Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Lecture Final Exam
Lecture 21 - Lecture 25
141
Microbiology
Undergraduate 2
05/05/2019

Additional Microbiology Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

Fill in the blanks:

 

Lymphoid tissue and structures such as _____ and _____ are collectively called gut-associated lymphoid tissue.

Definition
Lymphoid tissue and structures such as lymphoid nodes and peyer's patches are collectively called gut-associated lymphoid tissue.
Term
Why are there few microbes in the stomach and small intestine?
Definition
  • stomach acid eliminates many microbes
  • rapid movement of food
  • paneth cells
Term
What is the function of paneth cells of the small intestine?
Definition
paneth cells phagocytose bacteria, produce lysozyme, and antimicrobial peptides
Term
The large intestine houses over 1000 species per gram of content of microbes which are mostly what?
Definition
  • mostly anaerobes and facultative anaerobes
  • most of these microbes are known as enteric bacteria - gram (-) rods that are facultative anaerobes
Term
What helps prevent microbial colonization in the esophagus, stomach, ad duodenum?
Definition
peristalsis and rapid transport of food
Term
What bacteria is most prevalent in the tongue, teeth, jejunum, colon, and rectum?
Definition
Viridans streptococci
Term
What type of microbes reside in the lower small intestine and colon and what prevents them from entering the blood stream?
Definition
microbiota in this area are microbial antagonists and the mucous membrane prevents entry of microbes into the blood stream
Term
What is the most cariogenic (cavity causing) bacterium?
Definition
Streptococcus mutans
Term
What is the mechanism of action for Streptococcus mutans with regard to dental carries?
Definition
S mutans attaches to the tooth and synthesizes dextran which is a polysaccharide that is an important factor in formation of dental plaque.  Sucrose is hydrolyzed into fructose and glucose.  The glucose is assembled into dextran.  The residual fructose is the primary sugar fermented into lactic acid, which breaks down the enamel of teeth.  Enamel low in fluoride is more susceptible to the effects of acid.
Term
What is bacterial endocarditis?
Definition
Bacterial endocarditis is bacteria in the blood which can infect the endocardium - thin lining  inside the heart chambers that is continuous with the linings of the blood vessels leaving and entering the heart.
Term
What does bacterial colonization of the endocardium trigger?
Definition

 

Bacterial colonization of the endocardium triggers inflammation and the formation of vegetations (masses of platelets and clotting proteins that surround and bury the bacteria).  In the vegetations bacteria are protected from defensive cells, antibodies, and antimicrobial drugs

 

Term
What bacterium is responsible for most of the cases of bacterial endocarditis?
Definition
Viridans streptococcus
Term
How does V streptococci get into the blood?
Definition
Can enter the blood through laceration of gums-including undetectable cuts produced by dental procedures or brushing teeth
Term
What are signs, symptoms, and complications associated with bacterial endocarditis?
Definition
Signs and symptoms: fever, extreme fatigue, malaise, breathing difficulty, tachychardia, murmurs. May lead to complications such as blood clots, stroke, complete destruction of heart valves resulting in heart failure.
Term
What type of conditions raise the risk factor for developing bacterial endocarditis?
Definition
Patients with abnormal hearts, heart valve problems, scarring from previous infections, and heart valve replacements, ate more susceptible because a damaged heart provides sites for bacterial colonization
Term
How is the fecal-oral cycle of transmission broken?
Definition
  • effective sanitarium practices in food production, handling, storage
  • modern methods of sewage treatment
  • disinfection of water
Term
Define infection.
Definition
Infection is when a pathogen enters the GU tract and multiplies.  It is characterized by a delay in symptoms/signs while pathogen increases in number of affects invaded tissue.  Fever is common.
Term
Define Intoxication.
Definition
Intoxication is ingestion of a toxin produced by a pathogen.  Characterized by a very sudden appearance (a few hours) of symptoms/signs.  Fever is less common.  Very short incubation period (sick from cream pie left out and eaten at a potluck).
Term
What is the difference in incubation time between infection and intoxication?
Definition
  • infection: incubation time 12 hrs. - 2 weeks
  • Intoxication: incubation time 1-48 hrs. after ingestion
Term
What are the signs and symptoms of infection and intoxication?
Definition
Both often cause abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, gastroenteritis (inflammation of the stomach or intestines caused by the presence of bacteria), and diarrhea.  Severe diarrhea accompanied by blood or mucus is called dysentery.
Term
What is staphylococcal food poisoning?
Definition
Intoxication caused by ingesting an enterotoxin produced by S aureus.  In 1-6 hours, Staphylococcal intoxication occurs.  Signs/Symptoms: abdominal cramps, nausea, diarrhea.
