Term
| What should you consider in a pt with profound lactic acidosis and dyspnea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Carbon Monoxide: uses % ________________ to identify toxicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you have rapid onset, severe dyspnea in the absence of other clinical features you should think of... |
|
Definition
pneumothorax
pulmonary embolism
inc LVEDP |
|
|
Term
| Spontaneous pneumothorax is usually accompanied by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When should you suspect pulmonary embolism in a pt with dyspnea? |
|
Definition
when they report a recent Hx of prolonged immobilization
are on estrogen therapy
have other risk factors for DVT
or when the cause of dyspnea is not apparent |
|
|
Term
| Periodic CP that proceeds the onset of dyspnea is suspicous for what 2 things? |
|
Definition
myocardial ischemia
pulmonary embolism |
|
|
Term
| Most cases of dyspnea associated with wheezing are due to ________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you have dyspnea with wheezing and acute bronchitis is unlikely consider... |
|
Definition
new onset asthma
foreign body
vocal cord dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| What are some noncardiopulmonary causes of prominent dyspnea with mild to no accompanying features? |
|
Definition
anemia
methemoglobinemia
cyanide ingestion
CO
metabolic acidosis
panic attacks |
|
|
Term
| Dyspnea: Main PE components |
|
Definition
Head and neck
Chest
Heart
Lower extremities
|
|
|
Term
| What are some respiratory patterns suggestive of COPD? |
|
Definition
pursed-lip breathing
use of extrarespiratory mm
barrel-shape chest |
|
|
Term
| What are some respiratory patterns suggestive of pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some respiratory patterns suggestive of metabolic acidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some respiratory patterns suggestive of impending upper airway obstruction (epiglottis or foreign body), or severe asthma exacerbation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pulse Ox values <94% almost always represent what?
What are the exceptions? |
|
Definition
clinically significant hypoxemia
CO toxicity and methemoglobinemia |
|
|
Term
| There is a >90% probability of inc LVEDP when 2+ of the following are present... |
|
Definition
tachycardia
systolic hypotension
JVD
Hepatojugular reflux
crackles, esp bibasilar
3rd Heart sound
LE edema
radiographic pulm vascular redistribution or cardiomegaly |
|
|
Term
| What are the life threatening causes of episodic dyspnea? |
|
Definition
recurrent PE
myocardial ischemia
RAD |
|
|
Term
| Which causes of dyspnea can be Dx by CXR? |
|
Definition
Pneumonia
severe exacerbation of COPD req hospitalization
new-onset CHF
pneumothorax |
|
|
Term
| High-resolution chest CT is useful in evaluating what causes of dyspnea? |
|
Definition
PE
interstitial lung disease |
|
|
Term
| Elevated BNP levels are sensitive and specific for ____________ in symptomatic persons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients with hypoxemia should be immediately provided supplemental oxygen unless significant ___________ is present |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common causes of acute cough: |
|
Definition
Acute respiratory tract infection
asthma
AR
CHF |
|
|
Term
| Cough due to acute respiratory tract infection resolve with ____ weeks in >90% of pts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prevalance of ___________ approaches 20% when cough persists beyond 3 wks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you suspect when cough is accompanied by unexplained wt loss, fevers, and night sweats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a pt with a cough, when should you consider getting a CXR done? |
|
Definition
when the pt shows abnormal vital signs or
has a chest exam suggestive of pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| What are some common causes of persistant cough? |
|
Definition
postnasal drip syndrome
asthma
GERD
Chr bronchitis
Bronchiectasis
TB or other chr infection
interstitial lung diseases
bronchiogenic carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| In a pt with a persistant cough and excessive mucus secretions, you should suspect... |
|
Definition
chronic bronchitis in a smoker or
bronchiectasis in pt with Hx of recurrent or complicated pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| __________ is not commonly reported among pts with persistant cough |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a pt with persistant cough, a CXR is indicated when what other causes are ruled out? |
|
Definition
ACE inhibitor therapy
post-infectious cough |
|
|
Term
| Which tests confirm Pertussis? |
|
Definition
polymerase chain rxn tests and
Cx from a nasopharnygeal swab |
|
|
Term
Suspected Condition - Empiric Txt - Dx testing
Postnasal drip - __________________ - ENT referral/sinus scan |
|
Definition
| therapy for allergy or chronic sinusitis |
