Term
| Which squadrons form the MXG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For whom does QA directly work? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does QA identify negative trends and problem areas? |
|
Definition
| Evaluation/inspection. Puts info into a database for analysis. Personal Evaluations, Technical inspections, management inspections. |
|
|
Term
| The MOS (MOC) is directly responsible to the MXG commander for which tasks to support the group production effort? |
|
Definition
| administration, training management, programs and resources. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main function of the MOC? |
|
Definition
| Monitor and coordinate sortie production, maintenance production execution of flying and maintenance schedules, maintain visibility of fleet health indicators. |
|
|
Term
| What is crucial for the MOC to comply with reporting requirements and to identify potential problems? |
|
Definition
| The exchange of detailed information between squadrons and the MOC. |
|
|
Term
| The maintenance squadron can be divided into which two squadrons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you are assigned to the MXS or CMS/EMS, under which two flights might you be assigned? |
|
Definition
| Propulsion flight or maintenance flight |
|
|
Term
| What types of tasks does the propulsion flight perform? |
|
Definition
| Engine disassembly/ asssembly and repair. JEIM (Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance), Test cell, accessory and quick engine change (QEC). |
|
|
Term
| If you are assigned to a specialist flight in the AMXS, which engine tasks may you be required to accomplish? |
|
Definition
| on-equipment maintenance: troubleshooting, component removal/ installation, compressor washes, inspections, servicing, and assist with launch/recovery, towing. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)? |
|
Definition
To provide career field managers, training managers, supervisors, and trainers with the framework to plan,
develop, conduct, manage, and evaluate an effective, productive, and efficient career field-training
program. |
|
|
Term
| What does the fourth position of the AFSC 3A652 represent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is your title when you obtain a 5-skill level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What skill level would you possess when you obtain the title "superintendent?" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many months must you have in the AF before you attend ALS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should you keep your CDCs after you've completed them? |
|
Definition
| So you can study them when you prepare to test for SSgt. |
|
|
Term
| When you are promoted to the rank of TSgt, what school must you attend? |
|
Definition
| Non-commissioned officer academy |
|
|
Term
| At what skill level is an airman expected to fill positions such as flight chief or production supervisor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose and goal of the AFOSH program? |
|
Definition
To ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees; its ultimate goal is to protect
them from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses. |
|
|
Term
| What series of AFOSH standards govern occupational safety? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What office would you contact if you have questions regarding and unsafe condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of safety in the work area? |
|
Definition
| to prevent personal injury, damage to equipment, save time and money |
|
|
Term
| How can most hazardous situations be avoided? |
|
Definition
| By simply following procedures, asking for help when needed, and using personal protective equipment. |
|
|
Term
| List 4 good housekeeping practices. |
|
Definition
(1) Wiping up spills as they occur.
(2) Picking up oily rags and returning them to their proper containers.
(3) Picking up foreign objects.
(4) Getting rid of clutter. |
|
|
Term
| How should you lift a heavy or bulky object? |
|
Definition
| Keep your back straight, squat down, and then use your leg and arm muscles to provide the lifting power |
|
|
Term
| How is quality maintenance defined? |
|
Definition
Meeting or exceeding aerospace equipment technical specifications and a customer’s requirements through
the effective integration of management; people; technical data; workplace; and equipment, supplies, and
services. |
|
|
Term
| On what aspects of performing maintenance must all levels of supervision place emphasis? |
|
Definition
| Safety, quality, and timeliness. |
|
|
Term
| What types of maintenance actions are prohibited? |
|
Definition
| Shortcuts or incomplete maintenance |
|
|
Term
| what does maintenance discipline require of maintenance personnel? |
|
Definition
| To display integrity and comply with all written guidance. |
|
|
Term
| What will happen to personnel who fail to uphold maintenance discipline? |
|
Definition
| They will be held accountable |
|
|
Term
| What two things should you check to ensure the aircraft is safe for you to perform maintenance? |
|
Definition
| Check the aircraft forms and check with other personnel located around and onboard the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| Which aircraft forms should you check for entries that may prevent you from starting your assigned tasks? |
|
Definition
| AFTO Forms 781H and 781A. |
|
|
Term
| Why should you check with other people working inside or outside of the aircraft prior to starting maintenance? |
|
Definition
| They might not have put the proper entries in the forms before starting their tasks |
|
|
Term
| What form is documented to identify and armed aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are three types of equipment that produce radio frequency radiation? |
|
Definition
| High-frequency radio transmitters, radar, and electronic countermeasure devices. |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary danger areas that exist around and operating engine? |
|
Definition
Propellers, engine intakes and exhausts, turbine wheel, and starter planes of rotation and high frequency
noise. |
|
|
Term
| When a propeller is running, what are its two most dangerous areas? |
|
Definition
| the plane of rotation and axis of rotation |
|
|
Term
| What causes the danger area in front of the intake of an operating engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum safe distance that should be established to avoid the effects of an exhaust blast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the best way to protect yourself from noise levels that can cause permanent hearing loss? |
|
Definition
| Wear both earplugs and headsets. |
|
|
Term
| Why should personnel exercise caution when approaching the plane of rotation of a helicopter's main rotor blades? |
|
Definition
| The blades/plane tend(s) to droop at decreased speeds |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary factors that create static electricity? |
|
Definition
| Different movements or motion. |
|
|
Term
| When approaching or leaving a helicopter with blades rotating, what two things should maintenance personal remember? |
|
Definition
| All personnel need to remain in full view of the pilot or helicopter operator and keep in a crouched position. |
|
|
Term
| What is effective grounding? |
|
Definition
| Providing a path for static electricity to flow to a grounding point in the earth. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of bonding? |
|
Definition
To eliminate the differentials in electrical charges that exist or are generated between a component and the
aircraft, or between two components. |
|
|
Term
| At the locations where a bonding wire is attached, what surface requirements must be met? |
|
Definition
| The surface must be clean and unpainted |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if the clothing you are wearing becomes soaked with fuel? |
|
Definition
Remove your clothes and shower immediately with plenty of soap and water. Allow the clothing to air dry,
and then launder it with soap and water. |
|
|
Term
| What conditions could result from excessive inhalation of fuel or chemicals? |
|
Definition
| Headaches, dizziness, loss of muscular coordination, and unconsciousness. |
|
|
Term
| Why should AF personnel be so concerned about FOD? |
|
Definition
The damage it causes translates into the loss of resources, money, or in a worst-case scenario, someone’s
life. |
|
|
Term
| What can happen when loose objects are blown or washed onto the runway? |
|
Definition
| an aircraft engine can ingest them through its intake |
|
|
Term
| Who is tasked with the overall responsibility for the FOD prevention program? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for preventing FOD by looking for and removing hazards that could cause damage to equipment or loss of life? |
|
Definition
| All personnel are responsible |
|
|
Term
| What must all workers account for at the beginning and end of each maintenance action? |
|
Definition
| all of their tools and hardware |
|
|
Term
| What should you do when you suspect that an item is lost on an aircraft and it is in an area where it can cause damage? |
|
Definition
Immediately place a red “X” symbol in the AFTO 781A and an entry describing the situation. Then, you
must conduct a search for the lost item. |
|
|
Term
| What should you wear when you are required to physically enter and intake or exhaust? |
|
Definition
| bunny suit or equivalent pocketless coverall |
|
|
Term
| To whom should you report damaged paving in aircraft parking area and taxiways for immediate repair? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Into what two categories are HAZMAT divided? |
|
Definition
| Health and physical hazards |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the hazard communications program? |
|
Definition
To reduce the occurrences of occupational illnesses and injuries by informing all personnel of the hazards
associated with, and the proper preventive measures to be taken, when they’re using or handling hazardous
materials. |
|
|
Term
| Toxic materials are divided into what three general physical classifications? |
|
Definition
| Gases and vapors, liquids, solids |
|
|
Term
| What type of gas are we frequently exposed to during test cell and flightline operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which physical form of hazardous material enters the body easily and can cause rapid toxic reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the key factor in making the PPE program successful? |
|
Definition
| Your acceptance of the program. |
|
|
Term
| What is a critical factor in PPE maintenance? |
|
Definition
| inspect before and after each use |
|
|
Term
| what is normally used to clean most PPE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when you store PPE, from what are you protecting them? |
|
Definition
| Sunlight, heat, extreme cold, and excessive moisture, and mechanical damage. |
|
|
Term
| What should the design of a hazardous storage area allow for? |
|
Definition
Inspection of each container for leaks and deterioration, and for the transfer of container contents in case
container damage occurs. |
|
|
Term
| When removing spilled or leaking HAZMAT from the storage area, what should you never do? |
|
Definition
| Never place incompatible types in the same container. |
|
|
Term
| What information must hazard warning labels include? |
|
Definition
| Name and identity of the chemical and all appropriate hazard warnings. |
|
|
Term
| For stationary hazard containers, what can be used in place of a label? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An MSDS is required to be available for every type of material recorded on what document? |
|
Definition
| Hazardous chemical inventory |
|
|
Term
| Where can you find the proper procedures for disposing of hazardous waste materials? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the ways hazardous waste can be disposed of properly? |
|
Definition
| Chemical-physical treatment, biodegradation, incineration, land disposal, and off-site contract disposal. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the maintenance supply system? |
|
Definition
| To procure, stock, and issue millions of items to thousands of customers worldwide. |
|
|
Term
| What major weapon systems do RSSs manage? |
|
Definition
| Aircraft, engines, communications, test stands, aerospace ground equipment, vehicles, and pods. |
|
|
Term
| what is the standard base supply system? |
|
Definition
An accounting system consisting of standardized computer equipment, programs, procedures, and supply
policy. |
|
|
Term
| What are three primary points of contact within base supply? |
|
Definition
(1) Customer service.
(2) Demand processing.
(3) Equipment management. |
|
|
Term
| What is the common term for repair cycle assets? |
|
Definition
| Due-in-form-maintenance (DIFM) parts |
|
|
Term
| what Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system? |
|
Definition
| Repair Cycle Support System (RCSS) |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the repair cycle system? |
|
Definition
To establish a firm control over repair cycle assets to make sure they are repaired at base-level or sent to a
repair facility as soon as possible. |
|
|
Term
| When does the repair cycle time of an item start and stop? |
|
Definition
It starts when the unserviceable item is removed from the engine and a demand is made on Base Supply for
a replacement. It stops when the item is sent back to Base Supply. |
|
|
Term
| When you route a part to be repaired through RCSS, which part of the AFTO Form 350 do they need? |
|
Definition
| Part 2, bottom portion of tag |
|
|
Term
| What types of items generally require complete depot-level overhaul? |
|
Definition
(a) TCI, whose allowable operating time has expired.
(b) Items involved in a weapon system accident.
(c) Items which have evidence of contamination.
(d) Items for which the condition cannot be determined. |
|
|
Term
| List three of the important supply documents that you may utilize? |
|
Definition
Any three of the following:
(1) Daily Document Register (D04).
(2) Priority Monitor Report (D18).
(3) Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).
(4) Due-out Validation Listing (M30).
(5) RSD DIFM Report. |
|
|
Term
| Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS? |
|
Definition
| Daily Document Register (D04) |
|
|
Term
| Which supply document provides data by which to monitor due-out and their corresponding status? |
|
Definition
| Priority Monitor report (D18) |
|
|
Term
| Why must Base Supply have a priority monitoring system in place? |
|
Definition
Because Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a daily basis and each
organization’s mission is different. |
|
|
Term
| What two priority system does supply use? |
|
Definition
(1) Delivery Priority System.
(2) UMMIPS. |
|
|
Term
| What two factors determine priority for an off-base requisition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What factor is adversely affected by the misuse of priority designators? |
|
Definition
| The integrity of the supply system. |
|
|
Term
| What is part 1 of the AFTO form 350 known as and for what is it used? |
|
Definition
It is known as the repair cycle processing tag; it is attached to items that are determined to be reparable and
are being forwarded to other activities for repair. |
|
|
Term
| Where is part 2 of the AFTO Form 350 located and what purpose does it serve? |
|
Definition
| It is the section located below the perforation; as the production scheduling document. |
|
|
Term
| Where can you find a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When an item is sent to RPC, which blocks (both front and back) are required to be completed by the individual (originator) initiating the 350 tag? |
|
Definition
| Blocks 1 through 14, 15A, and 29. |
|
|
Term
| When an item is not sent to the RPC because of its size of for other reasons, which additional blocks must be completed by the originator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where can you go to find detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are you required to enter the type, model, series, and serial number on the AF IMT 2005? |
|
Definition
| When the requirement is for an NMCS or PMCS reportable item. |
|
|
Term
| Which form should you submit it it's determined that a first-time request part will become a recurring one and, therefore, the stock level needs to be adjusted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where can you look to find information concerning how to use the condition tags and required entries for each? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What conditions warrant use of the DD Form 1575 (Brown)? |
|
Definition
| When the part is awaiting maintenance or awaiting parts. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the DD Form 1577 (Red)? |
|
Definition
| To identify an unserviceable, condemned item. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of DD Form 1577-2 (Green)? |
|
Definition
| Used to identify defective items that can be repaired and made serviceable. |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of a shelf-life item? |
|
Definition
An item that possesses deteriorative or unstable characteristics to the degree that a storage time period must
be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main difference between Types I and II shelf-life items? |
|
Definition
Type I items have a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life and Type II items may have their shelf-life
period extended after completion of inspection/test/restorative actions. |
|
|
Term
| For what can the information on DRs be used? |
|
Definition
To increase operational capability and efficiency by correcting defects in design, material, quality, or
maintenance of equipment, and to reflect the past performance history of a contractor. |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the justifications for initiating a DR? |
|
Definition
(1) Safety.
(2) The part does not fit upon receipt.
(3) The part does not work upon receipt.
(4) The part failed before its expected life cycle. |
|
|
Term
| You receive a part from supply that does not fit correctly and the part is still under warranty. Would you still submit a DR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You find a deficiency that, if uncorrected, would cause severe injury. Under which category should you submit the DR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Within what time frame must all category II DRs be forwarded? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List some examples of EAID items. |
|
Definition
Individual equipment, organizational equipment (i.e., engine stands and special tools), and special or
project equipment. |
|
|
Term
| EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on what listing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who provides you with the required equipment manager training? |
|
Definition
| Equipment Management element at Base Supply. |
|
|
Term
| List the things you must accomplish if you serve as an equipment custodian. |
|
Definition
(a) Ensure you attend the required training on proper equipment account maintenance.
(b) Inventory and account for every piece of equipment shown on the current CA/CRL before signing for
the account.
(c) Conduct periodic inventory checks of your account to ensure that all the items listed are accounted for. |
|
|
Term
| Why are Technical Orders numbered? |
|
Definition
(1) To provide a sequence for filing.
(2) To categorize them by equipment type.
(3) To assist in establishing a library. |
|
|
Term
| In the first section of TO number 1F-16C-1, what does the "1" represent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the first section of TO number 2J-F110-6-6, what does the "J" represent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the TO number 2J-F110-6-14, what does the "F110" represent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are index TOs identified? |
|
Definition
| With a single “0” in the first section of the TO number. |
|
|
Term
| What can the USAF TO catalog database be used for? |
|
Definition
(1) To establish and requisition TO requirements.
(2) For the maintenance of TO libraries.
(3) To search for new, updated, and rescinded TOs.
(4) To cross-reference TO numbers to equipment numbers. |
|
|
Term
| List three examples of O&M TOs. |
|
Definition
(1) Flight manual program publications.
(2) On-equipment organizational maintenance manual sets.