Term
What are enterotoxins?
Definition
If microbes are allowed to incubate in food left out at room temp, they replicate and release enterotoxin into the food.  1 million bacteria per gram of food will produce enough enterotoxin to cause illness.  Adequate refrigeration during storage will prevent enterotoxins.  The toxin is heat-stable and can survive up to 30 mins. of boiling (so while bacteria are destroyed when food is reheated, the toxin is not).
Term
What are the prevention methods for preventing enterotoxins?
Definition
  • thoroughly cook foods to a temperature high enough to kill bacteria
  • foods should not be allowed to remain in the danger zone for more than 2 hours (39-140 degrees F)
  • utensils should be cleaned thoroughly
  • cutting boards: avoid cross-contamination
  • proper hand washing
Term
What are the characteristics associated with Shigellosis (Bacillary dysentery)?
Definition
  • etiology: caused by Shigella; 4 species - S sonnei, S dysenteriae, S flexneri, S boydii; facultatively anaerobic nonmotile gram (-) rod; closely related to pathogenic E coli
  • mode of transmission: spread only from person to person; no natural reservoir in animals
  • Signs/Symptoms: fever, abdominal cramps, diarrhea (sometimes with bloody mucus); Shigellosis can cause up to 20 bowel movements in one day
  • Incubation period: 12 hrs. to 2 weeks
  • epidemiology: in US most cases are caused by S sonnei and affect children under 5
Term
What are the virulence factors for Shigella?
Definition
  1. type 3 secretion system
  2. enterotoxins that trigger loss of electrolytes and water (similar to cholera toxin)
  3. S dysenteriae secretes shiga toxin, which is an exotoxin that inhibits normal functioning of the host ribosome (can result in ulceration of the intestinal mucosa)
Term
What is Salmonella?
Definition
  • facultatively anaerobic peritrichous gram (-) rod
  • 2 species: S enterica and S bongori (most cases are cause by S enterica)
  • habitat is the intestinal tracts of humans and virtually all vertebrates
  • serotype typhi (causes typhoid fever) and is only found in humans
Term
What does Salmonella cause?
Definition
causes two disease conditions: typhoid fever and a for of gastroenteritis called salmonellosis
Term
What is the outbreak of mutidrug-resistant Salmonella infections linked to?
Definition
Raw Turkey Products
Term
What is the transmission mode, incubation time, signs/symptoms, treatment/prevention, and epidemiology of Salmonellosis?
Definition
  1. transmission mode: person-person, animal-person via the fecal-oral route; poultry, chicken, eggs, ground beef, fruit; sometimes direct transmission from animals (ex. pet reptiles)
  2. incubation time: 12-36 hours
  3. signs/symptoms: fever, nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea (usually not bloody)
  4. treatment/prevention: recovery usually complete in a few days, but many patients shed the organism in feces for up to 6 months; antibiotic therapy is not useful in treating salmonellosis; bacteria are generally destroyed by normal cooking
  5. epidemiology: mortality less than 1%, but death rate is higher in infants and the very old (death is usually from septic shock)
Term
What is the etiology, incubation period, transmission mode, signs/symptoms, and epidemiology of Typhoid Fever?
Definition
  1. etiology: serotype Typhi causes typhoid fever
  2. Incubation period: 2-3 weeks
  3. transmission mode: not found in animals, only spread by ingesting food or water contaminated with feces from humans
  4. symptoms/signs: high fever, continual headache, loss of appetite, sometimes a rash, diarrhea appears after 2nd or 3rd week, then fever starts to decline; In severe cases, ulceration and perforation of the intestinal wall can occur, allowing bacteria to enter the abdominal cavity.
  5. epidemiology: mortality w/treatment (abx therapy) less than 1%; w/o treatment 12-30% of patients die
Term
Is Typhoid fever localized or systemic and what are the treatment options and/or prevention for infection?
Definition
  • Typhoid fever is systemic - serotype typhi are able to multiple within macrophages and are disseminated via circulation to multiple organs, especially the spleen or liver
  • 1-3% of recovered patients become chronic carriers
  • Typhoid Mary harbored the salmonella in her gallbladder and shedding the disease in her feces
  • Fluoroquinone or ceftriaxone for MDR strains
  • treatment to end the carrier state involves 4 weeks of abx therapy
  • recovery confers life long immunity
Term
What are the characteristics associated with E coli 0157:H7?
Definition
  • transmission via the fecal-oral route
  • diarrhea (often bloody) appears 24-72 hours after consumption of bacteria
  • infectious dose likely around 10 cells (very acid-tolerant)
  • illness from ingestion of contaminated raw leafy vegetables and under cooked meat
  • main reservoir is cattle which are not affected by it
  • vegetables and fruits can be contaminated during heavu rains, waste from cattle farms can easily wash into nearby crop fields
Term
What does 0157 indicate in E. coli 0157:H7?
Definition
0157-unable to ferment sorbitol
Term

