Term
| # of JNC Hypertension guidelines |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| average family practice has this # of patients |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Medicare Part B is paid/regulated by.. |
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Definition
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Term
| Does Medicare pay for non-dispensing services? |
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Definition
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Term
| 6 key dimensions of health care quality |
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Definition
Safe Effective Patient-Centered Timely Efficient Equitable *STEEEP* |
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Term
| acknowledging and encouraging patient control of decision making regarding their health care is referred to as.. |
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Definition
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Term
| which life assessment considers all part of an individual's life - including physical, emotional, social, spritual, and finanicial - over a period of 1 week and ranks them 0-10 |
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Definition
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Term
| which life assessment involves placing an X on a line that best represents how an individual has felt over a 2 week period? |
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Definition
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Term
| what is often the ONLY and PRIMARY effective measure available for things such as depression, pain, anxiety, etc? |
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Definition
PRO (Patient-Reported Outcomes) -measure quality of life, patient satisfaction, adverse effects, and effectiveness of therapy |
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Term
| 5 models to understand patient health beliefs and behaviors |
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Definition
1. Health Belief Model 2. Transtheoretical Model of Change 3. Theory of reasoned action and Theory of planned behavior 4. Social cognitive theory 5. Locus of control |
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Term
| Almost 1 out of 4 adult Americans read at or below the ____ grade level, while medical information leaflets for patients are at the _____ grade level or higher. |
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Definition
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Term
| A good method to assure understanding of information presented to a patient is what? |
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Definition
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Term
| what campaign was designed to encourage patient participation and to promote 3 simple, but essential, questions and answers for every healthcare interaction? |
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Definition
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Term
| what is the study of the allocation of resources? |
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Definition
economics -asks what, how, and who will produce |
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Term
| what is the fundamental economic problem? |
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Definition
| human wants are unlimited and resources are scare |
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Term
| a free market is also known as _______ while one that involves a central authority is known as ________. one that is mixed is known as _______. |
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Definition
| capitalism; communism; socialism |
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Term
| any place where sellers and buyers can meet and where a transaction takes place is known as a _______. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the three factors of production? |
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Definition
Land (natural resources) Labor Capital (machines, buildings, etc.) NOT MONEY! |
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Term
|
Definition
| all else equal, the quantity demanded for a good falls when the price of the good rises |
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Term
|
Definition
Income Tastes and preferences Number of consumers Consumer expectations Price of related goods *Price changes quantity demanded |
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Term
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Definition
| as else equal, the quantity supplied for a good rises when the price of the good rises |
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Term
|
Definition
Technology Resource costs Prices of alternative outputs (cross price) Number of sellers Seller expectations *Price changes quantity supplied |
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Term
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
| refers to the responsiveness of demand and supply to changes in price |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
elastic (flatter curves - small increase in price, greater decrease in quantity demanded) unit elastic inelastic (curves more vertical - greater increase in price, less decrease in quantity demanded) |
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|
Term
Determinants of Elasticity *inelastic *elastic |
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Definition
*inelastic: short-run, few substitutes, low price relative to income, broadly-defined market, necessities *elastic: long-run, many substitutes, high price relative to income, narrowly-defined market, luxury goods |
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Term
income elasticity >0 is referred to as a _________ good while <0 is referred to as a _________ good. |
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Definition
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Term
| in cross price elasticity, if e>0 for two goods, then they are referred to as ________, while if e<0 then they are referred to as ________. |
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Definition
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Term