|
|
Term
Suspected Condition - Empiric Txt - Dx testing
Asthma - B2 - _______________ |
|
Definition
| spirometry, consider methacholine challenge if normal |
|
|
Term
Suspected Condition - Empiric Txt - Dx testing
GERD - PPI - __________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Suspect _________ when an acute cough is accompanied by vital sign abnormalities (tachycardia, tachypnea, fever) or findings suggestive of airspace consolidation (rales, dec breath sounds, fremitus, egophony) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| expectoration of blood that originates below the vocal cords |
|
|
Term
| Massive hemoptysis is defined as... |
|
Definition
| >200-600mL in 24 hrs or any amt that is hemodynamically significant or threatens ventilation |
|
|
Term
| If hemoptysis is coming from the airways, it is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
chronic bronchitis
bronchiectasis
bronchogenic carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| If hemoptysis is coming from the pulmonary vasculature, it is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
LVF
Mitral stenosis
pulmonary emboli
AV malformations |
|
|
Term
| If hemoptysis is coming from the pulmonary parenchyma, it is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
Pneumonia
inhalation of crack cocaine
autoimmune dz (Goodpasture's dz, Wegner's granulomatosis) |
|
|
Term
| If hemoptysis is from an iatrogenic hemorrhage, it is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
transbronchial lung biopsies
anticoagulation
pulmonary artery rupture due to distal placement of a balloon-tipped catheter |
|
|
Term
| Which labs/tests should be performed when evaluating hemoptysis? |
|
Definition
CXR
CBC w/ plt ct
renal fxn tests
UA
coagulation studies
flexible bronchoscopy
high-res CT of chest |
|
|
Term
| Flexible bronchoscopy reveals endobronchial cancer in ____% of pts with hemoptysis who have a non-laterizing CXR |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Uncontrollable hemoptysis hemorrhage warrants: |
|
Definition
| rigid bronchoscopy and surgical consultation |
|
|
Term
| Causes of acute bronchitis |
|
Definition
Influenza virus
Mycoplasma Pneumonia
Chlamydia Pneumonia
Bordetella pertussis |
|
|
Term
Early phase of asthma is ____ mediated
Late phase is associated with ____________ release |
|
Definition
IgE (assc with c histamine release from mast cells)
C cytokine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a severe obstruction lasting for several days |
|
|
Term
| What breath sounds do you hear in mild, moderate and severe asthma? |
|
Definition
mild: expiratory wheezes
Moderate: expiratory and inspiratory wheezing
severe: diminished breath sounds and no wheezing |
|
|
Term
| What are the DDx for asthma? |
|
Definition
CHF
COPD
upper airway obstruction from foreign body
tumor
laryngeal edema
carcinoid tumors (stridor) |
|
|
Term
| Mild intermittent asthma: |
|
Definition
sxs 2 or less times a wk
asymptomatic and norm PEF btwn exacerbations
exacerbations are brief (hrs to days)
intensity may vary |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sxs >2 times/wk but < 1x/d
exacerbations may affect activity |
|
|
Term
| Moderate persistent asthma: |
|
Definition
daily sxs
daily use of inhaled short acting B2 agonist
exacerbations affect activity
exacerbations 2+ times/wk
may last days |
|
|
Term
| Severe persistent asthma: |
|
Definition
continual symptoms
limited physical activity
frequent exacerbations |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hx of cigarette smoking
Chr cough and sputum production (in chr bronchitis)
dyspnea (in emphysema)
rhonchi, dec intensity of breath sounds
prolonged expiration on physical examination
airflow limitation on PFTs that is not fully reversible and most often progressive |
|
|
Term
| What two dz grouped together are the 4th leading cause of death in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clinical Dx of chronic bronchitis is defined by... |
|
Definition
excessive secretion of bronchial mucus
daily productive cough for 3+ mths in at least 2 consecutive yrs |
|
|
Term
| Clinical Dx of emphysema is defined by... |
|
Definition
| abnormal permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, w/ destruction of their walls and w/o obvious fibrosis |
|
|
Term
| ____% of smokers will develop progressively disabling sxs in their 40s and 50s |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What % of COPD pts have significant exposure to tobacco smoke? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Distinctive features of bronchietasis are: |
|
Definition
recurrent pneumonia and hemoptysis
digital clubbing
radiographic abnormalities |
|
|
Term
| COPD Survival is directly proportional to the # of hrs/day of ____________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most important pharmalogic agent for the management of pts with COPD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 most commonly prescribed bronchodilators for the txt of COPD? |