Fill in the blanks:

 

Shigella E coli invade the _____.  Enterohemorrhagic E coli releases the toxin into the _____.

Definition
intestinal wall; intestinal lumen
Term
What are some signs and symptoms associated with E coli 0157:H7?
Definition
causes food borne illness - symptoms include bloody diarrhea and 2-7% lead to acute kidney failure; hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
Term
What is the mechanism of action of E coli 0157:H7?
Definition
  • expresses Shiga toxin a prophage gene
  • inhibits protein synthesis by targeting 28s ribosomal RNA
  • can cause inflammation and bleeding of the colon
  • antimicrobial drugs induce this strain to increase its production of shiga toxin, worsening the disease
  • uses type 3 secretion system - a molecular syringe embedded in the membrane that directly injects virulence proteins into the host cytoplasm
  • disrupts normal host cell signaling pathways
  • causes actin-driven rearrangments that cause the host cell to build a pedastal on which the E. coli can perch - this helps prevent engulfment
  • in HUS the tiny filter units in the kidneys known as glomeruli become clogged with platelets and damaged red blood cells
  • this leads to problems with the kidneys ability to filter and eliminate waste products
Term
What is the etiology of cholera?
Definition
  • caused by vibrio cholera
  • slightly curved gram (-) rod
  • found in marine environments - preferring warm, salty, alkaline water (often in association with crustacean copepods and particulate matter)
  • survives in both salt and freshwater
Term
What is the transmission mode, incubation period, virulence factor, signs/symptoms, and epidemiology?
Definition
  • Ingestion of contaminated water or raw/under cooked  seafood
  • Incubation period: usually 2-3 days
  • Most important virulence factor: cholera toxin (plasmid-encoded)
  • Characterized by “rice-water” diarrhea, vomiting, muscle cramping, sunken eyes, rapid yet diminished pulse. Leads to severe fluid and electrolyte loss which results in dehydration, kidney failure, coma, death; acidosis - due to loss of bicarbonate ions; hypovolemic - caused by reduced blood volume; thirst, metabolic acidosis, hupokalemia, and hypovolemic shock
  • Mortality rate is 25-50% in untreated patients. Reduced to 1% with treatment (doxycycline and fluid and electrolyte replacement).
Term
What is the mechanism of action for cholera toxin?
Definition
  1. AB5 toxin: composed of an enzymatic A subunits and B subunits (B=receptor binding)
  2. B subunits bind to host cell receptor (ganglioside)
  3. entire toxin is endocytosed
  4. A subunit is released -> activates an enzyme called adenylate cyclase -> results in increased cAMP -> causes efflux of electrolytes -> water follows via osmosis leading to diarrhea
Term
What is the etiology, disease associated, epidemiology, mechanism of action, and virulence factors for Helicobacter pylori?
Definition
  • etiology: gram (-) spiral-shaped microaerophiloc bacterium
  • disease associated: responsible for most cases of peptic ulcer disease -> ulcers are erosion's of the lining of the stomach or duodenum
  • epidemiology: 30-50% of the population in the developed world become infected; infection rate is higher elsewhere; only about 15% of infected individuals develop ulcers; gastric cancer develops in 3% of infected individuals
  • H. pylori can survive the highly acidic environment of the stomach by producing urease, which converts urea to ammonia (which is alkaline) - this neutralizes stomach acid
  • Virulence: flagella enable burrowing through stomach lining; adhesins facilitate attachment to gastric cells
Term
What are signs/symptoms of H. pylori?
Definition
gastric, duodenal ulcers; abdominal pain is the major symptom, vomiting (can look like coffee grounds), weight loss, chest pain, black stools, untreated can lead to internal bleeding and bowel obstruction, people with type O blood are more susceptible (same w/cholera)
Term
What is the body of mold called?
Definition
hyphae
Term
What are the characteristics of fungi?
Definition
  • eukaryotic
  • aerobic or facultatively anaerobic
  • contain cell walls made of chitin
  • chemoheterotrophic - secrete catabolic enzymes and acquire nutrients by absorption
  • most are decomposers
  • live as unicellular yeasts and/or molds
Term
What is a fungal infection called?
Definition
mycosis
Term
What are the differences between fungi and bacteria?
Definition
  • fungi are eukaryotic and bacteria are prokaryotic
  • the cell membrane of fungi have sterols while bacteria do not have sterols except in mycoplasma
  • the cell wall of fungi have glucans, mannans, and chitins, while the bacteria cell wall has peptidoglycan
  • Fungi produce a wide variety of sexual and asexual reproductive spores, while bacteria have endospores and some asexual reproductive spores
  • Fungi are limited to heterotrophic, aerobic, and facultatively anaerobic, while bacteria are heterotrophic, chemoautotrophic, photoautotrophic, aerobic, facultatively anaerobic, and anaerobic
  • Fungi are often sensitive to polyenes, imidazoles, and griseofulvin while bacteria are often sensitive to penicillins, tetracyclines, and aminoglycosides
Term
What are nutritional adaptations of fungi?
Definition
  • grow better in an environment with pH~5 which allows them to grow on bathroom walls, shoe leather, and newspaper
  • more resistant to osmotic pressure than bacteria
  • can grow on substances with a very low moisture content
  • often capable of metabolizing complex carbohydrates that bacteria are not able to break down
Term
What is the morphology of fungi?
Definition
  • there are two basic body shapes: molds are composed of long filaments called hyphae, either septate or aseptate, can bear reproductive spores, hyphae grow to form a filamentous mass called a mycelium; yeasts are nonfilamentous, unicellular fungi that are spherical or oval
  • some fungi are dimorphic which means they can produce both yeast-like and mold-like shapes; generally the yeast form causes diseases, whereas the filamentous form does not; in pathogenic fungi it is temperature-dependent --> 37 degress C = yeast like and 25 degrees C = mold like
Term
How does the sexual and asexual reproduction in filamentous fungi occur?
Definition
it occurs by the formation of spores
Term
What are the two ways that fungi reproduce by spore formation?
Definition
  • Asexual Reproduction: fungi produce lightweight spores that disperse over large distances; fungi can reproduce asexually by fragmentation of their hyphae
  • sexual reproduction: occurs in 4 basic steps - haploid (n) cells from fungi or different mating types fuse to form a dikaryon which is neither haploid  or diploid, just n+n.  a pair on nuclei within a dikaryon fuse to form one diploid (2n) nucleus,  meiosis of the diploid (2n) nucleus restores the haploid state (2). the haploid nuclei are partitioned into spores of different mating types, which are disseminated into the environment.
Term

Fill in the blanks:

  1. _____: sporangiospores form inside a sac called a sporangium which is borne on a stalk called a sporangiophore at either the tips or the sides of the hyphae
  2. _____: form a thickened cell wall inside hyphae
  3. _____: are produced at the tips and sides of hyphae but not within a sac
Definition

 

1. Asexual spores: sporangiospores form inside a sac called a sporangium which is borne on a stalk called a sporangiophore at either the tips or the sides of the hyphae.

 

2. Chlamydospores form a thickened cell wall inside hyphae

 

3. Conidia are produced at the tips and sides of hyphae but not within a sac

 

Term
What are superficial mycoses?
Definition
  • most common fungal infections
  • confined to hair, nails, outer layers of skin
  • acquired by direct contact with hyphae or spores of fungi
Term
What are cutaneous mycoses (dermatomycoses)?
Definition
  • fungi that colonize the hair, nails, and the outer layer of the epidermis - dermatophytes
  • dermatophytes can trigger immune responses that can damage deeper tissues (unlike superficial infections)
  • Epidermophyton, trichophyton, and microsporum cause the majority of dermatophytic infections
  • deramtophytes grow on keratin
  • moisture favors fungal infections
  • transmitted by direct ad indirect contact
  • dermatophytes are among the few contagious fungi
  • dermatophytes are classified by natural habitat
Term

Fill in the blank:

 

  • Tinea Capitis - _____
  • Tinea Cruris - _____
  • Tinea Pedis - _____
  • Tinea Unguium - _____
Definition
  • Tinea capitis (ringworm of the scalp)
  • Tinea cruris (ringworm of the groin/jock itch)
  • Tinea pedis (ringworm of the foot/athlete’s foot)
  • Tinea unguium (ringworm of the nails)
Term
What is candidiasis?
Definition
  • overgrowth of candida albicans which is an oportunistic yeast that is a common member of microbiota of skin and mucous membranes
  • causes thrush (oral), skin, and vaginal infections if it enters the bloodstream it can travel to the heart, central nervous system, eyes, and bones
  • risk factors include immunosupression, broad spectrum abx., obesity and diabetes.
  • Candidiasis can be cutaneous, hepatic, nail infection

 

Term
What is oral thrush?
Definition
  • manifests as white coating in the mouth, resembling cottage cheese
  • common in newborns and immunocompromised individuals; also occurs following abx. therapy
  • treatment - topical treatment (oral spray or swab) with a nystatin solution (nystatin binds to ergosterol and forms pores in the membrane)
Term
What is vaginal candidiasis?
Definition

An overgrowth problem: Candida overgrows if vaginal pH becomes alkaline or normal microbial populations are reduced. 

