of a member.
b. death of a member’s spouse.
c. likelihood of permanent disability.
d. inability to perform military duties for over 24 hours. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(407) A line of duty (LOD) determination does not impact
a. disability retirement and severance pay.
b. extension of enlistment.
c. civilian duty pay.
d. forfeiture of pay |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(407) The line of duty (LOD) approving authority reviews the complete investigation file and may
do all the following except
a. return the file to the investigating officer.
b. return the complete file to the immediate commander.
c. approve a final determination by forwarding to HQ AFPC.
d. approve a final determination by completing DD Form 261 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(408) Provided criterion is met, military couples may be considered for assignment where they
can maintain a
a. joint residence.
b. joint allowance.
c. basic substance in kind.
d. basic allowance for housing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(408) Which of the following is not a join spouse intent code?
a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. H. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(409) Family Member Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands
Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to whom?
a. Spouses only.
b. Children only.
c. Parents of sponsor.
d. Spouses and children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(409) Which is not a requirement for a member to qualify for Servicemember’s Group Life
Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI)?
a. Must suffer from a scheduled loss that is a direct result of a traumatic event.
b. Must have comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event.
c. Must have suffered the traumatic event before midnight of the day of separation.
d. Must survive for a period of at least seven full days from the date of the traumatic event. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(410) Which is not a responsibility of the force support squadron commander as it pertains to
casualty services?
a. Ensure the casualty assistance representative (CAR) has an open office for counseling the next
of kin.
b. Provide public affairs with the name, age, rank, and home of record of the deceased.
c. Appoints the casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members.
d. Publish required installation supplements to AFI 36–3002, Casualty Services |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(410) Once family members have been notified, the mortuary service officer and public affairs
office will provide name, rank, age,
a. home of record, race, and awards and decorations only.
b. race, religion, and total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) only.
c. home of record, race, religion, and TAFMSD, and place of enlistment.
d. home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(410) In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or
injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they
must be in grade(s)
a. Senior master sergeant (SMSgt) and Chief master sergeant (CMSgt) only.
b. Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt.
c. Staff sergeant (SSgt) through CMSgt.
d. CMSgt only. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(410) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is not considered
reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived?
a. Statements of witnesses to the incident.
b. Circumstances of the incident.
c. Location of the incident.
d. Search results. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(411) The survivor benefit plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity, due to an active duty member who
dies in the line of duty (LOD) and is paid by the Air Force to the
a. surviving parents.
b. eligible children only.
c. surviving spouse only.
d. surviving spouse or eligible children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(411) The survivor benefit plan (SBP) annuity is paid to a surviving spouse until the spouse dies,
a. but is suspended upon remarriage before age 45.
b. but is suspended upon remarriage before age 55.
c. and then it passes onto any surviving children.
d. and is not suspended upon remarriage |
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Definition
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Term
(412) How many members constitute a quorum for the Air Force Board for Correction of Military
Records (AFBCMR)?
a. Three.
b. Five.
c. Seven.
d. Nine. |
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Definition
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Term
(412) You can locate the form used to apply for a correction to military records at the following
locations except
a. any Air Force military personnel section.
b. most veterans’ service organization.
c. Air Force Review Boards office.
d. any Finance Services office. |
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Definition
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Term
(413) When requesting survey approval, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center
(AFPC)/DPSAS does not require you to
a. state the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year.
b. state the purpose and justification for the proposed research.
c. provide a point of contact, with a telephone number.
d. indicate how you will use the survey results. |
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Definition
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Term
(413) All approved, non-local surveys show
a. a survey control number and report control symbol only.
b. a survey control number, report control symbol, and fiscal year number
c. a office of management and budget number, survey control number, and point of contact.
d. a office of management and budget number, survey control number, or a report control symbol. |
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Definition
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Term
(414) The enlisted assignment preference is used for
a. continental United States (CONUS) or overseas (OS) assignments.
b. short notice OS assignments.
c. joint/departmental assignments.
d. special duty assignments (SDA). |
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Definition
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Term
(414) Before engaging in the assignment process and updating your preferences, members are
encouraged to discuss their assignment preferences with
a. family members, commanders, and co-workers.