| market price and output can be determined by what 4 things? |
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Definition
number of buyers and sellers barriers to entry or exit product differentiation full information |
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Term
| what type of market structure has many sellers, no barriers to entry/exit, no product differentiation, and has full information? |
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Definition
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Term
| what type of market structure has 1 seller, high barriers to entry/exit, high product differentiation, and no full information? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| what type of market structure has many sellers, no barriers to entry/exit, high product differentiation, and has full information? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| what type of market structure has few sellers, high barriers to entry/exit, high or low product differentiation, and no full information? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| what is a principle-agent problem associated with the market for health care? |
|
Definition
| lack of full information (third-party health insurance, uncertainty, etc) |
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Term
| what is suffering a harm or loss and is generally quanitifiable? |
|
Definition
| risk (a pure risk is one that has the possibility of loss but no gain) |
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Term
| likelihood of events (insurable risk) can be accurately determined at the __________ level, but not the ___________ level. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: losses must be accidental, substantial, measurable, and the individual must have an insurable interest |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| purchase of insurance in anticipation of an expected loss (i.e. older, smoker) is a problem known as what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
change in an individuals' behavior resulting from reduction in risk (i.e. using too much health insurance, engage in risky behavior, forego preventative care) is known as what? note: providers may also engage in this when they over-treat and over-prescribe bc health care costs are covered |
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Definition
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Term
| what are the benefits of group policies? |
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Definition
| usually sponsored by employers, less prone to adverse selection, less expensive to sell & administer, and provides a tax advantage for employees & employers |
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Term
| limitations and restrictions for insurance include: |
|
Definition
elimination (exclusionary) periods limits to amounts paid for certain covered events exclusion of coverage for certain events (i.e. elective surgery, hazardous activities) |
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Term
| percentage copay paid by a consumer |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Utilization controls include what 7 strategies? |
|
Definition
coinsurance co-payments deductibles caps prior authorizations gatekeepers tiered formularies (tier 1 = generic, tier 2 = brand; no generic available, tier 3 = brand; generic available; high copay; not preferred) |
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Term
| Pharmacy Benefit Managers (PBMs) provide what 6 services? |
|
Definition
contract with pharmacies maintain formularies conduct drug utilization reviews process claims reimburse providers control costs and utilization |
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|
Term
| reimbursement of a drug is determined by.. |
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Definition
| ingredient cost + dispensing fee |
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Term
| ingredient cost of a drug can be reimbursed as.. |
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Definition
| a percentage of AWP (average wholesale price), AMP (average manufacturer price), WAC (wholesale acquistion cost - plus a fixed percentage), or MAC (maximum allowable cost - based on generic price) |
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Term
| Which type of managed care organization employs everyone who delivers health care to the plan's patients? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| this health care delivery system reimburses providers (or patients) on a "usual, customary, and reasonable" (UCR) basis for each unit of service provided |
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Definition
fee-for-service (FFS) -patient retains choice of provider, but it is expensive to process claims and there is no incentive to control utilization or cost |
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Term
| this health care delivery system generally refers to assumption of risk - creates incentive to control costs & utilization and contracts with providers |
|
Definition
| managed care organization (MCO) |
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Term
| Staff, Group, Network, and IPA are all considered what type of MCO? |
|
Definition
| health maintenance organization (HMO) |
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Term
| Name some differences between HMOs and PPOs |
|
Definition
HMOs: often place providers directly or indirectly at risk (capitated payment), usually do not cover out-of-network care, "gatekeepers" coordinate and authorize medical services, and often utilize lower-cost providers (i.e. nurse practictioners) as gatekeepers PPOs: not risk-bearing, groups of affiliated providers who contract plans, generally have non-exclusive contracts, patient incentive to see network providers (only some coverage out of network), and discounted FFS payment |
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Term
| accreditation of a practice is evaluated based on what? |
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Definition
| utilization management, patient satisfaction, access, financial performance, provider credentials, and treatment of specific diseases & outcomes |