Review: bacterial microbiota of mucous membranes in the genitourinary tract and mouth normally suppress the growth of Candida albicans

Term
What are the risk factors associated with vaginal candidiasis?
Definition
diabetes, hormone replacement therapy, birth control, corticosteroids, antibiotic therapy: these conditions alter the normal vaginal microbiota
Term
What are the treatmets for vaginal candidiasis?
Definition
oral fluconazole or OTC vaginal suppositories
Term
What is invasive candidiasis?
Definition
serious infection that can affect the blood, heart, brain, eyes, bones, or other parts of the body.
Term
What is candidemia?
Definition
When candida enters the bloodstream, causing illness, this is one of the most common causes of bloodstream infections in hospitalized patients
Term
What are the risk factors associated with candidemia and what are the signs/symptoms?
Definition
  • risk factors: critical illness, hospitalization/live in a healthcare facility, diabetes, organ transplant, cancer chemotherapy, and taking broad-spectrum abx
  • signs of candidemia include fever and chills that do not improve with antibiotics, and symptoms/signs of septic shock
Term
What are fungal respiratory infections?
Definition
  • fungi produce spores that are disseminated through the air and can be transmitted through inhalation
  • spores may germinate in the lower respiratory tract
  • rate of fungal infections of the lower respiratory system has been increasing
  • opportunistic infections
  • risk factors - immunosuppressed patients, AIDs, transplant drugs, anticancer drugs
Term
What are some examples of fungal respiratory infections?
Definition
  • histoplasmosis
  • coccidioidomycosis
  • pneumocystic pneumonia
  • blastomycosis
  • aspergillosis
Term
What is histoplasmosis?
Definition
  • caused by histoplasma capsulatum which is a dimorphic fungus that survives and replicates intracellularly in macrophages
  • signs and symptoms include: asymptomatic in most cases; symptomatic infection causes coughing with bloody sputum, fever, aches/pains, or skin lesions
  • humans inhale airborne spores from the soil, especially where droppings from birds and bats have accumulated (droppings provide nutrients, especially nitrogen, for the fubgus)
  • lungs are initially infected but macrophages can carry spores through blood and lymph becoming systemic (this is rare)
  • In tissue growth it is yeast-like and in soil or artificial media it is filamentous mycelia
Term
What is Coccidioidomycosis?  What is the etiology, where is it found, what are the symptoms, and is it systemic?
Definition
  • etiologic agent: Coccidioides immitis which is a dimorphic fungus.  In tissues it forms a thick-walled body called a spherule filled with spores.  In soil-filametous, and wind carries arthroconidia to transmit the infection
  • found in dry, alkaline soils, such as in the southwest-frequent occurrence in San Joaquin Valley
  • most infections not apparent-a systemic disease, progressive disease resembling TB disseminates through body
  • symptoms can include chest pain, fever, coughing, weight loss
Term
What are three characteristics shared by all protozoa?
Definition
eukaryotic, unicellular, no cell wall
Term
What are some other characteristics of protozoa?
Definition
  • motile by means of cilia, flagella, and/or pseudopods (except for subgroup apicomplexans)
  • require moist environments
  • mostly aerobic heterotrophs
  • most only reproduce asexually
  • free-living and pathogenic protozoa exist as a trophozite (feeding and growing stage)
  • many have a hardy resting stage called a cyst-cyts are not reproductive structures they have a thick capsule and low metabolic rate.  One trophozite forms one cyst which later becomes one trophozoite
Term
What is giardiasis?
Definition
  • caused by giardia intestinalis (AKA giardia lamblia)
  • flagellated protozoan
  • two forms: trophozoite which  are motile and can attach firmly to intestinal wall using ventral adhesive disk.  Cyst which are dormant and resistant to chlorine, heat, dessication stomach
  • symptoms/signs: greasy, frothy, fatty diarrhea, malaise, nausea, weakness, weight loss, abdominal cramps, odor of hydrogen sulfide on breath or stools
  • diplomonad (2 identical nuclei)
  • no mitochondria
  • infective dose as few as ten cysts
Term
Whatis the mode of transmission, those most at risk, and diagnosis and treatment of giardiasis?
Definition
  • mode of transmission: fecal-oral, usually from ingesting cysts from contaminated water, also contaminated food or hands; pathogen is shed in feces of humans and animals
  • hikers, campers, swimmers, and daycare workers are at particular risk
  • diagnosis and treatment: microscopic examination to reveal trophozoites and cysts in feces, treatment with metronidazole is usually effective within a week
  • incubation period is 3-25 days
Term
What is trichomoniasis?
Definition
  • caused by trichomonas vaginalis; anarobic flagellated protozoan
  • usually sexual transmitted
  • typically symptomatic in women and asymptomatic in men; in women it causes profuse frothy greenish discharge with a foul odor, irritation and itching, pain during urination and sex
  • normal vaginal lactobacilli keep trichomonas in check; if normal acidity of vagina is disturbed, overgrowth may occur
  • no cyst stage-must be transferred quickly from host to host before dessication occurs
  • treatment-metronidazole
  • no mitochondria
  • undulating membrane-a membrane bordered by a flagellum
  • can infect babies during passage through birth canal, which can result in preterm delivery and low birth weight of a baby
  • incubation period is 4-28 days
  • often accompanied by coinfection with gonorrhea
Term
What is African sleeping sickness?
Definition
  • protozoan disease that affects the nervous system: it is caused by trypanosoma brucei (a flagellated protozoan)
  • spread by tsetse fly vectors
  • victims become so tired they stop eating, succumb to coma and death, rapid mood swings and confusion
  • T. brucei gambiense is the most common form and the only reservoir is humans
  • incubation period is a few weeks or months
  • T. brucei rhodesiense-rservoir domestic livestock and many wild animals; incubation period is a few days; death occurs within weeks, sometimes from cardiac problems before CNS is affected
Term
What are the three clinical stages of African sleeping sickness?
Definition
  • site if bite becomes lesion
  • parasites in the blood create fever, lymph node swelling, and headache
  • protozoa invade CNS, causing meningoencephalitis; headache, extreme drowsiness, abnormal neurological function
Term
What is the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention for African Sleeping Sickness?
Definition
  • diagnosed by microscopic observation of trypanosomes in blood, lymph, spinal fluid, or tissue biopsy
  • treatment based on disease stage-untreated african sleeping sickness is fatal
  • insecticide application and large scale release of sterile male tsetse flies helps reduce occurrence
  • eflornithine crosses the BBB and blocks an enzyme required for proliferation of parasite-treatment is toxic; tsetse flies attracted to the color blue
Term