(3) Work package TOs. |
|
|
Term
| What do methods of procedures TOs establish? |
|
Definition
Policies, methods, and procedures relating to the TO system, maintenance management, ground handling of
aerospace vehicles, general maintenance practices, management of precision measuring equipment, and the
safe use of Air Force equipment. |
|
|
Term
| What are abbreviated TOs? |
|
Definition
Excerpts from one or more basic TOs which organize and simplify instructions (work simplification
devices). |
|
|
Term
| TCTOs are the authorized method for doing what? |
|
Definition
Directing and providing instructions for modifying military systems and commodities and for performing or
initially establishing one-time inspections. |
|
|
Term
| Which technical manuals generally describe the overall aircraft and its installed systems and subsystems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of information do GS manuals provide? |
|
Definition
| Detailed system and subsystem description, as well as theory of operation. |
|
|
Term
| What type of information do JG manuals provide? |
|
Definition
| Detailed start-to-finish, step-by-step maintenance instructions arranged in a logical sequence. |
|
|
Term
| Which type of technical manual contains operational fault identification procedures and reporting instructions that allow the flight crew to describe the conditions pertaining to a malfunction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the process of troubleshooting equipment when using an FI manual. |
|
Definition
The parts of a system/function are tested in a logical sequence until a specific line replaceable unit failure,
maladjustment, or a wiring fault is found. |
|
|
Term
| In IETMS, what additional technical order data is provided beyond the basic technical manual? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you need to look up a part number, which two sections of the IPB manual could you use? |
|
Definition
| Group assembly parts list and/or numerical index. |
|
|
Term
| What type of instructions do TCTOs provide? |
|
Definition
For modifying military equipment, systems, or commodities within specified time limits, and initiates
special “one-time” inspections or imposes temporary restrictions on systems. |
|
|
Term
| How can a TCTO be quickly identified? |
|
Definition
| By the number 501 (or higher) in the third section of the TO number. |
|
|
Term
| Why are interim TCTOs issued in an electronic message format? |
|
Definition
| To speed delivery and implementation. |
|
|
Term
| How are hard copy, immediate action TCTOs identified? |
|
Definition
With the words “IMMEDIATE ACTION” printed in red at the top of the first page and with red Xs around
the borders of the first page. |
|
|
Term
| When must an urgent action TCTO be completed? |
|
Definition
| within one to 10 days of receipt. |
|
|
Term
| Why would a routine TCTO be issued? |
|
Definition
When equipment or procedural deficiencies of a material, mechanical, operational, or tactical nature that if
left uncorrected would:
(1) Create a hazard through prolonged and continued use.
(2) Cause a negative effect on operational efficiency.
(3) Reduce tactical or support utility.
(4) Reduce the operational life or general service utilization of equipment or systems. |
|
|
Term
| What are the ways, or formats, in which TOs are issued? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to ensure that you are using the most current TO for your particular job? |
|
Definition
| Working with outdated information could result in serious injury and/or damage to tools/equipment. |
|
|
Term
| The need to a TO revision is based on what factors? |
|
Definition
(1) The impact of changes and supplements on the usability of the TO.
(2) Urgency of need for update.
(3) Cost.
(4) Quantity of stock on hand. |
|
|
Term
| If a TO change contains new material that cannot be included on an existing page, how are added pages assigned? |
|
Definition
| With the preceding page number and a suffix, such as 2–2.1 or 2–2A. |
|
|
Term
| How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed? |
|
Definition
There’s a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text in the margin and through the silhouette of a
pointing hand in a figure, picture, or illustration. |
|
|
Term
| What form is used to recommend improvements to TOs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the results of an approved TO recommendation? |
|
Definition
Corrects an error, inserts an omitted technical fact, or standardizes improved procedures for all personnel
Air Force–wide. |
|
|
Term
| What is the next stopping point for an AFTO IMT 22 after being validated by the initiator's supervisor? |
|
Definition
| Product improvement office for the organization to which the initiator is assigned. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A disciplined methodology used to identify preventative maintenance tasks to ensure equipment meets its
life expectancy at minimum cost to the government. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two classifications of failures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the process of trying to match modules with approximately the same amount of time left on them? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the ET&D program? |
|
Definition
An integration of hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and
monitor/manage engine health. |
|
|
Term
| List the purposes of ET&D. |
|
Definition
(1) Predict, detect, and conduct pre-emptive maintenance analysis of adverse trends.
(2) Forecast time and material requirements days or weeks in advance to minimize ENMCS rates and
maintenance man-hours.
(3) Reduce shop flow days and increase serviceable spare engine levels.
(4) Reduce life cycle costs and improve reliability by improved measurement of life used on critical
components.
(5) Increase average ETOW by eliminating time-based removals. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary goal of the ET&D program? |
|
Definition
To prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by prediction or early detection of performance degradation
and/or failures. |
|
|
Term
| How do flight line personnel use ET&D data? |
|
Definition
| By collecting raw engine data and transferring it to the base engine maintenance shop for analysis. |
|
|
Term
| How do depot and product center engineers and technicians utilize the ET&D program? |
|
Definition
To develop engine trend data and provide support to field users by diagnosing engine performance
problems. |
|
|
Term
| What is the ET&D program designed to determine? |
|
Definition
| If maintenance must be performed before the next flight and/or before the next scheduled engine change. |
|
|
Term
| What are CIRFs designed for and what type of support do they provide? |
|
Definition
To take advantage of existing repair centers to sustain deployed forces and reduce forward support
footprints, and regional repair during steady-state or contingency operations. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Additional assets at the maintenance facility to provide sufficient numbers to allow direct shipment of
serviceable assets to the supported units as soon as the need is communicated. |
|
|
Term
| What is the benefit of a CRP? |
|
Definition
Reduces customer waiting time by replacing unserviceable assets with serviceable as soon as the need is
communicated rather than waiting for the unserviceable asset to be shipped to the CIRF, repaired, and
returned to the FOL. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
In one of three ways:
(1) Spare assets may be shipped to a CIRF from nondeploying units to build the CRP.
(2) Additional spares may be shipped to the CIRF from deploying units.
(3) CRPs may be built from unserviceable assets shipped from the FOL to the CIRF for repair. Once
repaired, these serviceable assets would be retained at the CIRF as CIRF assets. |
|
|
Term
| How are CIRF assets accounted for and tracked? |
|
Definition
CIRF production supervisors maintain accountability of CIRF assets by using the AF Portal to report daily
status of these assets IAW prescribed instructions. |
|
|
Term
| What is depot maintenance? |
|
Definition
Maintenance performed on material requiring overhauling or rebuilding of parts, assemblies,
subassemblies, and end items. |
|
|
Term
| List the organizational chain from the requesters through depot. |
|
Definition
(1) Field maintenance.
(2) Base supply.
(3) AF/DLA supply centers.
(4) Asset management.
(5) Depot repair.
(6) New production (vendors). |
|
|
Term
| What type of maintenance does depot perform? |
|
Definition
Engine/component overhaul, JEIM level functions, disassembly, inspections, repairs, replacements,
assemble and test engines/components, and engine systems. |
|
|
Term
| From where does the AF obtain depot maintenance? |
|
Definition
| Organic Department of Defense facilities and private sector contractors. |
|
|
Term
| List the most common forms of depot level maintenance. |
|
Definition
| CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, field teams, and maintenance assistance. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary objective of CEMS? |
|
Definition
To obtain accurate information on the status, condition, and location of aircraft engines, gearboxes, and
modules in the Air Force inventory. |
|
|
Term
| What is used to collect and store information provided by different engine reporting systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the various methods used to report engine status data to CEMS? |
|
Definition
(1) IMDS.
(2) DLR.
(3) REMIS.
(4) G081 (IMDS for HQ AMC units for mobility airlift).
(5) Mail. |
|
|
Term
| What section monitors engine removals and replacements and tracks components at the base level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some functions of CEMS? |
|
Definition
(1) Provide for Air Force readiness through the collection of information which, when accumulated,
indicates the overall view of operational capability.
(2) Answer the question of how many engines and components are available at any one time.
(3) Provide for cost effective use of available resources, since it allows components and engines to be
shifted from places of excess to high-need areas. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two categories of status reporting? |
|
Definition
| The first category is for engines and modules; the second category is for tracked components. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the AFTO IMT 95? |
|
Definition
For maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items of equipment
including, but not limited to aerospace vehicles, engines, engine modules, and designated –6 TO
components. |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if an automated data system is not available for engine status reporting? |
|
Definition
Use the AFTO IMT 95 to collect the data manually and in sufficient detail to update the automated systems
when practical. |
|
|
Term
| In general, what conditions should be documented on the AFTO IMT 95? |
|
Definition
| Conditions that could have a bearing on the future maintenance of the equipment. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer engine program? |
|
Definition
| To determine actual distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field. |
|
|
Term
| what is the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program? |
|
Definition
An accelerated mission usage program that assists in maturing the engines, modules, LRUs, SRUs, and
their subsystems. |
|
|
Term
| What type of information does the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program provide? |
|
Definition
Early intelligence on equipment integrity, reliability, and maintainability before the majority of the fleet is
impacted; engineering data and procurement lead times for orderly updating and modification of the engine,
engine controls, and accessories. |
|
|
Term
| List the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objectives. |
|
Definition
(1) Accelerate Pacer items ahead of the operational fleet to identify potential premature engine
component failures, enable early analysis of trends, failure modes/rates, and assist in defining the
required corrective actions prior to maturity of the remaining fleet.
(2) Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements. Safely extend TO hardware inspection limits.
(3) Rapidly advance item maximum life limits so they are consistent with the capability of the hardware.
(4) Provide early analysis of trending data to improve planning and forecasting in procuring initial and
follow-on spares.
(5) Identify hardware service life deficiencies and the areas that require redesign/rework before extensive
production commitments are made.
(6) Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections.
(7) Evaluate engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems.
(8) Provide lead-time for solving maintenance issues, developing maintenance plans, and resource
provisioning. |
|
|
Term
| How do participating units manage pacer engines? |
|
Definition
At twice the normal flying rate until the items are, at a minimum, two years ahead of the top 10 percent
(high time) fleet engines. |
|
|
Term
| What program does the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program support? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why shouldn't you use a greasy tool? |
|
Definition
The tools become slippery and you could lose your grip. If a tool slips out of your hand, the result could be
damage to equipment, or injury to yourself and/or your coworkers. |
|
|
Term
| Why shouldn't you put tools in your pockets? |
|
Definition
| Increases the chances of loosing them and increases your chances of being injured. |
|
|
Term
| At what times should your toolbox be inspected? |
|
Definition
At the beginning of the shift, before you leave the tool crib section, after you finish a job and before you
move the toolbox to a different work location prior to leaving the work area for lunch breaks or
appointments, and at the end of your shift, prior to turning it in to the tool crib. |
|
|
Term
| What should you check when inspecting you toolbox are the beginning of each shift? |
|
Definition
| Missing, damaged, corroded, and dirty tools and any foreign objects that may have been left in the toolbox. |
|
|
Term
| What should you do with your toolbox when it is not in use (for example, lunch and breaks)? Why? |
|
Definition
It should be locked and secured to a fixed object. This way neither the toolbox, nor any of its contents can
be stolen. |
|
|
Term
| What can you use when your toolbox can't be located within arm's reach? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the torque value of a torque wrench expressed? |
|
Definition
| Inch-pounds or foot-pounds |
|
|
Term
| What's the most common type of torque wrench used in the AF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you reduce the torque setting on a torque wrench? |
|
Definition
| Turn the handle or grip counter clockwise |
|
|
Term
| If you drop a torque wrench, what action must you take? |
|
Definition
| Verify the accuracy of the torque wrench and, if necessary, have the wrench recalibrated. |
|
|
Term
| You're torquing a castellated nut. The minimum torque value is 50 in-lb and the maximum torque value is 60 in-lb. The slot in the castellated nut can't be aligned with the locking hole in the bolt. What corrective action should you take? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the following situation, use the given information to determine the desired torque. You wish to exert 200 in-lbs at the end of an extension. The length of the handle is 12 inches and the extension is 8 inches. What should be the torque handle setting? |
|
Definition
| S=T(La)/(La+Ea) where S=handle setting, La=length of handle in inches, T=Torque applied at end of adapter, Ea=length of extension in inches. S=120 in-lb. |
|
|
Term
| For what purpose should you use a thickness gauge? |
|
Definition
| To measure the clearance between two surfaces. |
|
|
Term
| When using the thickness gauge to check the gap between two surfaces, what important point regarding accuracy should you always remember? |
|
Definition
The accuracy of the gauge will depend on one’s ability to determine by feel when there is the correct
tension or pressure on the blades. |
|
|
Term
| What are the parts of and outside micrometer? |
|
Definition
| Frame, anvil, spindle, barrel, lock, vernier scale, and thimble. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three basic types of micrometers and their purposes? |
|
Definition
(1) Outside micrometer - to measure outside diameters, (2) inside micrometer - to measure inside
dimensions, and (3) depth micrometer to measure the depth of holes or recesses. |
|
|
Term
| What is the longest calibrated movement possible between the spindle and anvil of a 6-inch outside micrometer and what is the movement called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List four of the precautions you should take when using a micrometer. |
|
Definition
Choose any four of the following six. Do not close micrometers too tightly on the work; never swing it
back and forth by the thimble; always hold the frame stationary and adjust the tool by turning the thimble.