b. family members, commanders, and first sergeant.
c. family members, commanders, and supervisors.
d. commanders, supervisors, and co-workers. |
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Definition
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Term
(415) Airmen are eligible for a special duty assignment (SDA) if they
a. have any other self-initiated permanent change of station request pending.
b. have an active unfavorable information file or are on the control roster (CR).
c. have been selected as noncommissioned officer of the quarter.
d. are not recommended for a SDA by their commander. |
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Definition
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Term
(415) How many months, minimum time on station (TOS), is required to apply for a special duty
assignment (SDA)?
a. 0.
b. 6.
c. 12.
d. 24. |
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Definition
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Term
(415) How many special duty application (s) may be submitted for consideration at any given
time?
a. One.
b. Three.
c. Five.
d. Eight. |
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Definition
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Term
(416) To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which of the following is not a
criterion?
a. The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.
b. The member’s presence must be absolutely essential to alleviate the problem.
c. A vacancy must exist at the new duty station and the member must meet retainability
requirements.
d. The problem is more severe than usually encountered by other AF members with a similar
problem. |
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Definition
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Term
(416) Humanitarian assignment or deferment request that usually warrants approval, are requests
substantiating problems arising from which circumstance?
a. Problems associated with child care arrangement.
b. The existence of a housing shortage or home ownership problems.
c. The recent death of the members spouse or child, including miscarriages.
d. A desire to provide emotional support to a parent or parent-in-law due to age |
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Definition
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Term
(417) If the career development element has numerous relocation briefings to conduct, what can
they do in order to save time?
a. Conduct mass briefings.
b. Conduct briefings only when necessary.
c. Make appointments for each individual.
d. File all assignment relocation folders in one drawer. |
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Definition
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Term
(417) Which order is not completed within orders processing application (OPA)?
a. AF Form 100, Request and Authorization for Separation.
b. AF Form 973, Request and Authorization for Change of Administrative Orders.
c. DD Form 1610, Request and Authorization for TDY Travel of DOD Personnel.
d. AF Form 899, Request and Authorization for Permanent Change of Station –Military. |
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Definition
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Term
(418) Dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) without a follow-on assignment application
is used to request
a. personally funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent
restricted or unaccompanied tour.
b. government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent
restricted or unaccompanied tour.
c. personally funded travel to a specified location other than the follow-on assignment location.
d. government funded travel for a household goods shipment |
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Definition
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Term
(418) An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must
have all of the following except
a. proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location.
b. a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate.
c. the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location.
d. a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents names and birthdates. |
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Definition
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Term
(418) Command sponsored dependents residing with the military member in an overseas
continental United States (OCONUS) personnel data system (PDS) may be relocated at
government expense prior to completion of prescribed overseas tour, describes what?
a. Concurrent travel.
b. Designated location move.
c. Early return of dependents.
d. Dependent travel to a designated place |
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Definition
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Term
(419) If a member is a medal of honor recipient and elects to separate, what is the earliest date of
separation he/she may receive?
a. Any date of request.
b. 4 months from date of request.
c. 6 months from date of request.
d. 9 months from date of request. |
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Definition
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Term
(420) How many years of total active federal military service (TAFMS) must members complete
before being eligible for retirement?
a. 10.
b. 20.
c. 22.
d. 25. |
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Definition
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Term
(421) Which agency is responsible for notifying commanders of promotion selection and
nonselection?
a. Orderly room.
b. Career development element.
c. Chief military personnel section.
d. Force management operations element. |
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Definition
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Term
(421) How many days in advance does the commander notify the officer of the projected
promotion effective date when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant?
a. 30.
b. 45.
c. 60.
d. 90. |
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Definition
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Term
(421) Who has the responsibility of providing an automatic quarterly end of month output product
to the career development element, within the first 10 days of the first months for below the zone?
a. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
b. Major command (MAJCOM).
c. Total force service center (TFSC).
d. Personnel systems management (PSM) section. |
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Definition
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Term
(421) The senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) promotion program is a two-phase selection
process that combines factors from
a. Weighed Airman Promotion System (WAPS) and the evaluation board.