The vegetative, reproducing, feeding state of a protozoan is called a:

 

A. cyst

B. trophozoite

C. spore

D. hyphae

Definition
B. trophozoite
Term
What is the cause, epidemiology, vector transmission, and symptoms associated with malaria?
Definition
  • caused by four species of plasmodium: P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, and P. malariae
  • epidemiology: endemic throughout tropics and subtropics; affects % of the world's population; malaria causes 500,000-1 million deaths annually
  • vector transmission: anopheles mosquito
  • symptoms associated with parasite's life in erythrocytes: recurrent fever + chills, diarrhea, vomiting, severe headache; occasional pulmonary or cardiac dysfunction, jaundice may occur; anemia, weakness, and fatigue gradually occur
  • survivors acquire a limited immunity
Term
What are the lysogenic cycles of bacteriophages?
Definition
  1. viral DNA enters the cell as in the lytic cycle, but the host cell's DNA is not destroyed.  The phage's genome does not immediately assume control of the cell.
  2. viral DNA is incorporated into the host chromosome, and remains inactive as prophage.
  3. the host cell resumes normal function, but when it replicates its genome, the viral DNA will be replicated as well.  Daughter cells will acquire the prop[hage.  Prophage may remain part of chromosomes for generations or forever.
  4. eventually, the prophage may be excised from the chromosome (called induction), and now the lytic cycle can begin.
Term
What is one result of lysogeny?
Definition
  • One result of lysogeny is the host cell may exhibit new properties.  E.coli 0157:h7: the gene that codes for Shiga toxin is a prophage gene.  Only Streptococci carrying a lysogenic phage are capable of causing toxic shock syndrome.
  • Another result is specialized transduction.  Any bacterial gene could be packaged in a phage capsid.  In specialized transduction, only certain genes can be transferred.
Term
What is a latent virus referred to?
Definition
provirus
Term
A latent virus is similar to lysogeny except for what?
Definition
Some latent viruses do not become incorporated into the chromosome.  If they do become integrated, they cannot be excised (i.e. the provirus never comes out of the chromosome)
Term
What is an example of a latent virus?
Definition

Herpesvirus

  • enveloped with icosahedral capsid.  Envelop comes from nuclear membrane.  dsDNA genome - diameter is 120-300 nanometers
  • HSV1 causes the majority of cold sores.  It is transmittd through oral secretions and usually remains latent in the trigeminal nerve ganglia, this is the nerve that links the CNS and face.  Herpetic whitlow-abrashions in skin result in HSV1 infection.
  • HSV2 causes the majority of genital herpes and is transmitted via sexual contact and remains latent in the sacral nerve ganglia.
  • recurrence can be triggered by stress, fever, hormonal changes, UV light, immunosuppression
  • HHV3 is responsible for chicken pox and shingles
Term
What is chicken pox?
Definition
  • caused by herpesvirus varicellovirus (HHV-3)
  • mode of transmission is inhalation of infected particles from skin lesions
  • latency occurs when the virus enters the peripheral nerves and moves to a dorsal root ganglion near the spine where it persists as viral DNA indefinitely
  • antibodies cannot penetrate into the nerve cell, and because no viral antigens are expressed on the surface of the nerve cell, cytotoxic T cells are not activated
  • later in life (due to stress or immunosuppression), the latent virus becomes activated, causing shingles
  • in shingles, viruses move along peripheral nerves to the cutaneous sensory nerves of the skin
  • shingles is a different expression of the virus that causes chicken pox because the patient now has partial immunity to the virus
  • The effectiveness of the varicella vaccine declines with time, so varicella in previously vaccinated persons (breakthrough varicella) is fairly common. This is an issue for adults (disease is more severe) so everyone over 60 should get zoster vaccine.

Term
What is a another example of latent virus?
Definition

Human Papillomavirus

  • small non-enveloped icosahedral viruses; ds DNA genome with a diameter of 55 nannometers
  • papillomaviruses cause warts which are growths of the epithelium of the skin on face, trunk, hands, feet, elbows, knees, or genitalia; this virus causes infected epithelial cells to divide rapidly; it is transmitted via direct and indirect contact and is highly infectious
  • there are more than 100 strains of HPV; some strains cause cancer-HPV integrates into the genome and transforms cells which increases expression of viral oncogenes E6 and E7 which inhibit tumor suppressor genes; In oncogenic retroviruses, a provirus can convert the host cell into a tumor cell.
Term
What is a virus capable of inducing tumors called?
Definition
oncogenic viruses (carry cancer-inducing genes)
Term
What is a defining feature of all oncogenic viruses?
Definition

 

A defining feature of all oncogenic viruses is that their genetic material integrates into the host cell’s DNA and replicates along with the host cell’s chromosome.

 

Term
How many strains is the HPV vaccine effective against?
Definition

 

Protection against four prevalent strains linked to cancer

 

Term

 

Why are DNA viruses, such as herpesviruses and papillomaviruses, more likely to cause recurrent diseases and cancers than are RNA viruses?