Before using, clean the micrometer and the surface being measured; do not handle large micrometers
roughly; and during cold weather, use a cloth to prevent heat transfer between your body and the
micrometer |
|
|
Term
| Which other measuring tool can you use while practicing with a micrometer to aid you in becoming proficient in using the micrometer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many revolutions would you have to turn the thimble of a micrometer to read 0.025 inches? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the micrometer has graduations that represent tenths of an inch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What measurement does the vernier scale on the micrometer provide? |
|
Definition
| ten-thousandths of an inch. |
|
|
Term
| What type of device is a dial indicator? |
|
Definition
| A mechanical motion-amplifying device. |
|
|
Term
| What feature is common to all dial indicators? |
|
Definition
| The ability to greatly amplify movement. |
|
|
Term
| On dial indicators with two indicators within one dial face, what does the smaller indicator measure? |
|
Definition
| The number of revolutions of the larger hand. |
|
|
Term
| What is the greatest single assurance against excessive wear, breakage, and other damage to measuring tools? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What element is the most prevalent cause of excessive wear of measuring tools? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you apply to steel-measuring tools that are stored in a shop area having a high relative humidity? |
|
Definition
| Cover them with a corrosion-preventing coating of lubricating oil. |
|
|
Term
| When cleaning measuring tools, what type of solvent should you use? |
|
Definition
| One that leaves no film after evaporation. |
|
|
Term
| Which control switch on the Fluke 8025A multimeter is used to set the meter to check for alternating current, direct current, and ohms? |
|
Definition
| Single function selector rotary switch |
|
|
Term
| Which control switch is used to take measurements in a circuit that's difficult to reach? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On what side of the circuit is the black test lead connected? |
|
Definition
| The negative side of the circuit. |
|
|
Term
| Where are measurement results displayed on the meter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do the letters "OL" indicate on the display? |
|
Definition
| Overload condition or open circuit. |
|
|
Term
| What's the most important safety precaution to observe when using the ohms function of the multimeter? |
|
Definition
| Do not hook an ohmmeter to a live circuit |
|
|
Term
| How is the multimeter connected to a component that is to be measured? |
|
Definition
| In Parallel; Black lead on the negative side and the Red lead on the positive side. |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the decimal point is at 300 on the digital display? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the borescope inspection? |
|
Definition
| To perform internal component inspections on engines. |
|
|
Term
| What are some limitations of the borescope? |
|
Definition
Access ports available, serviceability of the equipment, and the experience and knowledge of the person
performing the inspection. |
|
|
Term
| What types of borescopes are used on today's engines? |
|
Definition
| Rigid, flexible, and videoimage. |
|
|
Term
| The rigid and flexible borescope control units are similar except for what? |
|
Definition
| The rigid control unit doesn't have an angulation lever. |
|
|
Term
| What types of views are available with the distal tip of the rigid borescope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What factors determine whether or not someone is capable of becoming qualified to operate a borescope? |
|
Definition
| Experience, maturity, rank. |
|
|
Term
| What type of damage results from a pinched fiber bundle or light guide cable? |
|
Definition
| Damaged fibers cause a poor field of view and are very expensive to repair. |
|
|
Term
| Where are bolt markings located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the diameter of a bolt measured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are fine thread bolts stronger than coarse thread bolts? |
|
Definition
| They have a greater cross-sectional area. |
|
|
Term
| Into what two general groups are nuts divided? |
|
Definition
| Nonself-locking and self-locking. |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum safe working temperature for nonmetallic self-locking nuts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which screw is made from high tensile material? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which screw is used for general purposes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of machine-head screws? |
|
Definition
| Any three of these: roundhead, flathead, fillister head, and socket-head. |
|
|
Term
| How do lockwashers secure bolts and screws? |
|
Definition
| Spring action and sharp tempered edge prevents loosening. |
|
|
Term
| In aircraft maintenance, what are the more commonly used pins? |
|
Definition
| Tapered pins, flathead pins, cotter pins, roll pins, and quick-release pins. |
|
|
Term
| What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of pin is used in conjunction with a cotter pin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many times may you reuse a cotter pin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of safetying devices? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When lockwiring two bolts together, betwee, what positions should the lockwire twists exit on the firt bolt? |
|
Definition
| between 3 and 6 o’clock position. |
|
|
Term
| How many twists should be left on the braid when cutting off excess lockwire? |
|
Definition
| Enough to safely bend the pigtail end toward the bolt head. |
|
|
Term
| What advantage does steel tubing have over aluminum tubing? |
|
Definition
| It will withstand rough handling and high pressure. |
|
|
Term
| Why are flexible hose assemblies used instead of metal tubing in some applications? |
|
Definition
Hoses are especially suitable where a great amount of flexibility is needed and where lines are subject to
vibration. |
|
|
Term
| Why should the bend radii on hoses be bent as large as possible? |
|
Definition
| To avoid kinking of the line. |
|
|
Term
| What is used to identify hose and tubing systems after installation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What size fitting should be used for a piece of tubing that is 5/8 inch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of connectors can be used in any system no matter what the pressure is? |
|
Definition
| Flared, sleeve, or swage types. |
|
|
Term
| What causes most nicks and scratches on engine plumbing? |
|
Definition
| Careless handling of tools during engine maintenance. |
|
|
Term
| How should dust caps be installed on open lines? |
|
Definition
| Position dust caps over, rather than in, the tube ends. |
|
|
Term
| What is the allowable limit for a dent in a straight line? |
|
Definition
Any dent in a piece of tubing that’s less than 20 percent of the tubing diameter isn’t objectionable unless
it’s on the heel of a short bend radius. |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum distance a hose can go without support? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of leaving 1.5 inches of slack in a hose that connects to an engine component? |
|
Definition
| This prevents the possibility of the hose being pulled off the connection due to engine movement. |
|
|
Term
| An engine is sent to the engine shop with a known discrepancy. What should you do before you begin corrective action to correct the discrepancy? |
|
Definition
First, review the aircraft and engine forms; second, perform an FOD check of the compressor section; and
third, remove the main oil filter and inspect for oil contamination. |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to have a clean container to catch the oil when checking the main oil filter for contamination? |
|
Definition
| A dirty container could easily give a false indication of contamination. |
|
|
Term
| Why should a preliminary inspection of the engine be performed prior to correcting a known discrepancy? |
|
Definition
To ensure an unknown discrepancy doesn’t slip by while the engine is undergoing maintenance for a known
discrepancy. |
|
|
Term
| How are hints on maintenance procedures highlighted in maintenance manuals? |
|
Definition
| In the form of captions such as notes, cautions, and warnings. |
|
|
Term
| What are possible consequences of a dirty work area? |
|
Definition
| Contamination and subsequent engine failures. |
|
|
Term
| Why should you never stack engine parts with precision finishes on concrete floors? |
|
Definition
| Marring and nicking would lead to cracks in the metal and leaks of exhaust gases during engine operation. |
|
|
Term
| Before you prepare an engine for air shipment, what precaution do you take for engine fuel and oil systems? |
|
Definition
| Make sure all residual fluids are drained from the engine lubricating and fuel system. |
|
|
Term
| What precautions should be taken during air shipment of engines attached to trailers, trucks, stands, or in containers? |
|
Definition
Properly torque all bolts, capscrews, and nuts used in securing engines and provide them with approved
locking device. Also, check pneumatic tires for condition and proper inflation. |
|
|
Term
| what is used as the most common shipping container for components? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A flexible environmental container can be used for what type of shipment? |
|
Definition
| Air and surface transportation. |
|
|
Term
| What type of cover is opened by using a zipper? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which manual covers reporting and engine that was improperly shipped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of inspections are performed on engines that are involved in mishaps or are dropped? |
|
Definition
| Visual inspections and test cell operational checks. |
|
|
Term
| An engine was dropped en route. An inspection revealed only minor damage to the engine. Which level of maintenance would do the repair work? |
|
Definition
| Intermediate maintenance. |
|
|
Term
| How is dehydration accomplished in a metal shipping container? |
|
Definition
By installation of predetermined amounts of bagged dehydrating agent and by pressurizing with dry
nitrogen. |
|
|
Term
| How does the flexible environmental container differ from metal containers? |
|
Definition
They do not provide mechanical and physical protection and are used in conjunction with transportation
trailers and adapters. |
|
|
Term
| Empty storage and shipping containers should be pressurized to what pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What warning is found on all engine module storage and shipping containers? |
|
Definition
| The warning “CAUTION: Release pressure before opening container.” |
|
|
Term
| Where is the filler valve located? |
|
Definition
| On the front end of the container. |
|
|
Term
| What could happen if you remove the lid from a storage and shipping container without releasing the internal pressure? |
|
Definition
| Damage to the container or injury to the workers. |
|
|
Term
| What direction are the turn-lock fasteners turned when removing the lid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After the lid is removed from the container, where should it be placed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which end of the engine is placed over the front of the container? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the wire basket located in the bottom half of a shipping container? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the serial number on both halves of the shipping container particularly important? |
|
Definition
| Both halves of a container must be kept together, since they are a matched set. |
|
|
Term
| What markings are used on shipping containers? |
|
Definition
Engine model number, engine serial number, preservation data and activity, represervation date and
activity, engine status, date, and activity, type, model, manufacturer, and serial number of the container,
gross weight, net engine weight, length, height, width, and cube of the container. |
|
|
Term
| What must you do before loosening the adjusting screws? |
|
Definition
| Release all pressure from the container. |
|
|
Term
| What secures an F100 core module's front and rear adapters to the container support? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What preservation treatment is required for engines that will not be operated for 48-hours? |
|
Definition
| Seal the intake, exhaust, drain, and all air vent openings. |
|
|
Term
| What fluid is used to preserve the oil system between 45 and 180 days? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of fluid is used in the preservation of the fuel system? |
|
Definition
| MIL-L–6081 (grade 1010) oil. |
|
|
Term
| What is the general engine depreservation procedure? |
|
Definition
Service the oil reservoir, flush the system with fuel, and perform a ground check run to determine the
operating condition of the engine. |
|
|
Term
| What are the depreservation steps for a fuel system? |
|
Definition
Flush the system with fuel by rotating the engine rotor and energizing the main fuel system. Then drain and
clean the fuel filters. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of corrosion? |
|
Definition
| Direct chemical corrosion and electrochemical corrosion. |
|
|
Term
| Where does chemical corrosion start? |
|
Definition
| It starts on the surface of the metal exposed to the corrosive environment. |
|
|
Term
| What is the corrosion product of iron alloys? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is electrochemical corrosion? |
|
Definition
| It is when two dissimilar metals are connected by an electrolyte. |
|
|
Term
| What the the two basic methods of corrosion prevention? |
|
Definition
| An oil-like protective coating and the use of desiccants. |
|
|
Term
| What TO gives the procedures for cleaning a jet engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are internal salt deposits removed from engines? |
|
Definition
| By spraying clean fresh water into the inlet of the engine during coast-down. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of maintenance stands? |
|
Definition
| They are designed to provide a working platform at variable heights. |
|
|
Term
| What are the normal parts of a stand? |
|
Definition
| Base assembly, hydraulic system, and a. platform assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the safety lockpins that are installed in maintenance platforms? |
|
Definition
| Prevent the platform from lowering while in use. |
|
|
Term
| What are the five commonly used maintenance platforms? |
|
Definition
| C–1, B–1, B–2, B–4, and B–5. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the maintenance platforms is nonadjustable? |
|
Definition
| The C–1 maintenance platform. |
|
|
Term
| What prevents movement of the B-4 maintenance stand while in use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the height ranges of each of the five maintenance platforms? |
|
Definition
| C–1, 4 feet; B–1, 3 to 10 feet; B–2, 13 to 20 feet; B–4, 3 to 7 feet; and B–5, 7 to 12 feet. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the AFTO From 244? |
|
Definition
It provides a means to document equipment delayed discrepancies and corrective actions, record service,
periodic and special inspections, record inspection status, and historical data. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 245? |
|
Definition
| AFTO FORM 245 is published as a continuation form for Part V of the AFTO FORM 244. |
|
|
Term
| What does Newton's first law of motion state? |
|
Definition
"A body at rest remains at rest and a body in motion continues to move at a constant speed in a straight line,
unless an external force acts upon it.” |
|
|
Term
| Newton's first law of motion is also considered the definition of what term? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Newton's second law of motion? |
|
Definition
“An unbalanced force on a body produces or tends to produce an acceleration in the direction of the force
and that the acceleration, if any, is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass
of the body.” |
|
|
Term
| Which law of Newton's laws best explains why a jet engine produces forward thrust? |
|
Definition
| Newton's third law of motion |
|
|
Term
| What two words can best sum up Newton's third law of motion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Bernoulli's principle state? |
|
Definition
“When the speed of a stream of gas increases, the pressure of the gas decreases, and when the speed of the
gas decreases, the pressure increases.” |
|
|
Term
| What type of duct is used to decrease pressure and increase velocity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the design of an airfoil influence pressure above and below the airfoil to produce lift? |
|
Definition
To increase the velocity of the airflow above its surface; thereby decreasing pressure above the airfoil.
Simultaneously, the impact of the air on the lower surface of the airfoil increases the pressure below. This
combination of pressure decrease above the airfoil and pressure increase below the airfoil produces lift. |
|
|
Term
| What type of falling energy does a falling object possess? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can energy pass from potential to kinetic and back to potential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which jet engine section produces the large volumes of air required for the production of thrust? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the combustion section do to support the production of thrust? |
|
Definition
Introduces fuel and burns it in the air stream behind the compressor. Burning the fuel increases the air
temperature and expands the air. |
|
|
Term
| Which engine section drives the compressor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the energy that is expended through the exhaust nozzle used for? |
|
Definition
| It creates thrust (action) and this thrust is used to propel the aircraft forward (reaction). |
|
|
Term
| What is used to create the propulsive force for a turboprop engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which terms are used to express the thrust produced by a T56 engine? |
|
Definition
| Horsepower and pounds of torque. |
|
|
Term
| Which term is used to define the theoretical power of a frictionless engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is friction horsepower? |
|
Definition
Indicated horsepower minus brake horsepower. It is used by an engine in overcoming the friction of
moving parts, drawing in fuel, expelling exhaust, driving oil and fuel pumps, and the like. |
|
|
Term
| Which type of horsepower determines the performance of the engine-propeller combination? |
|
Definition
| Equivalent shaft horsepower (a.k.a. thrust horsepower). |
|
|
Term
| What can you determine of you know the BTU content of a gallon of fuel and how much the gallon of fuel weighs? |
|
Definition
| The potential horsepower of the fuel. |
|
|
Term
| What type of fuel do today's jet engines use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The thermal efficiency of a jet engine is equal to what? |
|
Definition
| The energy produced by the engine, divided by the energy of the fuel consumed by the engine. |
|
|
Term
| What two factors determine what proportion of the energy of a fuel is actually used to propel and aircraft forward? |
|
Definition
| Thermal and propulsive efficiency. |
|
|
Term
| Define the term "barometric pressure." |
|
Definition
| The force exerted by the mass of a column of air above the point where the pressure is being measured. |
|
|
Term
| What instrument is used to measure barometric pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a measurement of 14.7 psi sometimes referred to as a "standard-day" atmospheric condition? |
|
Definition
Because if the mercury in a column 1 square inch by 29.92 inches high were weighed, it would weigh 14.7
lbs. |
|
|
Term
| Why was a US standard-day condition developed? |
|
Definition
| Because some standard was necessary as a reference point for computing and calculating purposes. |
|
|
Term
| What two factors tend to cause variations in the temperature of the atmosphere? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define the term "density," as it applies to air. |
|
Definition
| material mass per unit volume. |
|
|
Term
| List the three methods by which heat can be transferred. |
|
Definition
| Radiation, convection, conduction. |
|
|
Term
| What is the highest point of pressure within a jet engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On a jet engine that does not have an afterburner, where is the point of highest temperature? |
|
Definition
| In the combustion section. |
|
|
Term
| When a jet engine reaches idle speed, what determines how the fuel control regulates engine speed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two forms of energy does a jet engine produce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Approximately what percent of the energy produced by the fuel is needed to maintain the jet engine operating cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does the airflow velocity of the exhaust gases increase within the turbine stator? |
|
Definition
| Because the size of the openings through which the gases flow is reduced. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component directs the gases that strike the turbine wheel blades? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the turbine stator? |
|
Definition
| To increase the velocity of the gases striking the turbine blades. |
|
|
Term