|
Definition
1. Iprotropium bromide (preferred)
2. SAB2 agonist (albuterol, metaproterenol)
work better together (at submaximal) then either alone |
|
|
Term
| What are the requirements for lung transplantation? |
|
Definition
severe lung dz
limited ADLs
exhaustion of medical therapy
ambulatory status
potential for pulmonary rehab
limited life expectancy w/o transplant
adequate fxn of other organs
good social support system |
|
|
Term
| Surgical procedures for advanced COPD: |
|
Definition
1. lung transplantation
2. Lung Volume Reduction surgery
3. Bullectomy |
|
|
Term
What is the median survival of pts with severe COPD
(FEV1 <1 L)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Radiographic finding of _________________ are: dilated, thickened airways and scattered, irregular opacities
"tram-tracks" or ring-like markings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________________ causes 1/2 the cases of bronchiectasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which sxs occur in 75% of pts with bronchiectasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the diagnostic study of choice for bronchiectasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some complications of bronchiectasis? |
|
Definition
Hemoptysis
Cor pulmonale
amyloidosis
secondary visceral abscesses at distant sites |
|
|
Term
| _______________ is a nonspecific inflammation of terminal bronchioles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In infants and children _________ is usually caused by RSV or adenovirus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference btwn bronchiolitis in adults and children? |
|
Definition
in children its usually severe and acute
in adults its usually chronic and frequently progressive |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 pathological variants of bronchiolitis? |
|
Definition
1. constructive (hypertrophy causing obstruction)
2. proliferative (polyps partially or completely obstruct bronchioles) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cryptogenic organizing pneumonitis |
|
|
Term
| How does BOOP usually present? |
|
Definition
Dry cough, dyspnea and flu-like sxs from days to mths
fever and wt loss
crackles in most, wheezing in 1/3
|
|
|
Term
| CXR w/ patchy, bilateral, ground glass or alveolar infiltrates is indicative of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What may be necessary to Dx COP/BOOP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to treat COP/BOOP? |
|
Definition
| corticosteroids (in 2/3rds of cases) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common etiologic agent in pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In _____% of cases of pneumonia the specific cause is unknown. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which forms of pneumonia are assc with a higher mortality risk? |
|
Definition
aspiration
post obstructive
gram neg
staph aureus |
|
|
Term
| Which Abx are used for community acquired pneumonia? |
|
Definition
clarithromycin
doxycyline
levofloxacin |
|
|
Term
| Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Viruses and Coxiella Burnetii cause ____________ pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| S. Pnemo, H. Flu, S. Aureus, Klebisiella, other gram neg bacilli and anaerobes cause ___________ pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What will you notice on physical exam in a pt with pleural effusions? |
|
Definition
| chest is dull to percussion and breath sounds are decreased |
|
|
Term
| What will you notice on physical exam in a pt with interstitial infiltrates? |
|
Definition
| crackles on auscultations |
|
|
Term
| What will you notice on physical exam in a pt with evidence of consolidation? |
|
Definition
dull to percussion
egophony |
|
|
Term
| What are some extrapulmonary findings of pneumonia? |
|
Definition
Altered mental status
altered consciousness
recent seizures (suggest aspiration pneumonia)
periodontal dz (anaerobic inf)
absent gag reflex (bacteriodes species)
encephalitis (legionella) |
|
|
Term
| What is the GOLD STANDARD for Dx of pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which meds may cause pneumonia-like sxs? |
|
Definition
Nitrofurantoin
amiodarone |
|
|
Term
| Criteria for Hosp Admission for Pneumonia |
|
Definition
- Inability to take oral meds
-Multilobar involvement
-Severe vital sign abnormality(pulse>125/min, stolic BP <90, resp >30min)
-Acute mental status changes
-Arterial hypoxemia (room air O2 <60)
-Severe acute electrolyte, metabolic, or hematologic abns (Na <130, Hct <30%, Neutrophils <1000, BUN>50, SrCreat>2.5)
-Acute comorbidities |
|
|
Term
| Abx for strep pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
PCN or Amoxicillin
unless it has PCN-resistance then, Vanc or ceftriaxone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 2nd or 3rd gen Cephalosporins or doxy |
|
|
Term
| Abx for Moraxella catarrhalis? |
|
Definition
2nd or 3rd gen cephalosporins or bactrim