 

Definition
  • RNA viruses do not integrate into the host genome, except for HIV
  • herpesvirus and papillomavirus are latent viruses that become integrated into the chromsomes and cannot be excised
Term
Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and Zanamavir are neuraminidase inhibitors. What stage of the replication cycle is affected?
Definition
Cannot be released from the host cell
Term
What is the flavivirus?
Definition
  • enveloped +ssRNA viruses
  • genus includes west nile virus, dengue virus, yellow fever, virus and zika virus
Term
What is the west nile virus?
Definition
  • transmitted by mosquitos
  • reservoir - birds
  • most people infected with virus do not develop disease, those who do have flu-like illness
  • can occasionally cross blood brain barrier and cause encephalitis - headache, high fever, neck stiffness, disorientation, coma, convulsions, paralysis, neurological effects may be permanent and death may occur
Term
What is the transmission, and signs/symptoms of influenza?
Definition
  • transmission - infection occurs primarily through inhalation of airborne viruses released by coughing or sneezing; self inoculation - transfer viruses on fingers to nose or mouth
  • signs/symptoms - sore throat, congestion, cough, muscle aches; sudden flu distinguishes flu from a common cold
  • lower respiratory illness; influenza can remain invective for up to 8 hours on objects outside the body; incubation period of one day; symptoms produced by immune response
Term
What are HA (hemagglutinin) and NA (neuraminidase)?
Definition
  • HA and NA are glycoprotein spikes found on the surface of the virus
Term
What does hemagglutinin allow the virus to do?
Definition

 

Hemagglutinin: (HA) Allows virus to bind to host cells and trigger endocytosis. Facilitates entry of viral genome into host cell.

 

Term
What does neuraminidase enable the virus to do?
Definition
enables the virus to be released from the host cell
Term
What is the mechanism of action of neuraminidase?
Definition
Viral neuraminidase cleaves terminal neuraminic acid (also called sialic acid) residues from glycan structures on the surface of the infected cell. This promotes the release of progeny viruses and the spread of the virus from the host cell to uninfected surrounding cells
Term
What does influenze steal from the host and how does it do this?
Definition
  • infuenza steals the host cellular 5' mRNA cap
  • RNA - dependent RNA polymerase transcribes mRNA from template (-) RNA genome; viral mRNA will be capped at 5' end like cellular mRNA; virus enzyme removes cellular 5' cap, puts it onto ends of viral mRNAs
  • influenza "pirated cap" provides translation advantage; (+) mRNA serves also as template to make (-) genomes for new virus progeny[image]
Term
What is antigenic drift?
Definition
  • Accumulation of hemagglutinin and neuriminidase gene mutations within a single strain of virus in a given geographic area. (Basically, a slow change in the antigens on the viral surface over time)

  • The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase does not have a proofreading function. This is crucial to the virus’s evolutionary strategy! Changes in the sequences encoding surface antigens leads to evasion of the immune response!
  • this is why you need to get a vaccine every year
Term
What is plasmodium?
Definition
  • genus of parasitic protozoa
  • apicomplexan: characterized by schizogony which is a form of asexual reproduction
  • complex life cycle involving stages in the host and vector (anopheles mosquito)
Term
What are the forms in which plasmodium exists in the host?
Definition
  • sporozoites: injected into host's blood from mosquito and undergo schizogony in liver cells and produce merozoites
  • merozoites: infect RBCs
  • trophozoites: grow in RBCs, produce more merozoites via schizogony; RBCs rupture, releasing merozoites which infect more RBCs
  • some merozoites develop into male and female gametocytes, which are taken up by the mosquito
  • (life cycle in mosquito: gametocytes --> zygote --> ookinete --> oocyst --> sporozoites --> cycle begins again)
Term
What are the plasmodium virulence factors?
Definition
  • reproductive cycle occurs within RBCs-hides parasite from immune surveillance (RBCs don't display MHC)
  • adhesins allow red blood cells to adhere to certain tissues (avoid clearance by spleen)
  • changes in body chemistry attract other mosquitos: gametocytes trigger changes in body odor that attracts anopheles mosquitoes
Term
What is the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention for malaria?
Definition
  • diagnosis made by identifying plasmodium in blood
  • treated with various antimalarial drugs
  • some plasmodium strains are resistant to antimalarial drugs
  • prevention requires control mosquitoes; use of mosquito nets is important way to reduce contact
Term
How is Hemozoin produced?
Definition
  • In RBCs, plasmodium digests hemoglobin, which releases free heme
  • Free heme is toxic.  So the parasites covert it into a non-toxic insoluble crystalline form called hemozoin
  • many anti-malarials (ex. Chloroquine) work by inhibiting hemozoin formation
  • hemoglobin is necessary for parasite's development, but it is not known which component specifically is required; digests it and produces hemozoin as a byproduct; detoxification through biocrystallization
Term
What are helminths?
Definition
  • multicellular eukaryotic animals
  • platyhelminths: flatworms
  • nematodes: roundworms
Term
What are common features of parasitic helminths?
Definition
  • may lack a digestive system
  • nervous system is reduced
  • means of locomotion is often reduced or lacking
  • reproductive system is often complex
Term
What are the 3 stages found in all helminth life cycles?
Definition
  • larval stage
  • adult
  • eggs
Term
Nematodes are round worms, what are the four different types?
Definition
  • whipworm: trichuris trichiura; adults form in intestine and burrow into the intestinal wall; heavily infected individuals can experience dysentery, loss of muscle tone, prolapsed rectum
  • pinworm: enterobius vermicularis; migrates out of anus to lay eggs, causing itching; transmitted from hands, contaminated bedding and sexually
  • Loaisis (african eye worm): loa loa; transmitted through bite of deer fly
  • lymphatic filariasis (elephantiasis): wuchereria bancrofti; transmitted  through bite of mosquito; presence of adult worms in lymphatic system results in obstruction; lymph accumulates behind the blockage
Term
What are tapeworms?
Definition
  • tapeworm is the common name for cestode, it is a flat, segmented, intestinal parasite and it can be  meters long>
Term
What are the signs and symptoms of tapeworms?
Definition
  • usually asymptomatic
  • nausea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and diarrhea may occur
  • people usually don't know they are infected until they pass segments of the helminths
Term
What are the pathogenic forms of tape worms?
Definition
  • taenia saginata: beef tapeworm
  • taenia solium: pork tapeworm
Term
What is the morphology of the tapeworm?
Definition
  • cuticle = outer surface (steals host nutrients by absorption)
  • scolex = suckers/hooks attach to host tissue
  • neck = behind scolex; segments called proglottids originate here; new proglottids grow from neck
  • proglottids mature as they are pushed from neck, producing male and female reproductive organs; each proglottid has both sex organs and may fertilize other proglottids of the same or different tapeworms
  • after fertilization, proglottids furthest from neck become gravid (full of fertilized eggs); they break off the chain and pass out of the intestine in feces
Term
What are the characteristics of viruses?
Definition
  • viruses are nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) wrapped in a protein coat; some also have a lipid membrane; envelope
  • viruses are NOT cells
  • infectious agents having either DNA or RNA (never both); single stranded or double stranded
  • cause of infections of humans, animals, plants, and bacteria
  • cannot carry out any metabolic pathway or reproduce imdependently
  • are very small
  • hijack the host cell's machinery in order to replicate
  • no cytoplasmic membrane, cytosol, organelles
Term
What are capsomeres?
Definition
the capsid is composed of protein subunits call capsomeres
Term
What is the envelope?
Definition
Enveloped viruses have a lipid membrane surrounding the capsid, called the envelope.  The envelope is acquired from the host cell upon release, so it is composed of phospholipid bilayer and proteins.  Some if the proteins are viral glycoproteins (spikes) that play a role in host recognition
Term
What are the pros and cons of enveloped viruses?
Definition
  • pro: viral envelope provides some protection from immune system
  • con: enveloped viruses are more fragile than naked viruses; more susceptible to detergents, alcohol, dessication
Term
What are the pros and cons of non-enveloped (naked) viruses?
Definition
  • pro: capsid of a naked virus is more stable outside the host, and protects the nucleic acid from nucleases in biological fluids
  • cons: exposes more viral proteins; more susceptible to recognition by immune system
Term
What are the extracellular and intracellular states of a virus?
Definition
  • extracellular state: called virion; protein coat (capsid) surrounding nucleic acid; some have phospholipid envelope; outermost layer provides protection and recognition sites for host cells
  • intracellular state: capsid removed; virus exists as nucleic acid
Term
Most viruses infect only a particular host's cells.  What is the host specificity due to?
Definition
Host specificity is due to the binding of viral surface proteins (ligands) to complementary proteins on the surface of the host cell (receptors)
Term
Sometimes viruses will only infect a particular type of cell within a particular host.  For example......
Definition
HIV only infects helper T lymphocytes.  Some people lack a receptor called CCR5 on their T cells (normally HIV binds CCR5).  These people are naturally immune to HIV infection.
Term
What are generalist viruses?
Definition
Some viruses are generalists and can infect many kinds of cells in many hosts (ex. West Nile Virus can infect humans, other mammals, birds, and some reptiles)
Term