| After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust section, what type of velocity do they have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What straightens the flowpath of gases in the exhaust case? |
|
Definition
| The vanes in the exhaust case. |
|
|
Term
| In a multistage turbine, what is the arrangement of the shafts? |
|
Definition
| One shaft is hollow, allowing the other shaft to operate inside it. |
|
|
Term
| Which turbine drives the front compressor on a dual-spool turbine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a turbojet engine? |
|
Definition
| An air-dependent, thermal, jet propulsion device. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three main sections of a gas turbine engine. |
|
Definition
| Compressor, burner (combustion), and turbine. |
|
|
Term
| Today's jet engine compressors are an outgrowth of what units that are normally used with reciprocating engines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What requirement must exist for the successful operation of either jet or reciprocating engines? |
|
Definition
| The engines must be able to handle large amounts of air in a short period of time. |
|
|
Term
| How do pressure pulsations in a centrifugal compressor appear? |
|
Definition
| As shock waves or irregular movement of air through the compressor. |
|
|
Term
| What effects do pressure pulsations have on a compressor? |
|
Definition
| Rapidly reduced efficiency. |
|
|
Term
| For what two reasons is it undesirable to use multiple-stage centrifugal compressors to increase the pressure ratio? |
|
Definition
| Because of the complicated construction and increased weight of the engine that would result. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the inducer rotor? |
|
Definition
| To pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the impeller. |
|
|
Term
| How many shafts comprise the compressor/turbine shaft assembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the forward end of the compressor-turbine shaft hollow? |
|
Definition
| To provide a passage through which the main fuel supply for the engine is distributed. |
|
|
Term
| What two needs stimulated the development of the axial-flow compressors? |
|
Definition
| More power and a more economical engine. |
|
|
Term
| How are axial-flow compressor rotor blades similar to an aircraft propeller? |
|
Definition
| They both are airfoil-shaped and move an air mass. |
|
|
Term
| How is the air processed through an axial-flow compressor? |
|
Definition
The air travels rearward along the axis of the engine, and the air pressure is increased at each stage of
compression. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the stationary vanes that are located behind each rotor wheel in the single-spool axial-flow compressor? |
|
Definition
| They direct the air onto the blades of the succeeding rotor wheel and also cause the air pressure to increase. |
|
|
Term
| How are the compressor rotor blades and stator vanes arranged in a multiple-stage axial-flow compressor? |
|
Definition
The rotor blades are graduated from long to short through the stages of compression. The stator vanes are
also graduated in size to correspond in length with the rotor blades. |
|
|
Term
| Identify two reasons the dual-spool compressor was designed. |
|
Definition
| Ease of starting and reduction of compressor stalls. |
|
|
Term
| What unit determines the speed of the N2 (high-pressure) rotor in a dual-spool compressor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of compressor is more durable, the axial-flow of the centrifugal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are stator vane rings attached to the axial-flow compressor casings? |
|
Definition
| Dovetailed into the inside. |
|
|
Term
| From what three types of alloys are compressor cases made? |
|
Definition
| Titanium, Steel, aluminum. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the air chamber in axial-flow compressor engines? |
|
Definition
| To bleed air from the N2 (high-pressure) compressor. |
|
|
Term
| What achieves diffusion in axial-flow compressor engines? |
|
Definition
| Divergent shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes. |
|
|
Term
| Why is getting good combustion in a gas turbine engine so complex? |
|
Definition
Because the fuel and air must combine rapidly, the combustion process must not use excessive energy and
space, and the combustion chamber must not overheat. |
|
|
Term
| What is "combustion efficiency?" |
|
Definition
A measure of the ability of the combustion chamber to burn the fuel completely and to mix the products
thoroughly with the remainder of the air charge before the gases reach the turbine nozzle. |
|
|
Term
| How is combustion efficiency computed? |
|
Definition
By comparing the heat energy received by the air as it passes through a test combustion chamber with the
known energy that was added to the chamber in the form of fuel. |
|
|
Term
| Within certain limits, what happens to combustion efficiency as combustion-chamber inlet pressure increases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most probable cause if a jet engine flying at 40,000 feet with a constant engine RPM of 50% has a flameout? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three conditions that are or relatively small concern if the upper limit on combustion-chamber temperature rise is outside steady-state operating range. |
|
Definition
| Inlet pressure, temperature, and airflow. |
|
|
Term
| How does engine design help to prevent igniter plug fouling? |
|
Definition
| By directing air around the igniter plug electrodes. |
|
|
Term
| What are two by-products of combustion? |
|
Definition
| Carbon deposits and carbon monoxide. |
|
|
Term
| Describe carbon monoxide gas. |
|
Definition
| It is colorless, odorless, and poisoinous |
|
|
Term
| What are the two purposes of the combustion section? |
|
Definition
To burn the fuel and to deliver the resulting gas to the turbine at a temperature that does not exceed a
predetermined limit for the particular engine in use. |
|
|
Term
| What is the approximate air-to-fuel ratio that is used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the three types of combustion chambers? |
|
Definition
| Can, Annular, and Can-annular |
|
|
Term
| What supports the annular-type combustion chamber in the front and rear? |
|
Definition
The front of the chamber is attached to the burner support, and the rear of the chamber is supported on the
outside by the stator blade support ring of the first-stage turbine and on the inside by the stator inlet ring of
the first-stage turbine. |
|
|
Term
| How does the additional air that is required to support combustion and cool the annular combustion chamber reach the chamber walls? |
|
Definition
| Through elongated slots and round holes in the sections of the chamber walls. |
|
|
Term
| Why is secondary air supplied through the secondary-air distribution cups and allowed to mix with the burning fuel? |
|
Definition
| To dilute the mixture enough to provide a correct fuel-to-air ratio. |
|
|
Term
| Why is it difficult to remove the annular combustion chamber? |
|
Definition
| Because removal involves all major parts that are located rearward of the combustion area. |
|
|
Term
| What supports the can-annular combustion chambers within the combustion section on certain engines? |
|
Definition
| Fuel nozzles in the front and turbine nozzle case at the rear. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a fuel nozzle? |
|
Definition
| To inject fuel into the combustion chamber. |
|
|
Term
| What do swirl-type fuel nozzles provide? |
|
Definition
| high-flame speed with a low-axial velocity. |
|
|
Term
| For what two purposes are multiple fuel nozzles used? |
|
Definition
To handle large quantities of fuel with even distribution and to minimize the variation that might be caused
by a clogging of any one of the nozzles. |
|
|
Term
| In a dual-orifice type of fuel nozzle, fuel is injected into the engine combustion chamber from which orifices for high-engine-thrust operation? |
|
Definition
| Both the primary and secondary orifices. |
|
|
Term
| Name three types of turbines. |
|
Definition
| Impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse. |
|
|
Term
| What type of turbine design is used on most jet engines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is inserted between rotating blades on multiple-stage turbines? |
|
Definition
| Stationary turbine nozzle vanes. |
|
|
Term
| What characteristics and values must engineers consider when designing turbines? |
|
Definition
Exhaust gas-flow rate, shaft rpm, turbine inlet and outlet temperatures and pressures, turbine exhaust
velocity, and the required power output. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most frequently used method of attaching the turbine blades to the rotor disc? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the "fir tree attachment." |
|
Definition
| A series of grooves and notches broached in the rim of the turbine rotor disc. |
|
|
Term
| What three types of fasteners are used to secure the turbine blades to the rotor disc? |
|
Definition
| Steel pins, lock strips, and rivets |
|
|
Term
| What are the two principal configurations of turbine blades? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What three things does the shroud on shrouded turbine blades do? |
|
Definition
| To reduce blade vibration, improve airflow, and increase engine efficiency. |
|
|
Term
| What does the term "exhaust duct" refer? |
|
Definition
The engine exhaust pipe (or tailpipe) connecting the turbine outlet and the jet nozzle of a non-afterburning
engine. |
|
|
Term
| What are two purposes of the engine exhaust duct? |
|
Definition
To collect and straighten the gas flow that comes from the turbine and to increase the velocity of the gases
before they are discharged from the exhaust nozzle. |
|
|
Term
| What may occur if you alter the exhaust nozzle? |
|
Definition
| Changes in engine performance and exhaust gas temperature. |
|
|
Term
| Why are small tabs placed in the engine exhaust nozzle of some engines? |
|
Definition
| To correct exhaust gas temperature. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a variable area orifice at the augmentor exhaust nozzle exit? |
|
Definition
| To schedule the nozzle area to obtain the desired thrust within the safe operating limits of the engine. |
|
|
Term
| An augmentor is classified as what type of an engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect should augmentor operation have on engine operation? |
|
Definition
| It should have no adverse effect. |
|
|
Term
| Define the term "screech." |
|
Definition
A condition of periodic violent pressure fluctuation in the augmentor duct resulting from cyclic vibration
due to the unsteady release of combustion energy. |
|
|
Term
| What two parts will most likely deteriorate of fail if moderate or severe screech is not checked? |
|
Definition
| The flameholder or augmentor duct. |
|
|
Term
| How is screech controlled? |
|
Definition
| By placing screech liners in the augmentor duct. |
|
|
Term
| What two things does the flameholder in the augmentor do? |
|
Definition
| Creates local turbulence and reduces the gas velocity in the vicinity of the flame. |
|
|
Term
| What type of gloves can you use in lieu of rubber or nylon mesh when you handle antifriction bearings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you protect bearings during periods of storage? |
|
Definition
| Wrap them in a grease-proof paper and store in a clean area. |
|
|
Term
| During the removal of a bearing, you suspect the bearing is binding. You try to rotate the outer race and it hangs up. what could causing this situation? |
|
Definition
| The bearing puller was not properly aligned. |
|
|
Term
| Besides arbor presses and bearing pullers, what other tools are used to aid in removal of bearings? |
|
Definition
| Drift pipe, steel bars, and split rings/collars. |
|
|
Term
| Why is it so important to clean a bearing before you inspect it? |
|
Definition
| Poor cleaning prevents adequate visual inspection. |
|
|
Term
| How can excessive bearing wear usually be detected? |
|
Definition
| By roughness of metal on the active surfaces. |
|
|
Term
| How is the proper temperature maintained in the hot-oil bath tank? |
|
Definition
| It is thermostatically controlled. |
|
|
Term
| For what two reasons should bearing components be suspended above the bottom of the hot-oil bath tank during heating? |
|
Definition
| To prevent parts from overheating and collecting sediment. |
|
|
Term
| What was used in the accessory and gear case assembly of early engines to reduce the engine rotor speed to the correct speed for the accessories used in connection with engine fuel, oil, and electrical systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main difference between the accessory drive sections of modern engines and earlier engines? |
|
Definition
| The location of the accessory drive sections. |
|
|
Term
| In modern engines, where is the reduction gearbox mounted? |
|
Definition
| Rear flange of the main gearbox. |
|
|
Term
| How is engine RPM reduced to drive the accessories? |
|
Definition
| By reduction gears in the accessory drive gearbox. |
|
|
Term
| What determines the drive ratio of the accessory drives? |
|
Definition
| The number of teeth on the drive gear and the number of teeth on the driven gear. |
|
|
Term
| What prevents oil from leaking around the accessory drives? |
|
Definition
| An oil seal that rides on each drive gear shaft. |
|
|
Term
| On and F108 engine, what component provides the coupling between the core engine and the accessory drive assembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Under what component is the AGB mounted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three main units of a T56 engine? |
|
Definition
| Reduction gearbox assembly, torquemeter assembly, and a power unit. |
|
|
Term
| How many stages of reduction are there in the RGB assembly? |
|
Definition
| Two stages of reduction: a spur gearing first stage and a planetary gearing second stage. |
|
|
Term
| What is the overall reduction ratio of the RGB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the torquemeter assembly? |
|
Definition
It transmits torque from the power unit to the RGB and provides rigidity and alignment between the RGB
and the power unit. |
|
|
Term
| What are the four main sections of the power unit? |
|
Definition
| Accessory drive housing assembly and the compressor, combustion, and turbine sections. |
|
|
Term
| Which components are mounted on the front of the accessory drive housing? |
|
Definition
| Speed sensitive control, speed sensitive valve, main oil pump, and the oil filter. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the combustion chamber liners? |
|
Definition
| Mix the fuel and air, control combustion, and guide the exhaust gases into the turbine assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What is the energy that is absorbed by the turbine section used to drive? |
|
Definition
| Compressor rotor, engine accessories, RGB assembly, and the propeller. |
|
|
Term
| How is the RGB connected to the power unit on a T56 Engine? |
|
Definition
| Through a torquemeter assembly and two tie struts. |
|
|
Term
| The RGB front case consists of which components? |
|
Definition
Front case, ring gear, planetary gears, sun gear, RGB main and nose oil scavenge pumps, propeller shaft,
and the NTS actuator rod(s), spring(s), and plunger assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What major section of the RGB has passages that eliminate the need for oil tubes and oil lines inside the RGB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which gear in the RGB gear case turns at the same RPM as the power unit rotor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which components of the RGB support the accessory drive gear train? |
|
Definition
| Rear case and rear case inner diaphragm |
|
|
Term
| Which components, mounted on the rear case, are driven by the accessory drive gear train? |
|
Definition
| AC electrical generator, hydraulic pump, tachometer generator, oil pump, and starter. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the RGB receive its power? |
|
Definition
| Through the torque shaft from the power unit. |
|
|
Term
| The first stage of gear reduction is comprised of which two gears? |
|
Definition
| Pinion input gear meshed to a larger gear called the main drive gear. |
|
|
Term
| The second stage reduction changes the speed by what ratio? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the total reduction gear ratio of the RGB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the propeller brake? |
|
Definition
| To prevent rotation of the engine and propeller when the engine is static. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the propeller brake located? |
|
Definition
| Between the rear case and rear case inner diaphragm. |
|
|
Term
| At approximately what engine speed is the RGB system oil pressure sufficient to keep the propeller brake in the released position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For what is the propeller brake "applied" position used? |
|
Definition
To slow the propeller to a stop during engine shutdown and to prevent the propeller from windmilling in
high winds. |
|
|
Term
| Why does airflow tend to windmill the propeller in a reverse direction? |
|
Definition
| Because of the airfoil design of the propeller blade. |
|
|
Term
| What does the locked position of the propeller brake prevent? |
|
Definition
It prevents the propeller and the power unit rotors from rotating and becoming damaged while the engine is
shut down in flight. |
|
|
Term
| Why does the release of the propeller brake during air start differ from normal engine start? |
|
Definition
The starter is not used to restart the engine; therefore, the starter cannot be used to release the propeller
brake. |
|
|
Term
| During air start operation, what overcomes the force of the brake apply spring and releases the propeller brake? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is negative torque created? |
|
Definition
| When the propeller tries to drive the engine power unit, instead of the power unit driving the propeller. |
|
|
Term
| Why is a negative torque condition a dangerous condition that must be limited for safety of flight? |
|
Definition
| It creates an uneven balance of power, which causes the aircraft to yaw. |
|
|
Term
| What an NTS condition exists, what is the easiest way to slow down the propeller? |
|
Definition
| Increase the airload on the propeller by increasing the propeller blade angle. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the main components of the NTS system located? |
|
Definition
| In the front case of the RGB and in the propeller valve housing. |
|
|
Term
| Which gear overcomes spring force and moves the plunger and actuator rod forward? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During normal operation, how is the ring gear coupling and ring gear held rearward? |
|
Definition
| By positive torque and spring force. |
|
|
Term
| The torquemeter assembly consists of which main components? |
|
Definition
| Two concentric shafts, a housing, and a torquemeter pickup. |
|
|
Term
| What are the purposes of both the inner and outer torqemeter assembly shafts? |
|
Definition
The inner (torque) shaft transmits the rotating motion of the compressor (positive or negative torque) and
presents this motion to the safety coupling mounted on the RGB. The outer (reference) shaft is used for a
reference in determining the amount of twisting deflection applied to the torque shaft. |
|
|
Term
| When are the teeth of the torqemeter exciter wheels in phase? |
|
Definition
| When the rectangular teeth of these exciter wheels are in alignment at zero torque. |
|
|
Term
| Which component transmits an electrical pulse, representing torque, to an indicator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the safety coupling located? |
|
Definition
| On the RGB between the pinion input gear shaft and torque (inner) shaft. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the safety coupling? |
|
Definition
Automatically decouples the power unit from the RGB whenever an excessive negative torque condition
occurs. |
|
|
Term
| How much torque does it take to decouple the safety coupling in order to disconnect the power unit from the RGB and the propeller? |
|
Definition
| Between –4,200 inch-pounds and –7,200 inch-pounds of torque. |
|
|
Term
| When can the torque shaft be recoupled to the RGB? |
|
Definition
| When torque decreases below approximately –6,000-inch pounds. |
|
|
Term
| What type of compressor does the T56 engine use? |
|
Definition
| 14-stage, single-spool, axial-flow compressor. |
|
|
Term
| The compressor section supplies air used for what purpose? |
|
Definition
| For combustion, internal engine cooling, and operation of the aircraft pneumatic systems. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major components of the T56 compressor section? |
|
Definition
| Air inlet housing, compressor casing, compressor rotor, and a diffuser assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What do the two sensing probes, located on the compressor air inlet housing, detect and change? |
|
Definition
They detect the pressure and temperature of the air entering the compressor and their signals of the changes
in air mass and temperature cause a change in fuel flow. |
|
|
Term
| What are the purposes of the two oil jets located on the compressor extension shaft housing? |
|
Definition
The oil jet, located on the rear side of the extension shaft housing, provides lubrication for the front
compressor bearing (No. 1). The dual oil jet located on the front side of the extension shaft housing
provides lubrication for the torquemeter mid- and center-sleeve bearings. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the air when it is received by the compressor section stator vanes from the rotor blades? |
|
Definition
| The air is decelerated and its pressure increased. |
|
|
