Term
| The goal of the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 is: |
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Definition
| Accurate labeling of food and drugs |
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Term
| The Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 aims for accurate labeling of food and drugs based on these two things: |
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Definition
| Adulteration and misbranding |
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Term
| This law recognized the USP-NF as the official standard for drugs: |
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Definition
| The Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 |
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Term
| This law replaced the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906: |
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Definition
| Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act |
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Term
| The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act mandated these three things for drug: |
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Definition
| New drugs must be proven safe for use under labeled conditions, Labeling to contain adequate directions for use, approval by FDA required |
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Term
| Quality assurance of cosmetics and devices is included under this law: |
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Definition
| Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act |
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Term
| True or False: Drugs developed and marketed before 1938 are not subject to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act: |
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Definition
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Term
| The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 defines "Food" as: |
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Definition
| Articles used for food or drink for man or other animals; chewing gum; articles used for components of any such article |
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Term
| The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 defines "Drugs" as: |
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Definition
| Articles listed in the USP or NF; articles other than food intended for the diagnostis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease or to affect the structure or function of the body; intended to be used as a component of any of the above. |
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Term
| The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 defines "Device" as: |
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Definition
| An instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, invitro reagent, or other similar or related article intended for the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease or other medical conditions, AND DOES NOT ACHIEVE ITS EFFECT BY CHEMICAL ACTION OR BY BEING METABOLIZED. |
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Term
| The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 defines "Adulteration" as: |
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Definition
| Failure to conform to USP-NF standards for purity, quality, strength, and appropriate assays or not stored under USP standards |
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Term
| Failure to store a drug under USP standards is an example of: |
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Definition
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Term
| Incomplete or misleading labeling is an example of: |
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Definition
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Term
| Labeling of all legend and OTC drugs is approved by the: |
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Definition
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Term
| This amendment to the FDCA of 1938 created a new class of drugs -- OTC drugs: |
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Definition
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Term
| The Durham-Humphrey Act states that drugs not requiring medical supervision for their safe use are referred to as: |
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Definition
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Term
| The Durham-Humphrey Act states that drugs not requiring medical supervision for their safe use are referred to as: |
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Definition
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Term
| The Durham-Humphrey Act states that drugs not requiring medical supervision for their safe use are referred to as: |
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Definition
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Term
| The Durham-Humphrey Act states that drugs not requiring medical supervision for their safe use are referred to as: |
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Definition
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Term
| The Durham-Humphrey Act states that drugs not requiring medical supervision for their safe use are referred to as: |
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Definition
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Term
| This law mandates that drugs requiriing medical supervision for their safe use must have a "legend" stating, "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription": |
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Definition
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Term
| The Durham-Humphrey Act created which two categories of drugs: |
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Definition
| OTC Drugs and Legend (Rx) drugs |
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Term
| This law adds efficacy to safety as a prerequisite for FDA new drug approval: |
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Definition
| Kefvauer-Harris Amendment to the FDCA of 1938 |
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Term
| This law shifted from pre-market "notification" to FDA pre-market "approval" by the FDA: |
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Definition
| Kefvauer-Harris Amendment |
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Term
| This law established Good Manufacturing Practices, and adds clinical study oversight safeguards and important patient protections: |
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Definition
| Kefvauer-Harris Amendment |
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Term
| The Kefvauer-Harris Amendment mandates that drugs may not be marketed unless: |
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Definition
| 1) Proven safe and effective for intended use; 2) adequate labeling (approved by FDA); 3) meetgs Good Manufacturing Practices; 4) produced by a registered manufacturer |
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Term
| This class of medical devices must be approved by the FDA: |
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Definition
| Class III Devices (high risk) |
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Term
| This class of medical devices includes infusion pumps, x-ray machines, and powered wheelchairs: |
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Definition
| Class II Devices (medium risk) |
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Term
| Low risk medical devices are categorized as which class of device? |
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Definition
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Term
| Class III devices must be proven safe and effective in clinical trials, and pass ______________. |
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Definition
| FDA premarket approval process (510K) |
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Term
| An orphan drug is one used to treat a disease affecting < _____________ in the U. S. |
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Definition
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Term
| Companies are given tax reductions and extended marketing exclusitivity for _____ years post-FDA approval for orphan drugs. |
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Definition
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Term
| This law mandates that demonstration of bio-equivalency is sufficient data to approve a generic drug: |
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Definition
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Term
| The Waxman-Hatch Amendment granted patent term extensions to brand name drugs for up to how many years? |
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Definition
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Term
| This law requires the FDA to publish the "Orange Book" of brand/generic bioequivalency: |
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Definition
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Term
| This law created the Abbreviated New Drug Application: |
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Definition
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Term
| This law mandates record-keeping and re-sale limits on "samples": |
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Definition
| Prescription Drug Marketing Act |
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Term
| This law prohibits the re-sale of drugs bought by non-profit institutions except for its own patients, employees, and related entities (i.e., "Own Use" doctrine): |
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Definition
| Prescription Drug Marketing Act |
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Term
| This law requires state licensure of wholesalers and other secondary distributors, repackagers, etc.: |
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Definition
| Prescription Drug Marketing Act |
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Term
| True or False: The Prescription Drug Marketing Act prohibits retail pharmacies from receiving drug samples. |
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Definition
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Term
| True or False: The Prescription Drug Marketing Act does NOT allow the use of "starter packs" to be distributed free of charge to pharmacies. |
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Definition
| False -- The PDMA does allow the use of starter packs to be distributed free of charge to pharmacies |
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Term
| True or False: Vouchers and coupons are allowed to be redeemed at a pharmacy due to the Waxman-Hatch Act. |
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Definition
| False -- They are allowed under the Prescription Drug Marketing Act |
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Term
Which of the following is not mandated by the Prescription Drug Marketing Act?