Fill in the blanks:

 

Animal viruses bind to _____.  People who lack the _____ for parvovirus B19 are resistant to infection and don't get _____.

Definition
Animal viruses bind to cytoplasmic membrane.  People who lack the cellular receptor (P antigen) for parvovirus B19 are resistant to infection and don;t get fifth disease.
Term
The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on what?
Definition
The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells.  Typically viral genomes consist of only a few of the genes needed for synthesis of new viruses.  So for a virus to multiply, it must take over the metabolic machinery of the host cell.  Usually this will destroy the host cell.  Capsid proteins and some enzymes needed in life cycle.
Term
What are the 5 steps in the lytic cycle of bacteriophages?
Definition
  1. attachment (absorption) - proteins on the virus recognizes receptor proteins on the surface of the host's cell wall.  The virus attaches to the host cell.
  2. Entry - the virus releases lysozyme to degrade the peptidoglycan of the cell wall.  The phage's tail contracts, forcing a hollow tube through the cell wall/membrane.  The virus injects its genome through the tube.  Viral enzymes (either carried in the capsid or coded by the viral genes and made by the bacterium) degrade bacterial DNA.
  3. Synthesis - new viruses are synthesized - viral nucleic acid is transcribed and translated by the bacterial host, resulting in viral nucleic acid and protein that will be assembled into new virus particles.
  4. Assembly - viral nucleic acid is packaged into capsids.  Sometimes, host DNA is "accidentally" packaged into capsids - now when the virus infects a new host, it will inject the old host's DNA into the new host (transduction).
  5. Release - newly assembled viruses are released, and the cell lyses open.
Term
How does replication of animal viruses occur?
Definition
  • attachment of an animal virus depends on binding of virion proteins to protien/glycoprotein receptors in animal cell's cytoplasmic membrane
  • animal viruses lack tails and tail fibers - they have glycoprotein spikes or other attachment molecules on their capsids or envelopes
  • viruses enter host cell via one of the mechanisms on the next slide
Term
What is the mechanism of action of biosynthesis of ds and ss DNA viruses?
Definition
  • Replicate DNA in the nucleus of the host cell using host enzymes or viral enzymes (depending on species).  Genes can be transcribed directly bu host RNA polymerase in nucleus
  • Synthesize capsomeres and other proteins in the cytoplasm using host enzymes
  • The capsomere proteins migrate into the nucleus and are joined with newly synthesized DNA to form virions (so assembly happens in the nucleus)
  • Then virions are released from nucleus into cytosol
  • Examples include: herpesvirus, papvaviruses, adenoviruses, and hepadniviruses
  • ds DNA - make own DNA pol or use that of the host.  Genes can be transcribed directly by host RNA pol or one encoded by viral genome
  • ss DNA - require host DNA pol to generate complementary DNA strand or ss DNA of parvovirus folds back on itself to form a hairpin loop that acts as double stranded DNA
Term
What is the mechanism of action of the biosynthesis of RNA viruses?
Definition
  • There are 4 types: + ssRNA, -ssRNA, dsRNA, and retroviruses
  • +ssRNA: positive-sense single-stranded RNA.  The RNA genome can serve directly as mRNA.  Replication of the RNA genome requires synthesis of a template (-) strand (by virally coded RNA polymerase).  The progeny (+) strands are replicated from the (-) template.  Transcription of RNA to RNA is unique to viruses - cells do not do this.
  • -ssRNA: negative-sense single-stranded RNA.  The complement of the genome serves as mRNA.  Packages a viral RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to make (+) strand, which can be translated.  Then it uses the (+) strand as a template to make (-) strand to package in virions
  • dsRNA: double-stranded RNA (+) strand serves as mRNA.  Each strand of the dsRNA acts as template for transcription of its opposite using viral RNA polymerase
  • retroviruses: type pf +ssRNA virus, but they do not us the (+) strand as mRNA.  The (+) strand is reverse-transcribed into dsDNA using an enzyme called reverse transcriptase.
  • most RNA viruses develop solely in the cytosol
  • +ssRNA: ex. polioviruse, ribosomes can translate polypeptides using the codons of such RNA
  • -ssRNA: influenza, rabies
  • -dsRNA: rotavirus - diarrhea in infants
  • -most DNA viruses assemble in and are released from the nucleus in the cytosol.  Most RNA viruses develop solely in the cytoplasm
Term