Term
| How is the compressor rotor assembly supported at both the front and rear ends? |
|
Definition
Its front end is supported by a roller bearing (No. 1) which is mounted on the front compressor wheel hub
and its rear end is supported by a split inner-race ball bearing (No. 2), mounted on the rear wheel hub. |
|
|
Term
| What does the compressor front bearing (no. 1) labyrinth seal prevent? |
|
Definition
| The No. 1 bearing from leaking oil into the compressor and ultimately into the compressor discharge air. |
|
|
Term
| What does the design and arrangement of the compressor rotor blades do to the airflow as it passes through the compressor? |
|
Definition
| Airflow through the compressor becomes smooth and flows parallel to the axis of compressor rotation. |
|
|
Term
| For which components does the compressor diffuser provide support and mounting? |
|
Definition
Support for the compressor rear bearing and for the compressor rear bearing scavenge oil sump. It also
provides mounting pads for the six fuel nozzles. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the air that passes through to the aft side of the compressor rear bearing labyrinth oil seal? |
|
Definition
| This air is vented through turbine coupling and turbine rotor shafts and into the exhaust gases. |
|
|
Term
| What part of the combustion section supports the entire weight of the turbine section? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which parts position and retain the six combustion cans in the outer combustion case? |
|
Definition
| Four liner supports and two igniter plugs. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the seal rings and seal ring expanders that are located on the forward end of the combustion chamber inner casing? |
|
Definition
To prevent excessive leakage of air at the forward end of the combustion section into the “lighthouse”
cavity. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the combustion chamber liner (can) design? |
|
Definition
To control the flame position and length within the liner and to provide an area for rapid fuel and air
mixing. |
|
|
Term
| The crossover tubes that interconnect the combustion cans are used for what purpose? |
|
Definition
To equalize the internal pressures of each liner and to provide a path for the flames to spread evenly to each
liner during engine start. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the turbine coupling shaft? |
|
Definition
| To transfer turbine rotor torque to the compressor rotor. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the combustion section pressure oil line? |
|
Definition
| To direct oil to the front and rear sides of the turbine front (No. 3) bearing. |
|
|
Term
| How is the lighthouse cavity formed? |
|
Definition
| By the diffuser at the front, the turbine inlet case at the rear, and the inner combustion casing assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the T56 turbine section? |
|
Definition
The T56 turbine section receives the hot gases from the combustion section and converts the energy in the
expanding gases into torque for driving the compressor rotor, engine accessories, and the propeller. |
|
|
Term
| Which assemblies increase the velocity of and direct hot gasses to the first-stage turbine rotor blades? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the T56-A-15 turbine rotor, how are the first-stage engine buckets (blades) retained in their wheel? |
|
Definition
| By the cover plate seals on both sides of the wheel. |
|
|
Term
| How is oil routed from the external oil pressure line to the No. 4 turbine rear bearing? |
|
Definition
An external oil pressure line delivers oil to an oil tube located in front of the lower left strut. This tube
delivers the oil to the oil seal through passages to the bearing cap. The bearing cap forms the oil jet, which
directs the oil on the turbine rear (No. 4) bearing. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the turbine rear scavenge pump? |
|
Definition
| To scavenge oil from the turbine rear (No. 4) bearing. |
|
|
Term
| What is located in a QEC power package? |
|
Definition
The engine, nacelle structure, engine mounts, hydraulic pump, electric generator, and associated
components. |
|
|
Term
| What are the power plant major assemblies for the AE2100D3? |
|
Definition
| The PGB, torquemeter assembly, power section, accessory drives, and the nacelle structure. |
|
|
Term
| How is the propeller gearbox connected to the engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the primary functions of the PGB? |
|
Definition
The primary functions of the PGB are to transmit shaft power from the torquemeter to the propeller, reduce
shaft rpm, and supply shaft power to the GMAD gear train. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three primary functions of the torquemeter assembly? |
|
Definition
To transmit engine output power to the PGB, to provide alignment and structural support between the
power section and PGB, and to supply a calibrated torque reference to the FADEC. |
|
|
Term
| What component prevents ice from forming on the torqemeter assembly? |
|
Definition
The anti-icing shroud allows for the flow of warm anti-icing air to prevent ice from forming on the
torquemeter assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What component mounts to the bottom surface of the air inlet housing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The AE2100D3 engine compressor is of what type and consists of how many stages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of combustion liner is used in the AE2100D3 engine and where is it located? |
|
Definition
| Annular; occupies the space between the diffuser liner and outer walls. |
|
|
Term
| How many fuel nozzle openings are equally spaced around the front of the combustion liner? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The four stages in the AE2100D3 turbine assembly are used to make up which subassemblies? |
|
Definition
| Stages 1 and 2 make up the gas generator turbine and stages 3 and 4 make up the power turbine. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the gas generator turbine assembly? |
|
Definition
| To make the torque that is necessary to turn the engine compressor rotor. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the power turbine assembly? |
|
Definition
| To take the power output of the engine and drive the propeller through the torquemeter and PGB. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the GMAD mounted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The GMAD provides the pads and drives for which components? |
|
Definition
AC generator, hydraulic pump, PGB lube and scavenge pump, propeller PCU, and propeller OSG and high
pressure pump. |
|
|
Term
| The PUAD supplies the mounting flanges for which components? |
|
Definition
| FPMU, alternator stator, starter, and the power section lube and scavenge pump. |
|
|
Term
| Which nacelle access door contains the fire access panel? |
|
Definition
| The lower right turbine access door contains a fire access door. |
|
|
Term
| The louvers and scoops on the nacelle structure provide cooling air flow for what assemblies? |
|
Definition
| Engine, Accessories, and tailpipe ejector. |
|
|
Term
| What are the four modules of the T700 engine? |
|
Definition
Accessory section (accessory gearbox or AGB), cold section (compressor section), hot section (combustion
section) and power section (power turbine section). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A part that can be removed and replaced at the flightline level with another like part. |
|
|
Term
| Which components make up the cold section module? |
|
Definition
Swirl frame, output shaft assembly, front frame, main frame, scroll case, compressor section, diffuser and
midframe casing assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of the IPS? |
|
Definition
| To separate foreign particles from the air before it enters the engine inlet. |
|
|
Term
| The A-sump output shaft provides a mounting surface for which main bearings? |
|
Definition
| No. 1 and No. 2 main stage bearings. |
|
|
Term
| How many stages of axial flow compression does the T700 have? Centrifugal compression? |
|
Definition
| Five axial stages and one centrifugal stage. |
|
|
Term
| The gas generator turbine rotor is located in which T700 engine module? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many fuel injectors are incorporated on the T700 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What major components make up the power turbine module? |
|
Definition
Turbine case, power turbine rotor assembly, exhaust frame, C-sump housing, and power turbine drive shaft
assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What drives the fan and booster (front compressor) of the engine? |
|
Definition
| The four stages in the LPT. |
|
|
Term
| List the four modules of the F108 engine. |
|
Definition
| (1) Fan. (2) Core engine. (3) LPT. (4) Accessory. |
|
|
Term
| How is structural rigidity maintained on the F108 engine? |
|
Definition
| Its short length and two mainframes. |
|
|
Term
| Which bearings are housed in the forward sump, and what do they support? |
|
Definition
The No. 1 bearing (ball) and No. 2 bearing (roller), which support the fan and booster assembly. And the
No. 3 bearing (ball), which supports the high pressure compressor front shaft. |
|
|
Term
| What is the airflow path for the secondary airflow? |
|
Definition
| It passes through the fan’s outer portion and exits through the fan’s discharge duct. |
|
|
Term
| About how much of the F108's thrust is provided by the fan's secondary airflow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What attaches to the fan disk at the front and is coupled to the LPT shaft at the back using a splines-and-nut arrangement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two purposes of the IGB and No. 3 bearing assembly? |
|
Definition
The mechanical coupling between the HPC and the TGB and support for the forward end of the core
compressor. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the primary airflow ducted through the F108 engine? |
|
Definition
| In between the center hub outer contour and the mid-box structure inner contour. |
|
|
Term
| Bleed air for use by the engine and aircraft is taken from which stages of the compressor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of an air duct through the inside diameter of the compressor rotor? |
|
Definition
| Forms a flow path for pressurizing and cooling air. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two purposes of the front rotor stator case on the F108 engine? |
|
Definition
| To house the stator vanes and enclose the compressor rotor |
|
|
Term
| Which stator stages are housed in the rear stator assembly? |
|
Definition
| the 6th through 8th stage rotors |
|
|
Term
| Which part of the core engine major module is subjected to the most stress? What two things cause this stress? |
|
Definition
| The HPT rotor assembly; tremendous heat coupled with rotational forces. |
|
|
Term
| What helps ensure long life for the combustion liner? |
|
Definition
| The combustion chamber is film cooled by CDP air and has special coatings applied to the metal. |
|
|
Term
| How are the HPT nozzles cooled? |
|
Definition
| By CDP air that bypasses the combustor inner and outer liner. |
|
|
Term
| What two components does the LPT turbine shaft assembly connect? |
|
Definition
| Fan shaft with the LPT rotor. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the gases as they travel through the LPT nozzle? |
|
Definition
| Pressure drops and axial velocity increases. |
|
|
Term
| Which main engine bearing is housed in the turbine frame assembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of the accessory major module on the F108 engine? |
|
Definition
| To drive all the accessories at the proper speed for efficient engine operation. |
|
|
Term
| List the parts that make up the accessory drive section. |
|
Definition
| IGB, radial drive shaft, TGB, horizontal drive shaft, and AGB. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the power come from to drive the accessory section? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides for transmission of power between the IGB and to the AGB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the accessories that receive drive power from the AGB. |
|
Definition
| Fuel pump and MEC, hydraulic pump, integrated drive generator, control alternator, lubrication unit. |
|
|
Term
| How many stages of compression does the F100 have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stages of the turbine section drive the rear (N2) compressor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two advantages of the modular engine concept? |
|
Definition
(1) Engines can be serviced faster and (2) eliminates the need to return the whole engine to depot for
overhaul. |
|
|
Term
| List the five modules that make up the F100-PW-220 engine? |
|
Definition
(1) Inlet/fan.
(2) Core engine.
(3) Fan drive turbine.
(4) Augmenter duct and nozzle.
(5) Gearbox. |
|
|
Term
| If you wanted to determine which way the compressor rotates, where would you stand in reference to the engine? |
|
Definition
| At the rear of the engine looking toward the intake. |
|
|
Term
| Why are there "directional references" on the engine? |
|
Definition
| To establish common points of reference on the engine. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of external flanges on the engine? |
|
Definition
| To provide locations for the attachment of brackets, external accessories, and support equipment. |
|
|
Term
| Which bearing is located in the diffuser case? |
|
Definition
| Rear compressor turbine front bearing (No. 4). |
|
|
Term
| List the seven major parts that make up the IFM? |
|
Definition
(1) Fan inlet case.
(2) CIVV cylinder and control assembly.
(3) Front compressor rotor and stator assembly.
(4) No. 1 bearing, housing, and pressure and scavenge tubes.
(5) Right anti-icing manifold.
(6) Tt2 thermocouples (sensors).
(7) Quad N1 sensor |
|
|
Term
| How many CIVVs are there in the fan inlet case? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many stages of blades and stators are contained within the front compressor rotor and stator assembly? |
|
Definition
| Three stages of blades and two stages of vanes. |
|
|
Term
| What is the location of the No. 1 bearing assembly? |
|
Definition
| The front compressor stator inlet shroud. |
|
|
Term
| How many Tt2 sensors are in the fan inlet module? |
|
Definition
| Two sensors mounted in the fan inlet case at the 5 and 6:30 o’clock positions. |
|
|
Term
| What struts in the compressor intermediate case contains the oil pressure tubes for the No. 2 and 3 bearing compartments? |
|
Definition
| 2, 3, and 11:30 o’clock positions. |
|
|
Term
| What is the No. 2 bearing and coupling assembly commonly called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component houses the No. 3 bearing and gear assembly? |
|
Definition
| Compressor intermediate case. |
|
|
Term
| What component positions the rear compressor stator variable inlet vanes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| after what vane stage stator is the interstage bleed valve located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the rear compressor rotor and stator assembly, what tool should be used to final finish a blend repair. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of fuel nozzles used on an F100-PW-220 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many spark igniters are contained on the combustion chamber assembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of bearing is the No 4 bearing? |
|
Definition
| Roller type with an elliptical outer race |
|
|
Term
| What stage of air cools the turbine rotor blades? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the five major components that make up the fan drive turbine module. |
|
Definition
(1) Front compressor drive turbine rotor and stator assembly.
(2) Front compressor drive turbine shaft.
(3) Rear turbine case and duct set.
(4) Turbine exhaust case.
(5) No. 5 bearing. |
|
|
Term
| What components are connected by the front compressor drive turbine shaft? |
|
Definition
| Front compressor drive turbine to the front compressor rotor and stator assembly in the IFM. |
|
|
Term
| What does the No. 5 elliptical bearing support? |
|
Definition
| The aft end of the front compressor drive turbine shaft. |
|
|
Term
| List the four major components that make up the augmentor duct and nozzle module. |
|
Definition
(1) Combustion chamber duct.
(2) Combustion chamber liner.
(3) Nozzle assembly.
(4) Nozzle actuators. |
|
|
Term
| How many pressure sensitive fuel spray rings are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component protects the augmentor duct from high gas temperature? |
|
Definition
| Augmentor combustion chamber liner |
|
|
Term
| Where is the augmentor nozzle assembly located? |
|
Definition
| Aft of the augmentor duct |
|
|
Term
| List the five major components that make up the gearbox module. |
|
Definition
(1) Main gearbox assembly.
(2) Main oil pump assembly.
(3) Oil filter.
(4) Reduction gearbox.
(5) Breather pressurizing valve. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the main oil pump assembly mounted? |
|
Definition
| Front of the main gearbox assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What type of constructional concept does the F119 utilize? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of engine stations on the F119 engine? |
|
Definition
| To provide an additional means of pinpointing locations on the engine. |
|
|
Term
| How many modules make up the F119 engine? What are they named? |
|
Definition
| Four. Inlet/fan module, core engine module, LPT module, and nozzle module. |
|
|
Term
| Name the two major assemblies in the F119 engine. |
|
Definition
| Augmentor and gearbox assemblies. |
|
|
Term
| Which bearing is located in the inlet case of the IFM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the six major parts that make up the IFM. |
|
Definition
(1) Inlet case.
(2) Fan variable vane actuator.
(3) Front compressor rotor.
(4) Fan case.
(5) Anti-ice manifold.
(6) Tt2 sensor. |
|
|
Term
| How many inlet struts are contained in the inlet case? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are the inlet struts/inlet guide vanes hollow? |
|
Definition
| To allow anti-icing air from the 9th stage compressor to flow through them. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the FVV actuator located? |
|
Definition
| It is mounted to the lower fan case at the 7 o’clock position. |
|
|
Term
| How many stages of compression does the low pressure compressor (N1) contain? |
|
Definition
| Three stages of compression. |
|
|
Term
| What are integrally bladed rotors? |
|
Definition
Disks and blades that are made from a single piece of metal which provide better performance and
less air leakage. |
|
|
Term
| How many Tt2 sensors are in the IFM and where are they/it located? |
|
Definition
| One sensor is located at the 5:30 position of the fan inlet guide vane case. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the core engine module located? |
|
Definition
| Between the fan and the LPT modules. |
|
|
Term
| How is the gearbox driven by the core module? |
|
Definition
| By a towershaft through the intermediate case. |
|
|
Term
| List the five major parts of the core module. |
|
Definition
(1) Intermediate case.
(2) HPC.
(3) Diffuser case.
(4) Combustor.
(5) HPT. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the No. 2 and No. 3 bearing compartment located? |
|
Definition
| Intermediate case of the core module. |
|
|
Term
| How many stages of compression are in the HPC? |
|
Definition
| Six stages of compression. |
|
|
Term
| What is housed in the diffuser case? What is the purpose of the case? |
|
Definition
The compressor-exit guide vanes, the combustor, and the HPT; the diffuser reduces the velocity of
compressor discharge air and directs it to the combustion chamber. |
|
|
Term
| What type of combustion chamber does the F119 have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the two stages in the HPT that drive the HPC. |
|
Definition
| One turbine vane and rotor assembly. |
|
|
Term
| In which direction does the HPT rotate? |
|
Definition
| Clockwise as viewed from the rear. |
|
|
Term
| How many stages of LPT drive the IFM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Internally air-cooled by 7th stage air. |
|
|
Term
| How is the LPT connected to the IFM? |
|
Definition
| Ten tie bolts connect the LPT to the IFM |
|
|
Term
| In which direction does the LPT rotate? |
|
Definition
| Counterclockwise as viewed from the rear. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the No. 5 bearing located? |
|
Definition
| In the turbine exhause case of the LPT |
|
|
Term
| Where is the gearbox located and how is it driven? |
|
Definition
It is mounted to the intermediate case and lower fan case at the 6 o’clock position and is shaft driven by the
core module. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the gearbox receive the torque to turn the compressor? |
|
Definition
| From an external source (aircraft-mounted gearbox) through the PTO on the front of the gearbox. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major parts of the gearbox assembly? |
|
Definition
(1) Integral oil reservoir.
(2) Main oil filter.
(3) PTO adapter. |
|
|
Term
| What type of main oil filter is on the F119-PW-100 engine and where is it located? |
|
Definition
| 20-micron disposable; front/bottom of the gearbox at the 6 o’clock position. |
|
|
Term
| What attaching points does the gearbox assembly provide? |
|
Definition
(1) Actuator fuel pump.
(2) Main fuel pump.
(3) Engine generator/breather pressurizing valve attached to the front.
(4) OD1 gang drain.
(5) Two chip detectors at 4 o’clock position.
(6) Lubrication system pressure and scavenge pump with two chip detectors.
(7) Oil servicing and overfill adapter.
(8) Oil flow management valve.