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abx for Enterobacteriacease (E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterobacter)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| macrolides w/ or w/o Rifampin |
|
|
Term
| Abx for Mycoplasma or Chlamydia pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
| Doxycycline, macrolides, FQs |
|
|
Term
| Abx for Chlamydia psittaci? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Systemic manifestations of pulmonary TB |
|
Definition
fever (50-80%)
malaise
wt loss
night sweats |
|
|
Term
| Which symptom, if present, in TB is an ominous feature seen with widespread advanced disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fatalies from TB occur from what? |
|
Definition
wasting
hemorrhage
respiratory failure |
|
|
Term
| For Dx of TB, when should sputum be collected? |
|
Definition
in the morning
preferrably 3 consecutive mornings |
|
|
Term
| What is the characteristic lesion in TB? |
|
Definition
| granulomatoma - aggregations of inflammatory cells, principally macrophages |
|
|
Term
| Caseation necrosis is a prominent feature of what disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A Mantoux test is used to check for what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Combinations of isoniazid, rifampin and pyridoxine are often given to treat ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| mycobacterium tuberculosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| BCG (not in this country) |
|
|
Term
| What are some lab abnormalities seen with TB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment regimens for TB infection? TB disease? |
|
Definition
TB infection - INH qd for 9 mos
TB disease - INH, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide and ethambutol or streptomycin, one pill of each, qd, for 6 mos |
|
|
Term
| what percentage of solitary pulmonary nodules, "coin lesions" carry a significant risk of malignancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Four major cell types of Lung CA |
|
Definition
NSCLC
squamous cell carcinoma, assc w/ cigarettes
adenocarcinoma, most common
large-cell carcinoma
SCLC
small-cell lung carcinoma, worst, assc with cigarettes |
|
|
Term
| Lung CA type -- cell of origination |
|
Definition
squamous cell -- epithelium of proximal airway
Adenocarcinoma -- goblet cells in major bronchi
small cell -- oat cell, intermediate and combined cell types |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
NSCLC - surgery, possible radiation
SCLC - chemo |
|
|
Term
| Definitions of sarcoidosis |
|
Definition
1. a noncaseous or nonnecrotizing granuloma
2. cause is unknown
3. systemic disease
4. should have clinical consistency |
|
|
Term
| Where can sarcoidosis manifest? |
|
Definition
| lymph nodes, lungs, liver, spleen, eyes, bones, salivary and lacrimal glands, CNS, skin and heart |
|
|
Term
| Most pts with PE present with a combo of what sxs? |
|
Definition
dysnpea
pleuritic CP
tachypnea |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common EKG finding in pts with PE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What comprises Virchow's triad? |
|
Definition
hypercoagulable state
endothelial injury
local stasis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a lung disease caused by inhalation of inorganic dust. Toxic fumes, gases and heavy metals may also cause inhalation lung injury. |
|
|
Term
| The four major causes of pneumoconiosis are: |
|
Definition
Asbestos
coal dust
silica
beryllium |
|
|
Term
| A reticulonodular pattern seen on CXR is indicative of what? |
|
Definition
| coal worker's pneumonconiosis w/ concurrent cigarette smoking |
|
|
Term
| Ferrunginous bodies are associated with... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In young, otherwise healthy individuals, pleuritis is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
| viral resp infections or pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| pleural effusions: 5 possible pathophysiologic processes |
|
Definition
1. inc production of fluid in the setting of normal caps due to inc hydrostatic or dec oncotic pressure (transudates)
2. inc production of fluid to abn cap permeability (exudates)
3. dec lymphatic clearance of fluid from pleural space (exudates)
4. infection in the pleural space (empyema)
5. bleeding into the pleural space (hemothorax) |
|
|
Term
| A pleural friction rub indicates ______________ or _______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 2 most common causes of the exudative effusion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A pH below ______ suggests the need for drainage of the pleural effusions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| round or oval fluid collections in fissures that resemble intraparenchymal masses |
|
|
Term
| Between ___% and ___% of exudative pleural effusions are malignant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common underlying disease responsible for secondary pneumothorax is... |