a)Hospitals may receive samples only if requested by a physician
b)Sales reps are held responsible for all samples and take an annual inventory
c) Allows drugs to be re-imported into the U. S. by wholesalers
d) Mandates proper storage and distribution records |
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Definition
| C -- Only the manufacturer may re-import drugs into the U. S. |
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Term
| This law standardizes "descriptor" use, such as: "Low" calorie, sugar "free", "light", and "high" fiber: |
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Definition
| Nutrition and Labeling Eduaction Act |
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Term
| This law regulates nutrient/disease relationships, such as: Calcium/osteoporosis, fiber/cancer, and sodium/hypertension: |
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Definition
| Nutrition and Labeling Education Act |
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Term
| This law requires dietary supplements to include a "Statements not evaluated by FDA" disclaimer: |
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Definition
| Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act |
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Term
| The Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act prohibits dietary supplements from making these claims: |
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Definition
| "_____ is intended to treat, prevent, or cure". |
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Term
Which of the following is illegal under the Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act? a) "Bob's smiling now that he's got a little 'spring' back in his step thanks to Enzyte."
b) "Take Viactive to help prevent osteoporosis!"
c) "Hi, Billy Mayes here with a great new thing to help you lose weight along with diet and exercise!"
d) "Take No-Doz to help you stay focused!" |
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Definition
| B -- This clearly states that Viactive is intended to prevent a disease |
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Term
| Which phase of clinical trials involves limited trials in patients with a disease? |
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Definition
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Term
| This phase of clinical trials typically enrolls healthy volunteers: |
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Definition
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Term
| In vitro and in vivo animal testing is performed during this phase of the new drug development process: |
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Definition
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Term
| This form is the first application that a manufacturer must submit to the FDA: |
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Definition
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Term
| How long does the FDA have to approve an Investigational New Drug Application? |
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Definition
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Term
| The purpose of phase I clinical trials is to: |
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Definition
| Evaluate toxicology/safety and pharmacokinetics |
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Term
| The purpose of phase III clinical trials is to: |
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Definition
| Compare effectiveness versus standard therapy |
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Term
The typical sample size of a phase III trial is: a) < 100 b) 100 - 1000 c) 1000+ d) 10,000-100,000+ |
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Definition
| C -- Very large groups of thousands of patients |
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Term
| When may a New Drug Application be submitted? |
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Definition
| After phases I, II, and III clinical trials |
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Term
| When may an Abbreviated New Drug Application be used? |
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Definition
| For approval of generic drugs |
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Term
| A manufacturer must submit this application to make changes in a drug's synthesis, production procedures, packaging, labeling, etc.: |
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Definition
| Supplemental New Drug Application |
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Term
| The first five digits of an NDC identify whom? |
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Definition
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Term
| The last five digits of an NDC identify what? |
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Definition
| The drug and package size |
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Term
| True or False: All prescription drugs must use child-resistant containers, per the Poison Prevention Packaging Act. |
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Definition
| False -- There are some exceptions for certain listed products. |
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Term
| The standards for child resistant containers state that at least ___% of adults having been shown how, can open the container within 5 minutes. |
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Definition
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Term
| The standards for child resistant containers state that not mroe than ____% of children < 5 y/o, having been shown how, can open within 5 minutes. |
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Definition
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Term
| True or False: Child resistant containers may be reused up to three times. |
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Definition
| False -- CRCs may NOT be reused. |
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Term
| True or False: Prescribers may request that a child resistant container not be used, as well as make a "Blanket" request. |
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Definition
| False -- Prescribers may NOT make blanket requests |
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Term
| True or False: Patients may make blanket requests to not use child resistant containers. |
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Definition
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Term
| An Orange Book therapeutic equivalence evaluation of "A" means the products are considered ________________. |
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Definition
| A = products are considered therapeutically equivalent to "reference" product |
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Term
| "B"-rated products are considered: |
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Definition
| Not therapeutic equivalents |
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Term
| "AB" rated products are products that have: |
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Definition
| Actual or potential equivalency problems |
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Term
| The recall of a product that is likely to cause injury or death is which class of recall? |
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Definition
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Term
| Class II product recalls are for drugs that: |
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Definition
| May cause temporary or reversible health problems from use of the drug |
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Term
| Which class of drug recall is assigned to products that are not likely to cause health problems? |
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Definition
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Term
| Minor health risks or minor FDA violations may result in this type of recall: |
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Definition
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Term
| The expiration date for compounded non-aqueous liquids and solids is: |
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Definition
| Not more than 25% of the time remaining on the commercial product or a maximum of 6 months (whichever is less) |
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Term
| The expiration date for compounded aqueous solutions obtained from manufactured products is: |
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Definition
| 14 days when stored at a cold temperature |
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Term
| For all other compounded products besides non-aqueous liquids and solids and aqueous solutions the expiration date is: |
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Definition
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Term
| A physician obtains his DEA number before 1985. What is the first letter of his DEA number? |
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Definition
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Term
| A physician receives his DEA number in 1985. What is the first letter of his DEA number? |
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Definition
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Term
| A nurse practitionre is assigned a DEA number. What is the first letter of the DEA number? |
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Definition
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Term
| Medicare Part A covers what? |
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Definition
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Term
| In order to qualify for Medicaid, a person must be deemed either ____________ or ____________. |
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Definition
| Medically indigent (Blind, disabled, aged) or Financially indigent (No or low income and asset base) |
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