(9) Oil level sensor. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the nozzle module located? |
|
Definition
| At the rear of the engine and is mounted to the augmentor assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the nozzle module? |
|
Definition
Directs the airflow out of the engine and varies the exhaust flow area for optimum engine performance. The
nozzle module provides the engine with thrust vectoring capability. |
|
|
Term
| How is the nozzle module cooled? |
|
Definition
| By fan air by way of four air pump/transfer tube assemblies. |
|
|
Term
| How many convergent and divergent actuators are on the nozzle module? |
|
Definition
| One upper and one lower convergent actuator and one upper and one lower divergent actuator. |
|
|
Term
| What do the convergent actuators do? |
|
Definition
| The actuators provide independent position control of the upper and lower convergent flaps. |
|
|
Term
| What do the divergent actuators do? |
|
Definition
Actuators provide independent position control of the upper and lower divergent flaps and position the
divergent nozzle flaps to establish thrust vectoring angle. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the augmentor duct assembly located? |
|
Definition
| Between the rear of the support ring and the front of the nozzle module. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the augmentor assembly? |
|
Definition
| It provides the outer boundary for augmentor airflow and supports the augmentor liner. |
|
|
Term
| What does the augmentor liner incorporate? |
|
Definition
| Sixteen fuel nozzles, a single ignitor, and three zones of augmentation. |
|
|
Term
| How many fuel nozzles are in the augmentor of the F119-PW-100 engine and what do they do? |
|
Definition
| Sixteen; provide fuel to the augmentor combustor during engine augmentation. |
|
|
Term
| What are non-modular parts? |
|
Definition
| Parts which are not included in modules or assemblies. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Parts that can be replaced easily on an individual basis, other than as part of a module, and do not require
the engine to be removed from the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the fan bypass ducts and their function. |
|
Definition
They are the largest of the non-modular components. They are split horizontally to improve accessibility to
the engine core module. The fan bypass ducts contain the fan bypass air directing it to the turbine exhaust
case and augmentor duct for cooling. This air is also used in the augmentation process. These ducts do not
have to be assembled as a matched pair. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two major differences between the three types of jet fuels? |
|
Definition
| Specific gravity and flash points. |
|
|
Term
| Do jet fuels have a high or lower viscosity than aviation gasoline? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do jet fuels tend to ice up at higher altitudes? |
|
Definition
Because of the extremely low temperatures and the higher viscosity of jet fuels; which prevents adequate
settling of water droplets at low temperatures. |
|
|
Term
| What did the development of the automatic MFC do for jet engine operators? |
|
Definition
| Relieve them of all direct control over engine acceleration and deceleration rate. |
|
|
Term
| How does the fuel control reduce the possibility of a flameout? |
|
Definition
| By allowing the engine to accelerate and decelerate at a safe rate. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two purposes for the fuel/oil cooler? |
|
Definition
| (1) Cool the oil and (2) heat the fuel, which aids vaporization and combustion. |
|
|
Term
| How are the thrust and RPM output controlled in many centrifugal and single-spool axial-flow engines? |
|
Definition
| TIT is allowed to vary inversely with CIT. |
|
|
Term
| On a dual-spool axial-flow compressor engine, how does the fuel control determine the thrust output of the engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of fuel controls that are used on most modern aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Hydromechanical and electrohydromechanical. |
|
|
Term
| Name the four units that make up the unified control system. |
|
Definition
(1) Unified control, (2) augmenter pump controller, (3) rear compressor (N2) sensor, and (4) fan exit
temperature sensor. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the closed loop design of fuel control systems. |
|
Definition
The engine sends signals to the fuel control and the electronic control so the fuel control and the EEC know
how the engine responded to what the fuel control did. |
|
|
Term
| If you determine that an unauthorized adjustment has been made to a fuel system part, what should you do? |
|
Definition
| Send the part to the authorized depot. |
|
|
Term
| What controls engine operation in the primary mode? Secondary? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From what four basic sources does the F100 engine DEEC receive signals? |
|
Definition
| Engine, MFC, AFC, and airframe. |
|
|
Term
| What two modes is the F100 engine MFC capable of operating in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the fuel filter should become clogged on the F100 engine, what component will allow fuel to bypass? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drives the impeller on the F100 engine AFP? |
|
Definition
| 13th stage air acting on the turbine. |
|
|
Term
| What F100 engine component controls the AFC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component regulates the F100 engine AFP speed and fuel flow? |
|
Definition
| Augmentor fuel pump control (AFPC) |
|
|
Term
| What type of pump is on the F108 engine fuel-pump high-pressure stage? |
|
Definition
| Positive displacement gear-type. |
|
|
Term
| On the F108 engine, what parameters determine the position of the VSVs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component on the F108 engine acts as electrical override on the hydromechanical MEC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| F108 engine fuel flow is divided by the MEC into what two kinds of flow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component on the F108 engine establishes the schedule for posistioning the VBVs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component controls the AE2100D3 engine fuel system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the AE2100D3 engine, as what psid is the fuel flow relief valve in the high-pressure pump fully opened? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component maintains a constant drop of 70 psid to the metering valve and returns excess fuel flow to the inlet side of the high pressure pump on the AE2100D3 engine? |
|
Definition
| Pressure Drop and spill valve |
|
|
Term
| How many fuel nozzles are installed on the AE2100D3 engine diffuser? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the AE2100D3 engine fuel drain manifold? |
|
Definition
To collect fuel that leaks from the threaded connection of the fuel supply manifold to the fuel nozzle and
route the leakage to the engine nacelle drain mast. |
|
|
Term
| On the AE2100D3 engine, what supplies power to the FADEC until engine RPM is sufficient for the alternator stator to take control? |
|
Definition
| Airplane 28 VDC power supply |
|
|
Term
| On the AE2100D3 engine, what component provides the PCU servo valve torquemeter with control inputs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can the AE2100D3 engine fuel filter bypass indicator be reset? |
|
Definition
| By removing the transparent covers to get access to the reset button. |
|
|
Term
| At what range of temperature does the AE2100D3 engine fuel temperature switch operate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the AE2100D3 engine, what component controls the LSOV during normal engine shutdown or shutdown using the fire control handle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which T56 engine components control the fuel enrichment valve? |
|
Definition
| The fuel enrichment relay and the engine fuel enrichment switch. |
|
|
Term
| Which T56 engine component acts with the TD valve to control fuel flow during starting to prevent overtemperature and compressor surges? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the T56 engine, what does the extra 20 percent of fuel, sent to the TD valve by the fuel control, enable the valve to do? |
|
Definition
To adjust fuel flow to compensate for variations in air density, Btu content of the fuel, and the
manufacturing tolerances in the components of the engine fuel system. |
|
|
Term
| On the T56 engine, what conditions must be established for the manifold fuel pressure switch to remain in its normally closed position? |
|
Definition
Condition lever in either the RUN or AIR START position, engine RPM less than 16%, and manifold fuel
pressure less than 50 psi. |
|
|
Term
| On the T56 engine, what is the purpose of the air shroud that is located on the fuel nozzle? |
|
Definition
| Allows airflow around the nozzle tip to reduce carbon deposits, which could clog the nozzle. |
|
|
Term
| On the T56 engine fuel nozzles, what type of inspection is performed in addition to the visual inspection? |
|
Definition
| Fuel nozzle spray pattern field test. |
|
|
Term
| With the TD control valve switch in the AUTO position, what other conditions must be met for the T56 engine TD system to operate in the temperature-controlling mode? |
|
Definition
| Engine speed is greater than 94% and the throttle setting is greater than 65°. |
|
|
Term
| The two elements of the T56 engine thermocouple assembly are connected to which components? |
|
Definition
| TIT indicating system and the TD amplifier. |
|
|
Term
| On the T56 engine, what happens to the fuel when it is bypassed by the TD valve? |
|
Definition
| Bypassed back to the fuel pump. |
|
|
Term
| On the T56 engine, how would you know if the secondary fuel pump failed? |
|
Definition
| Indicated by the secondary pump pressure light being off during parallel operation at the next engine start. |
|
|
Term
| What happens when the T56 engine fuel enrichment valve is energized open? |
|
Definition
It opens the bypass line and allows fuel from the high-pressure filter to enter the fuel control between the
metering portion of the fuel control and the fuel control shutoff valve. |
|
|
Term
| Which T56 engine component compares actual and scheduled TIT signals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the T56 engine, what happens when the difference between the actual and scheduled TIT signals is greater than 4.5 degrees? |
|
Definition
The TD amplifier furnishes an electrical signal to the TD valve that increases or decreases fuel flow to the
engine, as required, to equalize the two temperature signals. |
|
|
Term
| What does the temperature datum control system test set check? |
|
Definition
It is used to check the temperature datum system, the starting and normal temperature limits, and
the over and under-temperature limits. The system is made up of the temperature datum control
(amplifier), temperature datum valve, coordinator, speed sensitive control wiring harness,
thermocouples and harness. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of oil tank used in late-model jet engines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When classified as to function, what two basic types of pumps are used in a jet engine oil system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When classified as to structure, what three types of pumps are used most often in jet engine oil systems? which of these three is the most common? |
|
Definition
| Gear, gerotor, and sliding vane. Gear. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of oil nozzles? |
|
Definition
| Restrictive tube and internal passage. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of oil coolers that are installed in oil systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do air/oil coolers cool the oil? |
|
Definition
| By passing hot engine oil through the core of the cooler and having ram air pass over the core. |
|
|
Term
| How do fuel/oil coolers cool the oil? |
|
Definition
| By having fuel flowing into the tubes of the cooler and oil flowing around the fuel-filled cooler tubes. |
|
|
Term
| What two methods are used for controlling oil cooler bypass valves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the oil system seals? |
|
Definition
| To prevent the loss of fluid. |
|
|
Term
| Name three general types of oil seals used in jet engines? |
|
Definition
| Synthetic, labyrinth, and carbon. |
|
|
Term
| What two items should you check on new replacement synthetic seals? |
|
Definition
| The cure date and part number. |
|
|
Term
| Why should you use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals? |
|
Definition
| They are made of soft metal and could be damaged easily. |
|
|
Term
| What is the common method of preloading a carbon seal? |
|
Definition
| Using spring pressure to push the stationary carbon rubbing surface against the rotating seal plate surface. |
|
|
Term
| How does oil get from the oil tank to the main pressure stage of the oil pump assembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the bypass valve located in the filter assembly? |
|
Definition
| To permit oil to bypass the coolers on cold weather starts. |
|
|
Term
| Which component directs oil through the augmentor section of the fuel/oil cooler? |
|
Definition
| The augmentor fuel-flow control valve. |
|
|
Term
| What type of sump system is sometimes used on a small gas turbine engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the difference between a hot tank system and a cold tank system? |
|
Definition
These terms basically refer to where and at what point the oil is cooled. In a hot tank design, the oil cooler
is placed in the pressure subsystem. The cold tank design places the oil cooler in the scavenge subsystem. |
|
|
Term
| What indicates the need for maintenance on the F100 engine oil filter? |
|
Definition
| Pop-out button device (delta p indicator). |
|
|
Term
| How many air/oil coolers are provided on the F100-220 for heat absorption of hot engine oil? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two variables cause the F100 engine oil pressure to vary? |
|
Definition
| Rear compressor rotor speed (N2) and engine oil temperature. |
|
|
Term
| How is the No. 2 and 3 bearing compartment vented to the gearbox? |
|
Definition
| Through the gearbox tower shaft cavity. |
|
|
Term
| name the five items that make up the F108 oil tank. |
|
Definition
| (1) Oil-out port, (2) oil-in port, (3) vent, (4) antisiphon device, and (5) gravity filler cap. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the F108 engine lubrication unit mounted? |
|
Definition
| On the accessory gearbox front face, on the right side of the control alternator. |
|
|
Term
| The F108 main oil/fuel heat exchanger incorporates what two methods to exchange heat? |
|
Definition
| conduction and convection |
|
|
Term
| What F108 engine component prevents reverse oil flow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what F108 engine component is utilized to collect drainage of oil leaks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the AE2100D3 oil system? |
|
Definition
To supply clean, pressurized oil at the proper temperature to cool and lubricate the engine bearings, splines,
seals, shafts and gears, and all accessories associated with propeller control. |
|
|
Term
| The oil tank of the AE2100D3 engine has a capacity of 12 US gallons. How much of that is contained in the reserve compartment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During what three conditions does the oil tank pendulum supply pressurized oil? |
|
Definition
(1) Normal.
(2) Negative G.
(3) Zero G conditions. |
|
|
Term
| How long will the oil tank provide oil in a negative G condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what psig rating is the oil tank pressurized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the oil tank shutoff valve. |
|
Definition
| Energize-to-open, energize-to-close type with a manual override lever to open or close the valve. |
|
|
Term
| How much oil does the PUAD lube and scavenge pump supply to the bearings and the PUAD at takeoff power? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does the high-pressure bypass valve in the PGB lube and scavenge pump open? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the FCOC? |
|
Definition
| To decrease the temperature of the scavenge oil before it goes back to the oil tank. |
|
|
Term
| What component controls airflow through the engine ACOC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The oil cooler flap maintains what temperature range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does the ACAWS message, low level advisory, display? |
|
Definition
| When the oil level drops below 4 US gallons. |
|
|
Term
| How does the oil tank temperature bulb temperature signal arrive at the mission computer? |
|
Definition
| Via the MIL–STD–1553B data bus. |
|
|
Term
| On engine shutdown, what part prevents oil from leaking down through the PGB oil pump? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the T56 engine oil tank pressurized? |
|
Definition
| To help prevent the oil from foaming. |
|
|
Term
| What two types of gear pumps are used in the T56 engine oil system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the oil cooler? |
|
Definition
| To reduce the temperature of the oil being used in the engine oil system. |
|
|
Term
| How do air/oil-type coolers cool hot oil? |
|
Definition
| Air cools the oil as it passes through a core inside the cooler. |
|
|
Term
| Which part of the oil cooler valve senses oil temperature? |
|
Definition
| Thermostatic bypass valve. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the oil cooler augmentation system? |
|
Definition
| To use 14th-stage bleed air to increase airflow through the oil cooler. |
|
|
Term
| Bleed air, flowing through which augmentation system component, creates a low-pressure area in front of the oil cooler? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two general classes of filters used in the T56 engine oil system? |
|
Definition
| The disk (screen) and micron (paper). |
|
|
Term
| Why must engine oil system pressure be sufficiently high, yet not too high? |
|
Definition
Sufficiently high to ensure adequate lubrication of the engine and its accessories at high speeds and power
settings; not be too high, as leakage and damage to the oil system may result. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the pressure-regulating valve located in the power section main oil pump? |
|
Definition
| To bypass excess oil and regulate system oil pressure to 50 to 60 psi. |
|
|
Term
| In the power section pressure oil system, what directs oil onto the compressor extension shaft bearing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the dual-port oil jet located on the front side of the compressor air inlet housing? |
|
Definition
| It sprays oil forward into the torquemeter housing to lubricate the midbearing and the center sleeve bearing. |
|
|
Term
| Which pump sends oil to the externally mounted scavenge oil filter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is oil routed to the fuel heater and strainer? |
|
Definition
| So the fuel can be warmed by the oil, if needed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the check valve located in the RGB pressure oil pump? |
|
Definition
| It prevents the oil in the oil tank from draining into the RGB rear case whenever the engine is not in operation. |
|
|
Term
| At what pressure are the RGB pressure and scavenge oil system relief valves set? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which RGB scavenge pump scavenges oil during level flight or a nose-up attitude? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does AFTLA receive a sample of each new batch of MIL-PRF-7808 oil? |
|
Definition
| Automatically from the manufacturer. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to batches of oil not meeting AFTLA requirements? |
|
Definition
| The are not released for use by the AF. |
|
|
Term
| What happens if an AF unit has oil that has a shelf-life code that is approaching its expiration date? |
|
Definition
Air Force units will apply for an extension via the AFTLA website at https://afpet.wpafb.af.mil/. The
product will then be tested and either updated for another period of time or users will be instructed to
dispose of the product. |
|
|
Term
| How are the users notified if a quality problem arises with a particular oil product? |
|
Definition
The Air Force Petroleum Office’s Weapon System Support Branch (DET3 WR-ALC/AFTT) will send
messages via the Defense Messaging System to the MAJCOMs. MAJCOMs will then notify all users of the
unsatisfactory product and have it removed from service. |
|
|
Term
| Why should lubricating oil be washed from a person's skin as soon as possible? |
|
Definition
| Lubricating oil can cause a skin rash. |
|
|
Term
| What effect does synthetic oil have on paint, rubber, and some synthetic seals? |
|
Definition
| It tends to soften of dissolve them. |
|
|
Term
| Why should you do with lubricating oil in excess of what is needed for immediate servicing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the three major benefits of the OAP. |
|
Definition
| (1) Improved safety, (2) reduced maintenance costs, and (3) increased equipment availability. |
|
|
Term
| What form must accompany all oil samples sent to the OAP testing facilities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for serving as the contact point between maintenance and the OAP laboratory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where will you find wear metal guidelines for your particular engine? |
|
Definition
| In the 33–1–37 series TOs. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Small particles of metal worn off contacting surfaces by friction. They can be microscopic in size and
suspended in the lubricating fluids. |
|
|
Term
| What is the rate of production of wear metals under normal conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What could be the result of improperly taking an oil sample? |
|
Definition
| Erroneous evaluation and possible loss of aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| What type of oil sample would the OAP laboratory ask for if the first sample showed an abnormal wear trend? |
|
Definition
| An immediate check (red tagged) sample. |
|
|
Term
| Name the two places on the engine that are used for taking oil samples. |
|
Definition
| Oil filler neck and oil tank drain. |
|
|
Term
| On what two factors does the integrity of an oil sample depend? |
|
Definition
(1) Whether the oil has circulated in the system long enough to accumulate wear metal concentrations that
will indicate the condition of the system and (2) whether the oil sample truly represents the oil circulating in
the system. |
|
|
Term
| At what two times should you not take oil samples? |
|
Definition
| Less than five hours after an oil change and immediately after oil has been added. |
|
|
Term
| What is an advantage of shorter oil sampling intervals? |
|
Definition
| The greater probability that initial evidence of failures will be detected. |
|
|
Term
| How does an organization normally receive notification that an oil sample reflects a discrepancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Generally, when should special oil samples be taken? |
|
Definition
Whenever you suspect something is wrong with the engine, or as directed by the TO when some abnormal
condition exists within the engine. |
|
|
Term
| An aircraft is on a 25-hour oil sample schedule. It's scheduled to fly a six-hour mission tomorrow. The last sample was taken at 9,232 aircraft hours and the aircraft now has 9,254 hours. When should the sample be taken? |
|
Definition
Either before or after the flight. Both times would fall within the ±10 percent of required sampling
schedule. |
|
|
Term
| Why should great care be taken during sampling to avoid contact between the sampling tube and any other surfaces? |
|
Definition
| To prevent contamination. |
|
|
Term
| What is SEM/EDX and what equipment is it comprised of? |
|
Definition
An Engine Health monitoring tool developed for automated chemical and structural microanalysis of
multiple debris particles; consists of a laboratory standard Scanning Electron Microscope fully integrated
with X-ray and image analysis software. |
|
|
Term
| What is SEM/EDX used for? |
|
Definition
SEM/EDX is used to identify and monitor material characteristics that can give an indication of accelerated
wear or impending failure of typical oil wetted parts and components. |
|
|
Term
| What is the major difference between SEM/EDX and the oil analysis process? |
|
Definition
| The debris particles being analyzed must be free of oil. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of information do the results of the JetSCAN provide? |
|
Definition
Number of particles in each material class, size of each particle, composition of each particle, calculated
risk and recommended actions. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
By moving a conductor through a stationary magnetic field, or by varying the strength of a magnetic field
that links a conductor. |
|
|
Term
| What is the basic difference between direct current and alternating current? |
|
Definition
| Direct current is the flow of current in one direction; alternating current periodically reverses its direction. |
|
|
Term
| What device can be used to temporarily store electricity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what position is the rotating loop in a generator when no voltage is being produced? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is alternating current developed within a generator changed to direct current? |
|
Definition
Each half of a commutator is connected to one terminal of the loop in the generator. Two brushes ride
against the commutator segments and carry the current produced by the generated voltage to the external
circuit. These brushes are set so each half of the commutator moves out of contact with one brush and into
contact with the other brush just as the loop is passing through the position where the induced voltage is
zero (at 0 and 180°). |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the CSD? |
|
Definition
| To drive the AC generator at a constant speed regardless of engine RPM. |
|
|
Term
| List the two functions of the CSD governor system. |
|
Definition
(1) To control the drive output speed and thereby, the generator frequency.