Fill in the blank:

 

Once components of animal viruses are synthesized, they are assembled into _____ and are released from the _____.

Definition
Once components of animal viruses are synthesized, they are assembled into virions and are released from the host cell.
Term
What are enveloped viruses?
Definition
Enveloped viruses are released via a process called budding, where they acquire a portion of the host cell's membrane that becomes the viral envelop.  Budding allows an infected cell to remain alive for some time.  Virions are extruded through one of the cell's membranes - nuclear, ER, or cytoplasmic
Term

Select the true statement: 

a) the incubation period is shorter for an intoxication vs. infection.

b) the majority of the bacteria that make up the digestive system microbiome are located in the stomach.

c) re-heating food contaminated with enterotoxin will render it safe for consumption.

d) Staphylococcal food poisoning results from S aureus entering the GI tract and multiplying.

Definition
a) the incubation period is shorter for an intoxication vs. infection.
Term

For E.coli 0157:h7:

mode of transmission:

main reservoir: 

infectious dose:

one virulence factor mentioned in lecture:

Definition

fecal oral

cattle

10 cells

shiga toxin, T3SS

Term
The 2 types of Platyhelminths are the flukes, AKA________, and the tapeworms AKA ________.
Definition

tremtodes

 

cestodes

Term

Put the steps of the Plasmodium life cycle in order:

____released merozoites infect more RBCs. some become gametocytes

____ RBCs rupture

____schizogony occurs in liver cells, yielding merozoites

____sporozoites injected into bloodstream from mosquito

____trophozoites in RBC undergo schizogony to produce more merozoites

____merozoites enter RBC 

____mosquito ingests gametocytes during bloodmeal

Definition

_6__

_5__

_2__

_1__

__4_

_3__

__7_

Term
the viral nucleic acid is surrounded by a protein coat called a _______, which is comprised of subunits called ________. Some viruses have a(n) ________, which is acquired from the host cell upon  release in a process called _______.
Definition

capsid

capsomeres

envelope

budding

Term

Select the true statement:

a) For DNA viruses , replication and transcription occurs in the nucleus of the host cell.

b) All RNA viruses develop solely in the nucleus of the host cell.

c) -ss RNA genomes can be immediately translated at the ribosome.

d) + ss RNA viruses rely entirely on host polymerases to synthesize copies of viral genes.

Definition
A
Term

Select the true statement:

a) non-enveloped viruses exit the cell via budding

b) non-enveloped viruses enter the cell via membrane fusion

c) non-enveloped viruses are less likely to be recognized by the immune system than enveloped viruses

d) non-enveloped viruses are more stable outside the host than enveloped viruses

Definition
D
Term

Which of the following is FALSE:

            a) during the lytic cycle, the host chromosome is degraded by viral enzymes.

            b) Viruses are capable of either the lytic or lysogenic cycle, but never both.

            c) A prophage is not passed on to daughter cells after binary fission.

            d) lysogenic phage can make bacteria pathogenic.

Definition
C
Term
T/F: In generalized transduction, only genes adjacent to the prophage may be packaged in a capsid.
Definition
False
Term

A difference between viral latency and lysogeny is:

            a) latency occurs in bacteria, lysogeny occurs in animal cells.

            b) If a latent provirus incorporates in the chromosome, it remains there permanently.

            c) Viruses lie dormant during latency, but viruses immediately assume control of the cell in lysogeny.

            d) lysogeny occurs with enveloped viruses, and latency occurs with non-enveloped viruses.

Definition
B
Term

Select the true statement:

a) antigenic drift allows Influenza to move from animals to human hosts.

b) A result of antigenic shift is that people have little to no immunity to the subtype produced.

c) antigenic shift is due to an accumulation of HA and NA mutations within a single strain of virus.

d) antigenic drift poses a larger threat to public health than antigenic shift.

Definition
B
Term

Describe the role of Streptococcus mutans in dental caries in detail (including risk factors and howit degrades enamel). Can this bacteria alone cause cavities? Why or why not?

Definition

S. mutans attaches to the tooth.  S. mutans synthesizes dextran – a polysaccharide that is an important factor in formation of dental plques.  No it can not cause cavities alone, sucrose is needed.  Sucrose is hydrolyzed into fructose and glucose. The glucose is assembled into dextran.  The residual fructose is the primary sugar fermented into lactic acid,

which breaks down the enamel of teeth

Term

Given that S. mutans is contagious, especially between adults and children,

how can parents prevent their children from getting a S. mutans infection (thereby

reducing their risk of cavities)?

Definition
Best prevention: minimal ingestion of sucrose. Brushing, flossing,
professional cleaning to remove plaque, and the use of fluoride.
Term

You go out for dinner, and about an hour later you have abdominal cramps,

nausea and diarrhea. What most likely caused your illness?

Definition
You got staphylococcal food poisoning
Term

diseases of the digestive system are often transmitted by the “oral-fecal”

route. What does “oral-fecal” route mean? How can this cycle of transmission be broken?

 

Definition
The
fecal-oral cycle
of transmission can be broken by:
Effective sanitation practices in food production, handling, storage
Modern methods of sewage treatment
Disinfection of water
Supporting users have an ad free experience!