|
Definition
| obstructive airway disease |
|
|
Term
| What is catamenial pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
| a pneumothorax that recurs at menstrual periods |
|
|
Term
| which type of pneumothorax is life threatening? |
|
Definition
tension
usually a complication of mechanical ventilation or other secondary pneumothoraces |
|
|
Term
| Physical signs of pneumothorax: |
|
Definition
hyperresonance on percussion
diminished or absent tactile fremitus and breath sounds |
|
|
Term
| Chest tube drainage is preferred for which types of pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
tension
hydropneumothorax
hemopneumothorax
and pneumothorax with underlying pulmonary dz |
|
|
Term
| Where do you insert needles or catheter for pneumothorax correction? |
|
Definition
| the second anterior intercostal space in the midclavicular line |
|
|
Term
| Pts with a pneumothorax usually present with which 3 sxs? |
|
Definition
pleuritic CP
tachypnea
tachycardia |
|
|
Term
| What is the triad of sxs seen in tension pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
dec breath sounds
hypotension
JVD
(you may also see tracheal deviation) |
|
|
Term
| What is the best way to Dx a pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemothorax is usually due to what? |
|
Definition
| injury to the chest wall, great vessels or lung |
|
|
Term
| What is recommended for a massive hemothorax? |
|
Definition
| Immediate tube thoracostomy |
|
|
Term
| What is Mendelson syndrome? |
|
Definition
| acute aspiration of gastric contents |
|
|
Term
| Acute aspiration of gastric contents can cause... |
|
Definition
| significant lung injury by acid corrosion, bronchial obstruction or bacterial pneumonia from chemical pneumonitis |
|
|
Term
Doppler echocardiography is an effective way to estimate pulmonary artery pressure if ___________________is suspected |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Apnea is defined as the complete cessation of airflow for ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a significant decrease in airflow |
|
|
Term
| Apneas and hypopneas can be increased in frequency and duration to the degree that they fragment sleep and produce clinically significant ____________ and _____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Central Sleep apnea is caused by... |
|
Definition
| decreased central respiratory drive |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the consequences of sleep apnea? |
|
Definition
daytime somnolence
increased risk for MVA
Irritability
HA
HTN
increase in sudden death, probably from arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
| What are some abnormal upper airway anatomy that can contribute to obstructive sleep apnea? |
|
Definition
enlarged tonsils
macroglossia
a long soft palate and uvula
micrognathia |
|
|
Term
| During airway occlusion in sleep apnea, there is an increase in sympathetic tone producing __________ and __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Periods of hypoxia, caused by sleep apnea, can lead to _____________ and __________________. |
|
Definition
| bradycardia and cardiac arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
| There is an increased incidence of __________ and ________ in pts with obstructive sleep apnea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you establish a Dx of sleep apnea? |
|
Definition
overnight polysomnography
airflow, O2 sat, and respiratory, eye, chin and limb mvt are recorded |
|
|
Term
| Which meds should sleep apnea pts be counseled against? |
|
Definition
| sedatives, bc they depress ventilatory drive to some degree |
|
|
Term
| Which rare causes of sleep apnea need to be ruled out? |
|
Definition
Hypothyroidism
acromegaly
amyloidosis |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 major functions of respiration? |
|
Definition
| add O2 and remove CO2 from the blood |
|
|
Term
| What is acute respiratory failure? |
|
Definition
| the relatively sudden decline in either or both of the functions of respiration |
|
|
Term
1. Ventilation/perfusion mismatch
2. Alveolar hypoventilation
3. right to left shunt
4. decreased inspired O2 tension
These are the 4 causes of ______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________________ is required to correct Hypoxemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When mechanical ventilation is used on hypercapnic pts, the goal is to keep the pH between... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of CP does angina pectoris normally cause? |
|
Definition
| episodic CP or discomfort during exertion or stress |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when a pt clenches their fist over their chest while describing chest discomfort |
|
|
Term
| Anginal discomfort or CP is classically located where? |
|
Definition
| substernally or over the left chest |
|
|
Term
| Anginal discomfort or CP frequently radiates where? |
|
Definition