(2) Equalize the load between generators operating in parallel. |
|
|
Term
| What unit senses variations from the desired CSD output speed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What method does the CSD use to adjust the basic speed governor? Explain. |
|
Definition
By magnetic force. A trim coil that is mounted directly above the flyweights, receives the signals from the
frequency-and-load controller. This coil then uses magnetic force to add to or subtract from the centrifugal
force of the governor flyweights. |
|
|
Term
| Why is there a "necked-down" section on the CSD drive shaft spline? |
|
Definition
| To protect the engine from damage in the event of major failure of the CSD, drive shaft, or adapter. |
|
|
Term
| What unit makes up for differences in the alignment of the CSD and Engine adapter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the CSD drive shaft? |
|
Definition
| To transmit power from the engine to drive the CSD. |
|
|
Term
| If the pneumatic pressure switch were placed in the NO position, how would current flow be affected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the suffix N of wire D-2822N, which leaves the master warning box, mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the thermocouples in an EGT system are hooked up in parallel, what type of circuit is it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the resistor in the EGT system? |
|
Definition
| To calibrate the EGT indicator in the flight station. |
|
|
Term
| You receive a work order with the following information: The pilot reports radio interference during engine starting. Which component in the ignition unit is most likely malfunctioning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Approximately how many volts does the AC ignition system deliver to the igniter plug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three main parts of an AC ignition system? |
|
Definition
| Ignition relay, transformer, and igniter plug. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three main parts of DC ignition system? |
|
Definition
| Vibrator, Transformer, and Igniter plug. |
|
|
Term
| What function does the vibrator unit in the DC ignition system perform? |
|
Definition
| It changes direct current to pulsating current. |
|
|
Term
| On the TF33 engine, why are there two complete ignition systems on each engine? |
|
Definition
| Safety—if one fails, you have another system as a redundant backup. |
|
|
Term
| Which main components make up the T56 engine ignition system? |
|
Definition
| Speed-sensitive control, ignition relay, ignition exciter, and the igniter plugs. |
|
|
Term
| At what percent engine RPM does the T56 speed-sensitive control de-energize the ignition exciter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what percent RPM does the T56 speed-sensitive control energize the ignition relay? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After the T56 ignition relay closes at 16% RPM, to which components does it complete circuits? |
|
Definition
| Fuel pump paralleling valve, manifold drain valve, fuel enrichment valve, and ignition exciter. |
|
|
Term
| After 28 VDC is input to the T56 ignition exciter, what is the resultant output? |
|
Definition
| Approximately 23,000 volts pulsing at 5 to 12 sparks per second. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the exciter get its power on an F100 engine? |
|
Definition
| From the engine generator. |
|
|
Term
| What is the discharge rate fro the main (core) igniter plug on an F100 engine? |
|
Definition
| One to five sparks per second. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the AE2100D3 electrical power for the ignition system come from? |
|
Definition
| Engine-mounted alternator stator |
|
|
Term
| How many circuits are used in the AE2100D3 ignition system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will the alternator stator supply operating power to each exciter on the AE2100D3? |
|
Definition
| When the gas generator turbine rotor speed (Ng) is at more than 10% RPM. |
|
|
Term
| What is the output of the AE2100D3 alternator stator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will a spark rate fault be recorded in the maintenance log on the AE2100D3? |
|
Definition
| Any time the rate is less than two per second. |
|
|
Term
| What is the rate of spark in an AE2100D3 exciter? |
|
Definition
| Four to seven sparks each second. |
|
|
Term
| What is the basic requirement for a jet engine starter to be effective? |
|
Definition
It must be able to rotate the engine compressor to a predetermined speed, enabling the engine to accelerate
even after the starter is disengaged. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three types of jet engine starters. |
|
Definition
| (1) Air turbine (impingement), (2) pneumatic, and (3) cartridge-pneumatic. |
|
|
Term
| What is meant when it is said that the cartridge-pneumatic starter is self-contained? |
|
Definition
| The starter has the capability to start the engine without the use of ground support equipment. |
|
|
Term
| How are the effects of high temperature and erosion reduced in the cartridge-pneumatic starter? |
|
Definition
| By using ambient air through the turbine along with the cartridge gases. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the JFS receive its fuel supply? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three advantages of a JFS. |
|
Definition
(1) Quick engine starts.
(2) Capability for motoring or starting the engine without the use of any ground support equipment.
(3) Capability for starting engine while in flight. |
|
|
Term
| The compressor inlet gearbox housing of the JFS provides drive pads and mounting flanges for what assemblies? |
|
Definition
| Fuel control, two-speed switch assembly, and CGB. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main purpose of the JFS power turbine assembly? |
|
Definition
To provide energy for driving the JFS/CGB/AMAD system gearboxes, engine starting, and aircraft
accessories. |
|
|
Term
| What type of combustion section does the JFS have? |
|
Definition
| reverse flow, annular type |
|
|
Term
| What four items comprise the JFS fuel system? |
|
Definition
| Fuel-flow bypass, fuel filter assembly, fuel control assembly, and fuel atomizer and tubes assemblies. |
|
|
Term
| Positive pressure is maintained in the fuel control during shutdown by what system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drives the JFS fuel control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the JFS fuel control? |
|
Definition
| To control the amount of fuel flowing into the combustion chamber. |
|
|
Term
| The JFS system is dependent on what component for its oil lubrication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the three items that comprise the JFS ignition system? |
|
Definition
| Ignition unit, igniter plug, and a high-voltage ignition lead. |
|
|
Term
| The JFS drain system consists of what two items? |
|
Definition
| Combustion drain valve and fuel drain support assembly. |
|
|
Term
| Name the four major assemblies that make up the F-15 SPS. |
|
Definition
| (1) JFS, (2) CGB, (3) left AMAD gearbox, and (4) right AMAD gearbox. |
|
|
Term
| How are the JFS and CGB connected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the JFS power turbine should accelerate to a 110% overspeed condition, what item would provide a safety cutoff? |
|
Definition
| Power turbine overspeed switch. |
|
|
Term
| Name the four basic constructional features of an AMAD. What feature is part of only a L/H AMAD? |
|
Definition
(1) Housing assembly, (2) geartrain, (3) lubrication system, and (4) a 50-percent engine cutout switch
assembly. Manual decoupler. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the 50-percent engine cutout switch assembly? |
|
Definition
| To stop the engine starting cycle when the engine has accelerated to starter cutout speed. |
|
|
Term
| After the JFS has reached self-sustaining speed, how is the hydraulic start motor disengaged? |
|
Definition
| By and Overrunning clutch. |
|
|
Term
| At what point during the start sequence is the JFS ready for engine starting? |
|
Definition
| After the JFS stabilizes at idle. |
|
|
Term
| What must be done to shut down the JFS after the second engine has been started? |
|
Definition
| Nothing, the JFS shuts down automatically after the second engine starts. |
|
|
Term
| Which unit connects the ADG to the F-16 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component schedules the start of fuel and ignition for the JFS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the operation of the ESS controller as PTO shaft speed reaches 50-percent. |
|
Definition
| It opens acceleration clutch, shuts off fuel to JFS, and releases start switch in flight station. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the air turbine starter mounted? |
|
Definition
| To the PUAD on the RH rear side. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the air exhaust from the starter vented? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many ounces of engine oil are used to lubricate the gear train? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the starter control valve actuated? |
|
Definition
| Electrically by a 28 VDC signal. |
|
|
Term
| What component is signaled by a position switch on the starter control valve to indicate whether the valve is open or closed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the engine start panel located? |
|
Definition
| In the flight station on the overhead console. |
|
|
Term
| What four functions is the engine start panel used to perform? |
|
Definition
(1) Ground starting.
(2) Air starting.
(3) Motoring the engine.
(4) Normal ground engine shutdown. |
|
|
Term
| The start panel is monitored and controlled by the mission computer by which bus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are the fuel enrichment switches used? |
|
Definition
| For starting the engine in extremely cold weather. |
|
|
Term
| During engine startup, what does it mean when the SEC FP lights illuminate? |
|
Definition
| The main fuel pump is in parallel operation. |
|
|
Term
| What component of the start system controls the supply of air to the starter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of starter is used on the T56 engine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three housings of the pneumatic starter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three ways that air can be supplied to start the engine. |
|
Definition
(1) By connecting an external source of compressed air to the aircraft.
(2) By starting the APU or GTC.
(3) By using bleed air from another operating engine. |
|
|
Term
| The engine anti-icing system is designed to prevent ice formation by using what as a heat source? |
|
Definition
| Engine compressor discharge air. |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of ice buildup on an engine inlet? |
|
Definition
Loss of thrust that is detected on certain axial-flow engines by a drop in turbine discharge pressure or
engine pressure ratio if the condition is sufficiently severe. |
|
|
Term
| What is usually the first indication of ice formation at the engine inlet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of switch controls the anti-ice system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the anti-ice valve controlled and operated? |
|
Definition
| It's solenoid controlled and air operated. |
|
|
Term
| Why is the anti-ice valve held open during engine start? |
|
Definition
| To help prevent a compressor stall. |
|
|
Term
| Compressor bleed air is extracted from what stator exit stage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Air is ducted into the fan flow path through how many exit slots? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the anti-icing system? |
|
Definition
| To prevent or remove ice on the scoop and vanes of the air inlet system. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the engine anti-icing system valves if power is lost to the ice detection system? |
|
Definition
| The valves open and both systems are on. |
|
|
Term
| Which electrically operated valve in the scoop anti-icing system allows air to flow to the scoop? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which component of the vane anti-icing system has primary control? |
|
Definition
| Anti-icing solenoid valve. |
|
|
Term
| What two methods are used to control airflow through and engine compressor? |
|
Definition
Restricting the airflow by the use of VSVs or dumping off excess air at the appropriate time through a bleed
valve or bleed strap arrangement. |
|
|
Term
| Which type of duct design does a high bypass usually have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are variable vanes usually positioned in a compressor to control airflow most effectively? |
|
Definition
| In the first few stages of compression. |
|
|
Term
| Briefly explain the difference between the bleed system and the variable vane system. |
|
Definition
VSVs control air before it gets into the compressor; the bleed system lets all the air in, but bleeds off a
certain amount of air at a particular stage of compression. |
|
|
Term
| Where is a bleed strap located on an engine? How is it controlled? |
|
Definition
| Around the compressor case. By some type of actuator. |
|
|
Term
| What is considered the critical range of operation for dual-rotor compressor engines? |
|
Definition
That point where the low-speed, low-pressure compressor (N1) air supply is more than the high-speed,
high-pressure compressor (N2) can use. |
|
|
Term
| Why is air bled from the N1 compressor? |
|
Definition
| To prevent stalls through the critical ranges of engine operation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the potential outcome if airflow is not properly controlled during engine operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the six conditions that could cause a compressor stall. |
|
Definition
(1) Reduction or restriction of the air inlet.
(2) Excessive fuel scheduling.
(3) Restriction of the turbine nozzle discharge area.
(4) Restriction of the exhaust nozzle area.
(5) Damaged or dirty compressor rotor blades.
(6) Malfunction of the variable geometry systems or bleed air system. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the airflow for cooling turbine nozzles vanes originate? |
|
Definition
| The last few stages of compressor airflow. |
|
|
Term
| What two types of stress act on the turbine rotor blades? |
|
Definition
| Heat and rotational forces. |
|
|
Term
| Where does cooling airflow go after it has cooled the turbine section? |
|
Definition
| Back into the gas stream to exit the engine along with the exhaust gases. |
|
|
Term
| The flexible feed cables for the VBVs and VSVs transmit signals to what component? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is leakage from the fuel pump to the fuel gear motor minimized? |
|
Definition
| By a low, steady pressure setting. |
|
|
Term
| The 3-D scheduling cam is positioned by what two variables? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What part of the IGV is fixed and serves as an integral part of the front frame? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IGV flap position is scheduled by what component? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Below 45 percent corrected core engine speed, in what position are the VSVs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What components provide the required force to move the VSVs? |
|
Definition
| Core compressor VSV actuators. |
|
|
Term
| What two variables determine the position of the 3-D cam? |
|
Definition
| Core engine speed and fan discharge temperature signals. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the compressor control system? |
|
Definition
| To keep compressor stall problems to a minimum at low speed (engine start and stop). |
|
|
Term
| What does the CVG system move and control? |
|
Definition
| Compressor IGV and the first five rows of compressor stator vanes. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the upper and lower compressor air bleed valves mounted? |
|
Definition
| On separate adapters that are installed on the bleed air manifold on the 10th stage of the compressor. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the upper and lower compressor air bleed valves? |
|
Definition
To help to prevent compressor stall or surge by controlling the air bleed during engine start and
acceleration. |
|
|
Term
| In what position are the compressor air bleed valves after start and during normal engine operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the compressor acceleration bleed control valve mounted? |
|
Definition
| To the aft anti-icing tube at the diffuser housing. |
|
|
Term
| What does the compressor acceleration bleed control valve control? |
|
Definition
| Fourteenth-stage air pressure applied to the top area of each upper and lower compressor air bleed valves. |
|
|
Term
| When the compressor acceleration bleed control valve closes, what does it prevent? |
|
Definition
| Air flow from the 14th-stage air supply line. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the CVG system? |
|
Definition
| To change the angle of compressor stator vane stages one through five to assist with engine power control. |
|
|
Term
| How is the CVG actuator controlled? |
|
Definition
| By high-pressure fuel from the FPMU. |
|
|
Term
| What component continuously monitors the LVDT signal for the compressor IGV position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With engines running, where does the FPMU send fuel pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the bleed air system? |
|
Definition
To relieve air from the 5th and 10th stages of the compressor during engine start, acceleration, and other
operating conditions with engine RPM less than 94%. |
|
|
Term
| Which component of the bleed air system controls the closing of the bleed air valves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are the bleed air valves open? |
|
Definition
| When the engine is operating at less than 94% RPM. |
|
|
Term
| How are the bleed air valves closed? |
|
Definition
The speed-sensitive valve opens and allows air pressure from the 14th stage of the compressor to close the
compressor bleed valves. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a thrust reverser? |
|
Definition
| To direct a jet engine’s thrust in the opposite direction. |
|
|
Term
| what are some constructional features required for an acceptable thrust reverser? |
|
Definition
It must not affect engine performance under any circumstance, whether the reverser is or is not in operation.