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Term
| Which country has a healthcare system that is fragmented, has public & private financing, coverage is not universal, little direct provision of care by the government, and has a mix of FFS and MCO approaches? |
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Definition
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Term
| which country has a healthcare system that covers all necessary physican & hospital services for all citizens, PCPs serve as gatekeepers, is financed by personal and corporate taxes, physican are reimbursed on FFS basis, and drug prices are set at federal level? |
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Definition
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Term
| which country has a healthcare system that has employeed citizens covered by "sickness funds" (operate like private plans) and unemployed covered by social welfare system, is financed by employeers & employees through payroll taxes, and have physicians act as gatekeepers for facility-based care & are basically FFS? |
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Definition
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Term
| which country has a healthcare system that is universal, financed mostly through general taxes, have most services provided by practitioners who work for the government, have GP's as gatekeepers, have physicians grouped into "trusts" that manage primary care, and payment through a mix of capitation and FFS? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which country has a healthcare system that involves physican-nurse teams, "polyclinicis" (which provide lab, emergency, and specialty services), salaried physicians, and is financed by the state? |
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Definition
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Term
| the government exists to: |
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Definition
1. enforce property rights (public health - i.e. vaccinations, safety and professional rights - i.e. licensure, regulation) 2. correct market failures (barriers to entry, imperfect information, product differentiation, few sellers) |
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Term
| governmental roles in the US |
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Definition
| funds research, regulates industry, educates and trains providers, provides services, and insures (some) individuals |
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Term
| between state and local governments, which has more legal/regulatory functions (i.e. professional and insurance regulation, health insurance coverage, and workers' comp?) |
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Definition
state government -local is more population based (i.e. health needs assessment, disease surveiliance, emergency transportation, health insurance, and health & food safety) -both state and local oversee public health screenings |
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Term
| DHHS (Department of Health and Human Services) represents what % of federal spending and insures what % of individuals? |
|
Definition
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Term
Match the following types of Medicare with their function: A, B, C, D 1. Supplementary medical insurance (SMI), outpatient 2. Prescription drug benefit 3. Hospital insurance (HI), skilled nursing facility, hospice, and home health care 4. Medicare + Choice, Medicare Advantage (managed care organizations - provide all benefits except hospice) |
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Definition
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Term
| what does medicare not cover? |
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Definition
| dental, vision, long-term care |
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Term
| Eligibility requirements for Medicare |
|
Definition
1. person and/or spouse worked for at least 10 years in Medicare-covered employment 2. citizens or permanent residents of the US 3. at least 65 years old 4. others under 65: disabled and end-stage renal disease patients |
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Term
| T/F: There is no premium for Medicare-eligible beneficiaries. For others who are not eligible but choose to enroll, the premium may run between $226-410/mo. |
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Definition
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Term
| Medicare Part B coverage includes: |
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Definition
| physician care, outpatient hospital services, x-rays & lab tests, physical & occupational therapy, home health care, some drugs & biologics, kidney dialysis, DME, ambulance transport, some preventative services, and "Welcome to Medicare" exam |
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Term
| T/F: Under Medicare Part D, the standard plan structure has a $250 deductible then has a consistent 25% coinsurance |
|
Definition
false -25% coinsurance is good for the next $2,000 then there is 100% coinsurance for the next $2,850 ("donut hole"). After this period has been met, there is a 5% copay OR $2 generic co-pay and $5 brand co-pay. |
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Term
| T/F Medicare SELECT (Plans K and L) is similar to all other Medigap policies except patients must go to "preferred" providers and is typically less expensive than other Medigap policies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Medicare financed? |
|
Definition
Part A - HI trust fund: payroll tax + cost sharing Part B/D - SMI trust fund: general revenues + premiums + cost sharing |
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|
Term
| What is contributing to the financial crisis for Medicare? |
|
Definition
| increased medical care costs and aging of the population (ratio of workers/beneficiaries decreasing) |
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Term