| to the epigastrium, neck, jaw or back and down the ulnar aspect of the left arm |
|
|
Term
| Angina ususally lasts ______ and is relieved by ______ or _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does angina more frequently occur? |
|
Definition
in the AM
in cold weather
after a large meal
or after exposure to environmental factors |
|
|
Term
| Anginal pain is frequently accompanied by... |
|
Definition
| dyspnea, diaphoresis, nausea, palpitations or lightheadness |
|
|
Term
| When does unstable angina occur? |
|
Definition
| when a pt reports a significant increase in the frequency or severity of angina or when angina occurs with progressively decreasing exertion or at rest |
|
|
Term
| When anginal pain occurs mainly at rest and results from coronary spasm we call it.... |
|
Definition
| Prinzmetal's or Variant angina |
|
|
Term
| Since the pain of angina and acute MI may be similar, what features distinguish the two? |
|
Definition
| the pain is usually more severe and prolonged, >30 mins, with MI -- and NTG does not relieve it |
|
|
Term
| Dyspnea frequently occurs on exertion, however, in pts with _____________________, it may be present at rest |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In pts with cardiac disease, what causes dyspnea? |
|
Definition
vascular congestion caused by dec LV function
(the vascular congestion impairs gas exchange and results in exudation of fluid into the alveolar space) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
an increase in dyspnea upon laying down
(augmented venous return that occurs assuming the recumbent position) |
|
|
Term
| What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea? |
|
Definition
| when a pt wakes up 2-4 hrs after the onset of sleep with dyspnea |
|
|
Term
| What is the likely cause of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea? |
|
Definition
| the central redistribution of peripheral edema in the supine position |
|
|
Term
| True paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is more specific to ___________ disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major causes of aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
bicuspid aortic valve
rheumatic fever
degenerative stenosis |
|
|
Term
| The most common congenital cardiac abnormality affects the... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Over the years, aortic stenosis can cause... |
|
Definition
| left ventricular hypertrophy |
|
|
Term
| What are the cardinal symptoms of aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
angina
syncope
dyspnea
CHF |
|
|
Term
| The mean survival rate, in pts with aortic stenosis, after the onset of symptoms is ____ for those pts with CHF |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mean survival rate, in pts with aortic stenosis, after the onset of symptoms is ____ for those pts with syncope |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mean survival rate, in pts with aortic stenosis, after the onset of symptoms is ____ for those pts with angina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A harsh, crescendo-decrescendo murmur is associated with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard where? |
|
Definition
| over the right upper sternal border and often radiates to the neck |
|
|
Term
| What is pulsus parvus et tardus? |
|
Definition
| when the carotid pulse is diminished in intensity and delayed because of aortic stenosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important diagnostic test to determine the cause of aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What valve area defines critical aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A normal aortic valve are measures ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major causes of aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
bicuspid aortic valve
aortic dissection
endocarditis
rheumatic fever
aortic root dilation |
|
|
Term
| Aortic regurgitation is commonly a consequence of degenerative and ____________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does the left ventricle dilate and hypertrophy because of aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
| bc its trying to maintain normal effective forward flow and minimize wall stress |
|
|
Term
| What symptoms are associated with aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
dyspnea on exertion
orthopnea
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
chest or head pounding
fatigue or weakness |
|
|
Term
| Why does the pulse pressure widen with aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
| bc of the runoff of blood back into the left ventricle |
|
|
Term
| What is Corrigan's disease or water-hammer pulse? |
|
Definition
| bounding arterial pulse with a rapid upstroke and quick collapse |
|
|
Term
| The murmur of ________________ is a high pitched, decrescendo diastolic murmur best heart at the lower left sternal border with the pt sitting up and leaning forward. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an Austin Flint murmur? |