It must be able to withstand high temperatures, and it must be mechanically strong, light weight, reliable,
and fail-safe. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most successful type of thrust reverser? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain how the aerodynamic blockage type of thrust reverser operates. |
|
Definition
Thin foils or obstructions are placed in the exhaust stream to alter the course of the gases and direct them
into turning vanes. |
|
|
Term
| The thrust reverser control valve actuates hydraulic power for actuating what components? |
|
Definition
| The fan and core thrust reversers |
|
|
Term
| The operation of the control valve is in what three functional modes? |
|
Definition
| Stowed and locked, deploying, and stowing. |
|
|
Term
| The fan thrust reverser door upper right and left sensors send a signal to which channel of the EEC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The C-17 has how many fan blocker doors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the core reverser actuator lock proximity sensors mounted? |
|
Definition
| The sensors are mounted on the core reverser actuators. |
|
|
Term
| The C-17 has how many core blocker doors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many linear hydraulic actuators are used to deploy and stow the fan thrust reverser? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The fan thrust reverser uses what mechanical linkage to synchronize the upper and lower actuators? |
|
Definition
The fan thrust reverser synchronizing shaft provides a mechanical synchronization between the upper and
lower actuators. |
|
|
Term
| The C-17 has how many 95 percent proximity sensors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the four lock proximity sensors located on the fan reverser? |
|
Definition
| Upper right, lower right, upper left, and lower left. |
|
|
Term
| Name the four fundamental parts of an augmentor. |
|
Definition
| (1) Augmentor duct, (2) spraybars, (3) flameholder, and (4) exhaust nozzle. |
|
|
Term
| What does the augmentor duct contain? What does it support? |
|
Definition
| The augmentor combustion chamber liner. The augmentor nozzle and actuators. |
|
|
Term
| Which part of the augmentor reduces the velocity of the gases so that the flame stability is maintained during augmentor operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary purpose of a typical variable-nozzle system? |
|
Definition
| To provide the correct nozzle area for proper engine and augmentor operation. |
|
|
Term
| name the four types of variable-nozzle systems. |
|
Definition
| (1) Flap, (2) iris, (3) convergent-divergent, and (4) vectoring. |
|
|
Term
| What is used to operate the flaps in the flap-type nozzle system? |
|
Definition
| Air pressure acting on a series of pistons. |
|
|
Term
| How many pistons does a typical iris-type nozzle system have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most important advantage gained from using a C-D variable-nozzle system? |
|
Definition
| Increased life expectancy of the engine and augmentor. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the augmentor ignition system? |
|
Definition
| To develop the spark necessary to ignite the fuel in the augmentor. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two methods of igniting the augmentor fuel? |
|
Definition
| Torch igniter and pilot burner ring. |
|
|
Term
| How does the torch igniter initial afterburning? |
|
Definition
A small combustion chamber shell extends into the augmentor duct; fuel, air, and an electric spark are
supplied; and the torch igniter ignites the fuel in the augmentor. |
|
|
Term
| What causes ignition on the pilot burner ring system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of materials are used to construct the augmentor nozzle? |
|
Definition
| Titanium, honeycomb, and corrugated sheet metal. |
|
|
Term
| How are the convergent nozzle segments protection from heat? |
|
Definition
| By seals that have a heat-resistant coating. |
|
|
Term
| The divergent exhaust nozzle is what kind of system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The divergent nozzle segments are free-floating, permitting what types of operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What positions the ballscrew actuators as requested by the DEEC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component is supported inside the augmentor liner? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component spread the flame to the radial gutter of the flameholder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Axial movement of the actuation ring is achieved by what components? |
|
Definition
| Four hydraulic nozzle actuators. |
|
|
Term
| Which propeller subassembly retains the blades, attaches the propeller to the engine shaft, and transmits engine torque to the blades? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the barrel assembly provides seats for the front and rear cones and also supports the control assembly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which propeller subassembly transfers hydraulic fluid to the inboard and outboard sides of the dome piston? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the primary components that lock the propeller dome piston and blades in a fixed pitch position? |
|
Definition
| Pitchlock regulator, stationary pitchlock ratchet, and rotating pitchlock ratchet. |
|
|
Term
| Which blades component helps prevent fluid from entering the blade shank and also has washers mounted on it for balance purposes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part is used in place of the beta segment gear on blades No. 2, 3, and 4? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which dome assembly part provides a sliding sealing surface between the piston and low-pitch stop? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which dome assembly part prevents the cam bearing rollers from bottoming out in the track slopes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the function of the low pitch stop assembly? |
|
Definition
A safety device; prevents the propeller from going into the beta (ground) range when the throttle is
positioned in the alpha (flight) range; and mechanically stops the dome piston from decreasing blade angle
below 23.3° (± 0.5) unless the stop levers are retracted. |
|
|
Term
| What is the dome piston permitted to accomplish when the low pitch stop assembly levers are released? |
|
Definition
| To move and change blade angle while the propeller is operating in the beta range. |
|
|
Term
| Which propeller subassembly provides a means for minor balancing and also supports the front and rear spinners? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which propeller assembly provides electrical circuits between the brush block assembly and the spinner, afterbody, and blade assemblies? |
|
Definition
| Deicer contact ring holder assembly. |
|
|
Term
| Which deicer contact ring holder slip ring is used as a common ground? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The spinner and afterbody assemblies enclose which propeller assemblies? |
|
Definition
| Dome, barrel, and control assemblies. |
|
|
Term
| Which propeller subassemblies do not rotate? |
|
Definition
| Control assembly, afterbody mounting bracket, and afterbody assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the afterbodies? |
|
Definition
Streamline airflow into the engine air inlet for maximum recovery of ram air; minimize air drag on the
engine nacelle; prevent ice buildup (anti-icing) around the control assembly. |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary mechanical controls provided to the control assembly? |
|
Definition
| Throttle and condition lever. |
|
|
Term
| What drives the main, standby, and main scavenge pumps? |
|
Definition
| Propeller rotation through the rotating sleeve. |
|
|
Term
| what is the purpose of the differential drive gear train assembly? |
|
Definition
Drives the propeller governor fly weight assembly and transmits blade angle movement to the valve
housing. |
|
|
Term
| When are the auxiliary pressure and auxiliary scavenge pumps used? |
|
Definition
| Propeller static (engine not running), feathering, and unfeathering operation. |
|
|
Term
| Which pump housing part maintains 15 to 20 psi pressure differential between the atmospheric and pressurized pumps? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The power transmitted by the brush block assembly is used to supply the propeller with what capability? |
|
Definition
| Propeller anti-icing and deicing. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three main standby systems that supply hydraulic pressure to the propeller. |
|
Definition
| Main, standby, and auxiliary. |
|
|
Term
| The output of which pump is used for normal hydraulic system operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which valve limits hydraulic system pressure to 1300 psi above pressurized sump pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the backup valve is opened and pressure is routed to the governor pilot valve, the pressure is used to accomplish what three propeller operations? |
|
Definition
| To release the low pitch stop, to unfeather the propeller, and for reverse pitch operation. |
|
|
Term
| How is the operation of the auxiliary pump initiated? |
|
Definition
When the engine condition lever is placed in either FTR or AIR START and when the fire emergency
handle is pulled. |
|
|
Term
| The standby pump's additional output is required during what situations? |
|
Definition
| Feather, reverse, and significant off-speed conditions. |
|
|
Term
| Between what two blade angles can pitchlock occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides restricting overspeeds, what other purpose does the pitchlock regulator have? |
|
Definition
| Transfers fluid to the outboard and inboard sides of the dome piston. |
|
|
Term
| What two things can keep the stationary and rotating ratchets from engaging? |
|
Definition
| By increase- or decrease-pitch pressure, or by the pitchlock locking control cam. |
|
|
Term
| What predetermined overspeed setting allows the ratchets to engage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During and overspeed greater than 103.5 percent RPM, what would cause blade angle to decrease, if the pitchlock ratchets do not engage? |
|
Definition
| CTM (Centrifugal Twisting Moment). |
|
|
Term
| The low pitch stop mechanically prevents blade angle from decreasing below what degree setting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what propeller operating range can the low pitch stop limit decreasing blade angle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what psi is the servo valve unseated, thus allowing the wedge to move? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Controllable pitch can only occur between what degree settings on the coordinator protractor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For what can positive thrust and negative thrust be used on a controllable pitch propeller? |
|
Definition
| Positive thrust––taxiing; negative thrust––backing. |
|
|
Term
| Does a controllable pitch propeller maintain constant RPM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the throttle coordinate in the controllable pitch range? |
|
Definition
| Propeller pitch and engine fuel flow. |
|
|
Term
| constant speed occurs between what degrees on the coordinator protractor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On a constant speed controller, if propeller speed decreases, what happens to blade angle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the beta range, what moves the pilot valve? |
|
Definition
| Cams and mechanical linkage. |
|
|
Term
| When the throttle is moved below the FLT IDLE gate, what cam increases speed spring tension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cam centers the pilot valve to stop hydraulic action and blade movement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the throttle were moved from RVS to GND IDLE, which cam moves the governor pilot valve to increase pitch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the alpha range, the governor pilot valve is positioned to maintain what RPM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drives the governor flyweights? |
|
Definition
| Propeller rotation through gears on the differential gear train. |
|
|
Term
| During and overspeed condition, what part of the propeller governor moves the pilot valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During and overspeed condition, the governor pilot valve meters fluid to the increase-pitch (forward) side of the dome piston; what is the result of this action? |
|
Definition
| This drives the piston rearward, which increases blade angle and therefore, decreases engine speed. |
|
|
Term
| During and underspeed condition, what part of the propeller governor moves the pilot valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To correct for and underspeed condition, does blade angle need to increase or decrease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two ways can the propeller be feathered? |
|
Definition
| By moving the condition lever to FTR or by pulling the fire emergency handle. |
|
|
Term
| The condition lever provides what type of signals to the control assembly? |
|
Definition
| Electrical and mechanical |
|
|
Term
| When the condition lever is moved to FTR and the alpha shaft rotates, which cam acts through a mechanical linkage and opens the feather actuating valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which valve acts as a backup in case the mechanical linkage fails to open to feather actuating valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the blades move toward feather, main and standby pump pressure drops off; why? |
|
Definition
| The pumps are driven by propeller rotation, so their output drops off as the engine slows down. |
|
|
Term
| Why are the auxiliary pressure and auxiliary scavenge pump able to complete the feathering process when the main and standby pumps stop operating? |
|
Definition
| They are electrically driven and their operation doesn’t depend on propeller shaft rotation. |
|
|
Term
| What two components serve as grounds for the prop feather override button-holding coil? |
|
Definition
| Pressure cutout switch and PCBS |
|
|
Term
| When the feather override button is pulled in, circuit to which components are completed? |
|
Definition
The amber light in the override button, feather relay, feather solenoid valve, and the feather pump motor
relay. |
|
|
Term
| Why is it necessary for the PCBS to provide a secondary ground? |
|
Definition
To prevent interruption of the feathering operation due to a surge of pressure that may occur when blade
angle is below 81° to 85°. |
|
|
Term
| Once the propeller reaches full feather, when are teh PCBSs opened? |
|
Definition
| When fluid pressure increases to about 600 to 800 psi. |
|
|
Term
| What is the only difference in the feathering process when using the fire emergency handle to feather the propeller instead of the condition lever? |
|
Definition
| The manual feather cam does not rotate and shift the feather valve through the mechanical linkage. |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum psi required to release the feather latches and allow the piston to move forward? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When attempting to air-start and engine in flight, what helps the propeller to rapidly accelerate? |
|
Definition
| The windmilling effect of the airflow past the propeller. |
|
|
Term
| What two cams control the unfeathering operation? |
|
Definition
| Manual feather cam and beta set cam. |
|
|
Term
| When is the condition lever released to the RUN position? |
|
Definition
| When rpm reaches lightoff. |
|
|
Term
| List the mechanical components of the NTS system and their locations. |
|
Definition
An actuator rod in the RGB, an NTS bracket mounted to the front of the RGB, and mechanical linkage in
the valve housing. |
|
|
Term
| Which parts are actuated and positioned by the NTS system actuator rod when a negative torque condition occurs? |
|
Definition
Actuates the NTS switch and positions the mechanical linkage to shift the feather actuating valve and
feather valve. |
|
|
Term
| When propellers are rotating at different speeds, what tends to rise and fall? |
|
Definition
| Beat noise and vibration levels. |
|
|
Term
| Besides maintaining propellers at the same speeds, what else does synchrophasing maintain in order to achieve minimum noise levels? |
|
Definition
| Maintains the best (optimum) blade phase angle that yields minimum noise. |
|
|
Term
| When either propeller No. 2 or 3 is selected as the master propeller to add synchrophasing, what happens to the other three propellers? |
|
Definition
| The are then slaved to the selected master. |
|
|
Term
| What component corrects the propellers to obtain the best phase angle relationship between master and slaves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three propeller governing modes of operation? |
|
Definition
| Mechanical, normal, and synchrophasing. |
|
|
Term
| In the mechanical governing mode, what directly affects all propeller governor control? |
|
Definition
| Mechanical linkage affecting the tension on the speeder spring and the governing action of the flyweights. |
|
|
Term
| Which propeller-governing mode provides the foundation for two other propeller-governing modes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The normal governing mode supplements mechanical governing by adding what two functions? |
|
Definition
| Throttle anticipation and speed stabilization. |
|
|
Term
| To obtain the normal governing mode, what conditions must be met? |
|
Definition
The throttle must be at or above the FLT IDLE position, the synchrophase master switch must be in the
OFF position, and the propeller governor control switch must be in the NORMAL position. |
|
|
Term
| During normal governing operation, what stabilizes the propeller governor during rapid throttle movement? |
|
Definition
| Throttle anticipation circuit. |
|
|
Term
| During what modes of propeller governing can throttle anticipation function? |
|
Definition
| Normal and synchrophasing. |
|
|
Term
| When the throttle is moved and a signal is sent to the synchrophaser unit, what component changes speeder spring force to the pilot valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the governor control switch is in the MECH GOV position, what two conditions can cause the governor to overspeed or underspeed? |
|
Definition
| A change in throttle position or changes in propeller loading. |
|
|
Term
| During engine stabilization, what will cause the tachometer generator signal to change and trigger the synchrophaser to change the propeller blade angle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When an increase in RPM occurs during engine speed stabilization, how is an overspeed condition prevented? |
|
Definition
The synchrophaser will position the speed bias motor to decrease speeder spring tension. A decrease in
speeder spring tension allows the governor flyweights to position the governor pilot valve to increase blade
angle. |
|
|
Term
| When an decrease in RPM occurs during engine speed stabilization, how is an underspeed condition prevented? |
|
Definition
The synchrophaser will position the speed bias motor to increase speeder spring tension. An increase in
speeder spring tension allows the governor flyweights to position the pilot valve to decrease blade angle. |
|
|
Term
| What two functions supplement the normal governing mode when synchrophasing is added? |
|
Definition
Maintaining all propellers at identical speeds and maintaining optimum blade phase angles between all
propellers. |
|
|
Term
| What component will not allow the synchrophasing mode of governing to operate at throttle settings below FLT IDLE? |
|
Definition
| Synchrophaser disarming switch. |
|
|
Term
| To add synchrophasing to the normal governing mode, which switches must be moved and to what positions? |
|
Definition
Place the synchrophase master switch to either the ENGINE 2 or ENGINE 3 position and place the prop
resynchrophase switch to the NORMAL (or blank) position. |
|
|
Term
| If the propellers are not at the same speeds or at the optimum phase angles, a positive or negative speed and phase error voltage is produced. What does this positive or negative voltage represent? |
|
Definition
The difference in the amount of speed the slave propellers require to match that of the master propeller and
the difference in the amount of lead and lag the slave propellers require to obtain the best phase angle
relationship with the master. |
|
|
Term
| The No. 2 engine is selected as a master and is operating at 100.25% RPM. Suddenly the engine flames out. What will the the resulting RPM of the slave propellers? |
|
Definition
| 98.25%. (The slave propellers will only decrease their speed by 2%). |
|
|
Term
| When is indexing the synchrophaser system normally required? |
|
Definition
| When either a synchrophaser unit or valve housing is replaced. |
|
|
Term
| What three sets of switches are used during the indexing procedure? |
|
Definition
| Synchrophase master, prop resynchrophase, and propeller governing switches. |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the methods used for inspecting a propeller? |
|
Definition
| Visual, dimensional, and special. |
|
|
Term
| Which inspection method would be used if you were required to check the pulse generator for proper clearance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which inspection method could be used to determine if minute cracks are suspected in a propeller blade? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a part requires an NDI and is has been thoroughly cleaned, what further responsibility do you have? |
|
Definition
| Schedule it for inspection by the NDI shop. |
|
|
Term
| Why is it sometimes hard to determine from where a propeller is leaking? |
|
Definition
| Centrifugal force normally throws the hydraulic fluid everywhere. |
|
|
Term
| When a propeller is written up for a fluid leak, what components should be removed in order to better view the propeller assembly? |
|
Definition
| Top afterbody and front spinner. |
|
|
Term
| List the different areas where the propeller should be inspected for leaks. |
|
Definition
Dome cap, dome assembly at its junction with the barrel, parting surfaces (split-line) of the propeller barrel,
propeller barrel blade arms, barrel extension shaft, and the control assembly. |
|
|
Term
| When performing the fluid leakage inspection, what is the hydraulic fluid leak limit from the control assembly, whether it is running or static? |
|
Definition
| One drop every 45 seconds (4 ounces in 24 hours). |
|
|