| T/F: medicaid was originally tied with welfare |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Medicaid is consistent from state to state |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Match the following with the correct Medicaid group (all are Mandated Categorically Needy): (A) Group 1 (B)Group 2 (C) Group 3 (D) Group 4 1. Poor with children - limited family income and resources/dependent child without parental support or care 2. Qualified Medicare Beneficiaries (QMBs) - Medicare-eligible individuals with incomes below FPL and limited assets (Medicare pays premiums and other expenses)/or incomes between 100-120% FPL (Medicaid pays Part B deduct. only) 3. Supplemental Security Income (SSI) recipients - elderly, blind, or disabled (eligibility based on income and assets) 4. Pregnant women and all children <19 years in families with incomes at or below FPL |
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Definition
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|
Term
| T/F: States may opt to cover additonal groups under Medicaid - mainly children or pregnant women - who otherwise do not meet income, asset, or family status requirements |
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Definition
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|
Term
| T/F: States have the option to cover individuals medically needy, who would otherwise be covered under mandatory or optional Medicaid groups, but do not meet income or asset tests |
|
Definition
true -must include pregnant women and children under 18 -can include children under 21, parents and other caretaker relatives, elderly, and disabled -medical expenses must be such that effective income meets the state threshold ("spending down") |
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|
Term
| What benefits are generally covered under Medicaid? |
|
Definition
-inpatient and outpatient hospital services -physician, midwife, and certified nurse practitioner services -x-ray and lab services -nursing home and home health care 21+ -early and periodic screening, diagnosis, and treatment (EPSDT) for children under 21 -family planning services and supplies -health clinics/health centers -states may receive funds for optional services such as prescription drugs, prosthetic devices, hearing aids, vision and dental care, and transportation |
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Term
| T/F: Unlike with Medicare, physicians who treat any Medicaid patients must agree to treat all such patients who come to their offices |
|
Definition
true -providers can only charge the Medicaid-approved amount (no balance billing) and agree to be paid by Medicaid |
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Term
| How is Medicaid financed? |
|
Definition
| federal match of 50-83% and state funding from general tax revenues |
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|
Term
| Three common proposals to increase health coverage are: |
|
Definition
1. mandating employer-paid health insurance - "pay or play": either "pay" a fee to the state to provide insurance for their employees or "play" by providing coverage themselves (small firms and part-time employees exempt) 2. expanding Medicaid to cover more of the uninsured - authorized and funded at federal levels, states design and implement (ex: SCHIP) 3. provide tax credits for low-income individuals to buy insurance- least effective |
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Term
| Which act proposed tax free savings accounts, out-of-pocket expenses for high-deductible health insurance plans, was designed to create price sensitivity, but may be subject to adverse selection & "reverse" moral hazard? |
|
Definition
Medicare Modernization Act -under Medicare Part D |
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|
Term
One type of health reform involves where states create a pool of funds from taxing private-pay hospital bills or from general tax revenues to hospitals who deliver uncompensated care to low-income individuals (uncompensated care pools). T/F: This type of reform would increase access of healthcare to individuals |
|
Definition
false -this would not increase access per se, but might make uncompensated care more available and keep "safety net" hospitals open |
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|
Term
| T/F: One way to improve health care is to mandate all employeers to offer a standard health insurance package to employees to reduce cost of health insurance and decrease adverse selection (Employeer Mandates). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Elderly medicaid beneficiaries represent the least proportion of spending |
|
Definition
| false (greatest proportion, but children make up the greatest # of individuals participating) |
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|
Term
| List and explain 3 enduring characteristics of the pharmaceutical industry |
|
Definition
1. Intellectual Property Protection (IPP) - patents (good for about 20 years) and exclusivity (no one else can produce for 6 months on the market) 2. Research & Development (R&D) - product life cycles, blockbuster products (sell $1 billion/year, ideal product, widely used), and marketing in place of innovention 3. Profitability - net profit as a percentage of revenue, mean return on investment, and "virtuous rent seeking models" |
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|
Term
| According to a US Census, how many pharmaceutical firms are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The pharmaceutical industry can be broken down into what 3 sectors (firms)? |
|
Definition
1. Research-oriented chemical firms 2. Biotechnology or biopharmaceutical firms 3. Generic firms |
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|
Term
| What are 3 current controversies in the pharmaceutical industry? |
|
Definition
1. Economic: pricing and price differentials (within the US and compared to other countries) 2. Science/technology: R&D investment (who should do R&D, etc.) 3. Socio-political: market prospects |
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|
Term
| the presence of wholesalers reduces transactions by what percent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the functions of a wholesaler? |
|
Definition
| improve efficiency (can order smaller quantities and more frequently compared to a manufacturer), availability, maintain product quality & safety, and maintain product integrity & security (drug storage, special carrier trucks) |