b. WAPS and the specialty knowledge test (SKT).
c. WAPS and professional military education (PME).
d. WAPS and enlisted performance reports (EPR). |
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Definition
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Term
(422) Demotion actions should not be taken on Airmen who have
a. been selected for a permanent change of assignment.
b. been demoted in the past.
c. reenlisted.
d. separated. |
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Definition
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Term
(422) Within how many months after the effective date of the demotion can the demotion
authority restore an Airman’s original grade?
a. One and three.
b. Three and six.
c. Six and twelve.
d. Twelve and eighteen. |
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Definition
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Term
(422) The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects retirement in lieu of demotion,
will be no later than the first day of what month following the date the member received the
initial notification?
a. Third.
b. Fourth.
c. Fifth.
d. Sixth. |
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Definition
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Term
(423) Within how many days of the first processing month must the “BELOW-ZONE-E4”
promotion product be scheduled to run?
a. 10.
b. 20.
c. 30.
d. 45. |
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Definition
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Term
(424) The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure the
career force has professional noncommissioned officers that are
a. highly qualified.
b. experienced.
c. proficient.
d. on-time. |
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Definition
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Term
(424) First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive
selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration?
a. 30 (54 for six-year enlistees).
b. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees).
c. 36 (60 for six-year enlistees).
d. 40 (64 for six-year enlistees). |
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Definition
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Term
(424) When an Airman has been non-selected for reenlistment on AF IMT 418, what code is
updated in the personnel data system?
a. 1R.
b. 2X.
c. 3C.
d. 4E. |
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Definition
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Term
(424) National call to service (NCS) enlistees, enter their career jobs reservation (CJR) window
on the first duty day of the month they complete
a. 30 months.
b. 33 months.
c. 35 months.
d. 38 months. |
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Definition
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Term
(424) The maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone is
a. $30,000.
b. $60,000.
c. $75, 000.
d. $90,000. |
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Definition
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Term
(425) If an Airman joins with a non-initial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air Force specialty code
(AFSC), but later is reclassified into a specialty that is authorized a bonus, what happens to
member’s bonus eligibility?
a. Member is not eligible.
b. Eligible after reclassification.
c. Eligible after completing six months.
d. Eligible when there is an increase in bonus amount. |
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Definition
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Term
(426) What is the maximum number of months an Airmen can extend their current enlistments?
a. 12.
b. 24.
c. 48.
d. 60. |
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Definition
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Term
(426) How many days leave can Airmen sell if they’ve sold any leave since 10 February 1976?
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60. |
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Definition
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Term
(427) When there is no break in active duty service, what will a member’s total active federal
military service date (TAFMSD) reflect?
a. Original entry on active duty.
b. Date entered into delayed enlistment.
c. Date completed basic military training.
d. Date agreed to sign up for active duty. |
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Definition
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Term
(427) A computation of all periods of active and inactive enlisted service creditable for basic pay
is considered
a. total active federal commissioning service date (TAFSCD).
b. total active federal military service date (TAFMSD).
c. date initial entry uniformed service (DIEUS).
d. total enlisted military service date (TEMSD). |
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Definition
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Term
(428) What grades can incur an active duty service commitment (ADSC)?
a. General and below and all enlisted personnel.
b. Colonel and below and all enlisted personnel.
c. Enlisted noncommissioned officers only.
d. All commissioned active duty officers. |
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Definition
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Term
(429) An election for career status bonus (CSDB) cannot be submitted no more than how many
months after the notification of opportunity?
a. Two.
b. Four.
c. Six.
d. Eight. |
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Definition
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Term
(429) What type of counseling is suggested for members to obtain in order to make an informed
career status bonus (CSB) option?
a. Legal.
b. Medical.
c. Financial.
d. Education |
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Definition
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Term
(430) What process is the first step in selecting reliable personnel to perform duties associated
with nuclear weapons?
a. Suspension.
b. Certification.
c. Temporary decertification.
d. Administrative qualification. |
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Definition
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Term
(430) If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, then
he/she is in what type of personnel reliability program (PRP) position?
a. Critical.
b. Restricted.
c. Controlled.
d. Responsible. |
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Definition
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