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|
Term
| What are the 4 classes of wholesale firms? |
|
Definition
| primary (national), regional, specialty (injectables or for specific disease), and secondary wholesalers (will take excess supply and often expired drugs) |
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|
Term
| What federal legislation mandated that pharmacy offer counseling to Medicare patients? |
|
Definition
| Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act |
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|
Term
| To help reduce the occurence of counterfeit drugs, what 2 actions have been proposed/implemented? |
|
Definition
| wholesaler license requirements and pedigree papers |
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|
Term
| a pharmacy chain consists of _____ units or more |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Traditional pharmacies, clinics, and franchises (i.e. Medicine Shoppe) are classified as chains |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Institutional pharmacies include hospital pharmacies, long term care facilities and hospice |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 6 different types of pharmacy outlets? |
|
Definition
| community (independent and chain), institutional, nuclear, specialty, mail order, and internet sales |
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|
Term
Expenses to a pharmacy include what? Which of these make up 2/3 of a pharmacy's expenses? |
|
Definition
products, labor, expenses directly related to the pharmacy, expenses shared across all departments within the retail unit the product - inventory |
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|
Term
What was the average cost of a prescription in 2006? What percent of this cost relates to the manufacturer, wholesaler, and pharmacy? |
|
Definition
about $68 manufacturer: 78% wholesaler: 3% pharmacy: 19% |
|
|
Term
| what is the difference between a price maker and a price taker? |
|
Definition
price makers: free to set price, constrained by competitors (i.e. manufacturers, wholesalers, insurance firms) price takers: accept price offered, manufacturers in countries with price controls (i.e. dispensing pharmacies) |
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|
Term
| When does the pharmacy department within a hospital become the revenue generator and when does it become the cost center? |
|
Definition
FFS system - revenue generator (revenue increases as the number of products and services increase) Fixed payment system - cost center (revenue fixed; costs increase as products and services increase) |
|
|
Term
| any circumstance during therapy that a competent professional would see as inconsistent with the objective of therapy is known as what? |
|
Definition
drug therapy problem -occurs when a problem does not obtain therapy (access), has ineffective therapy, inadequate dose, nonadherence (effectiveness), takes the wrong dose, overdoses, has an adverse reaction (safety), etc. |
|
|
Term
| an unintended patient injury with a scientifically plausible relationship either to adverse effect of drug therapy or failure of attempted drug therapy or an untreated indication for drug therapy is known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when can a DRM be preventable? |
|
Definition
| when there is a unresolved drug therapy problem that is recognizable and which has a foreseeable potential outcome, an identifiable cause, and a controllable cause |
|
|
Term
| what percent of all DRM are preventable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what comprises the greatest percent of preventible drug related morbidities (PDRM)? |
|
Definition
| prescribing in inpatient care and follow-ups in ambulatory care |
|
|
Term
| What is MTM and who are the targeted beneficiaries? |
|
Definition
Medication Therapy Management - provides services that will optimize therapeutic outcomes for targeted beneficiaries; are independent of but can occur in conjunction with the provision of a medication product Beneficiaries include individuals who have multiple chronic diseases (>3), who are taking multiple covered drugs (>6), and are likely to incur annual costs that exceed a defined minimum of $4,000 |
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|
Term
| T/F: In MTM services, pharmacists would be the sole provider |
|
Definition
| false - plans can also use other qualified health professionals |
|
|
Term
| what are the 5 main sets of functions of a medications use system? |
|
Definition
-prescribing, dispensing and advising, consumption -prospective (clinical) DUR -retrospective (educational) DUR -therapeutic outcomes monitoring -performance management (aka clinical governance) |
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|
Term
| T/F: Three essential issues of the pharmacist as a team member are truthworthiness, role specification, and relationship initiation. |
|
Definition
| true - trustworthiness of a pharmacist includes expertise and intention (commitment and availability); role specification includes defined roles/relationships, conflict resolution, and inter-dependence (mutual benefit); relationship initiation includes "reaching out" gradually to allow trust & roles to develop |
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|
Term
| Authority belongs to the patient and can be granted (or not) to another. Two kinds of authority involved are: |
|
Definition
| authority over belief (cultural authority) and authority over action (social authority) |
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|
Term
Match the following with the correct answer. Which of the following a primary experience? A. disease B. sickness C. illness 1. a person's experience of not being well 2. an inference based on interpretation of subjective and objective data 3. refers to behavior; inability to meet obligations or engage in desired activities (i.e. work or social events); related to quality of life |
|
Definition
| 1. C 2. A 3. B Illness is a primary experience |
|
|
Term
| What are the four levels of a medications use system? |
|
Definition
-patients' experiences -the "microsystems" that give care (i.e. providers, pharmacists, etc.) -the organizations that house and support microsystems (i.e. hospitals, etc.) -the environment of laws, rules, payment, accreditation, and professional training that shape organizational action |
|
|
Term
| On average, how many prescriptions are filled per hour? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 services that go beyond dispensing as a pharmacist include: |
|
Definition
| disease management, health & medication screenings, home infusion, etc. |
|
|
Term
| what qualifications are required in order to be a clinical hospital pharmacist and what are some of the job duties? |
|
Definition
qualifications: post PharmD training 1-2 years, board certification, and want responsibility job duties: rounds with medical teams, obtain medical histories, provide discharge counseling, manage adverse drug reaction programs, and respond to drug information questions |
|
|
Term
| what are some of the job duties of a staff hospital pharmacist? |
|
Definition
| order entry/verification, medication system issues, checking medication fills, sterile product preparation, and supervising activities of technicians |
|
|
Term
| health, social, and residential services provided to chronically disabled persons with functional or cognitive impairments is known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: For LTC, pharmacists must have a separate consultant license |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The use of Drug Regimen Review (DRR) in LTC facilities resulted in a _____ % decrease in medication use |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some of the job duties for a pharmacist involved in LTC? |
|
Definition
| distribution (unit dose packaging) and consultation (DRR, monitoring, resolve drug interactions, PK dosing, formulary development, DURs, disease mangement, and education for facilitators) |
|
|
Term
| T/F: In implementing the goals of pharmaceutical care, the American Council on Pharmaceutical Education (ACPE) mandated the doctor of pharmacy, a six-year degree program as the entry level requirement. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Direct-to-Consumer advertising on television is regulated by: |
|
Definition
| Food and Drug Administration |
|
|
Term
| In 1900, the leading causes of death in comparison with today were attributed to: |
|
|
|
Definition
| more infectious diseases and less chronic diseases (currently this is no longer the case) |
|
|
Term
| The “state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity” refers to the definition of health according to: |
|
Definition
| World Health Organization |
|
|
Term
| SHINE is a community resource available to MAC that was mentioned in the discussion. SHINE, would provide Mac with what type of support? |
|
|
|
Definition
| free instruction and help with Medicare Part D |
|
|
Term
| | | T/F: Health-related quality of life is now one of the outcomes measured in the drug approval process | |
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Individual insurance is usually less expensive than group insurance |
|
Definition
| false (group insurance is less expensive) |
|
|
Term
| payment of health care expenses until a specified amount has been paid out-of-pocket over a period of time is called a.. |
|
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mac was newly diagnosed with what disease state in Case 2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is/are covered by Medicare Part A? A. hospital care B. skilled nursing facility services C. hospice D. all of the above E. only A & B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Advantages of three-tier prescription benefits include(s): |
|
Definition
| generic dispensing rate increases, consumer incentive to choose cost-effective drugs, and allows access to an open formulary that allows “choice” |
|
|
Term
| Which Medicare service is largely financed through payroll tax deductions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: FDA responsibilities include drugs, food, and cosmetics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| | | Which type of managed care organization employs everyone who delivers health care to the plan's patients? | |
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| | | McKesson, Cardinal Health and Amerisource Bergen account for the majority of drug product sales in the United States. These three organizations would be classified as? | |
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Channels of legal distribution of prescription drugs include(s): A. drug wholesaling B. direct from the manufacturer C. drug diversion D. A & B E. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The vast majority of prescription drug products that are used in the US flow through? A. mail order B. hospitals C. outpatient settings D. nursing homes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The process of relabeling or redefining a personal or social problem as a medical condition is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stores like Wal-Mart and Target are classified as mass merchandisers because? |
|
Definition
| their primary business is not pharmacy |
|
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Term
| T/F: Drug manufacturers can be classified as either a price maker or a price taker. |
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Definition
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Term
| T/F: There are cases where a patient must be injured to obtain a desired therapeutic outcome and therefore would not be classified as a drug related morbidity? |
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Definition
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Term
| a law enacted by Congress that limits the amount of time a preexisting condition may be excluded from coverage to one year, requires insurance companies to sell health insurance policies to small employers and individuals who lose coverage without regard to their health history, requires insurance companies to renew policies they sell to groups and individuals, and outlines standards for patient confidentiality. |
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Definition
| Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) |
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