|
Definition
| a low pitched, diastolic murmur |
|
|
Term
| ________________ is the primary tool to monitor the progression of aortic regurgitation and optimize the timing of surgery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For moderate to severe aortic regurgitation what medications are recommended? |
|
Definition
| Vasodilators, like nifedipine and ACEIs, bc these agents unload the Left ventricle |
|
|
Term
| Acute aortic regurgitation is a ______________ that often requires immediate surgical intervention. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
infective endocarditis,
traumatic rupture of the aortic leaflets,
aortic root dissection and
acute dysfunction of a prosthetic valve
can all cause which type of heart valve dysfunction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does acute aortic regurgitation occur? |
|
Definition
| bc the left ventricle is unable to dilate anymore to accommodate the increased diastolic volume |
|
|
Term
| Pts with acute aortic regurgitation exhibit the symptoms of _______________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The murmur of ___________________ is low pitched and short, and an S3 gallop is often present. |
|
Definition
| acute aortic regurgitation |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment of choice for acute aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major cause of mitral stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If mitral stenosis is not corrected, then irreversible changes in the pulmonary vasculature may occur and signs and symptoms of ________ may develop. |
|
Definition
| Right ventricular heart failure |
|
|
Term
| At what age do pts with mitral stenosis caused by rheumatic fever usually start to exhibit symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most common symptoms of mitral stenosis caused by rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Ortner's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| when the left recurrent laryngeal nerve gets compressed from a severely dilated left atrium (from mitral stenosis) and hoarseness results |
|
|
Term
| The characteristic low pitched rumbling murmur of ___________ is best heard at the left ventricular apex with the pt in the left lateral decubitus position. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________________ is the most useful tool for the pathologic assessment of mitral stenosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A hockey stick deformity, or doming, refers to what heart deformity? |
|
Definition
| rheumatic deformity of the anterior mitral valve leaflet |
|
|
Term
| Normal mitral valve area is _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Critical mitral stenosis is defined as a valve area... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____________ control is imperative in the treatment of mitral stenosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major causes of chronic mitral regurgitation? |
|
Definition
mitral valve prolapse
left ventricular dilation
posterior wall MI
rheumatic fever
endocarditis |
|
|
Term
| What are the major causes of acute mitral regurgitation? |
|
Definition
posterior wall or papillary mm ischemia
papillary mm or chordal rupture
endocarditis
prosthetic valve dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| Mitral regurgitation can result from abnormalities in what aspects of the valve? |
|
Definition
the leaflets
the annulus
the chordae
or the papillary mm |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common leaflet abnormality resulting in chronic mitral regurgitation? |
|
Definition
myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valves
which progresses as the chordae become elongated and rupture |
|
|
Term
| _______________ characteristically produces a holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex and radiates to the axilla and back |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If mitral regurgitation is secondary to MVP, the a ______________ may also be heard during the murmur |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pts with known mitral regurg should be followed with yearly studies to monitor LV function and size so that surgery can be performed before irreversible ___________ damage and __________________ occur. |
|
Definition
| myocyte damage and LV remodeling |
|
|
Term
| If a patient with mitral regurg develops A fib or pulm HTN it may indicated a need for earlier __________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| its a prosthetic ring that can be sewn into annulus of a heart valve to reduce the size of the orifice |
|
|
Term
| What is the procedure of choice to repair mitral regurgitation? |
|
Definition
| mitral valve repair in all pts in whom it technically feasible. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major causes of tricuspid regurgitation? |
|
Definition
functional annular dilation
tricuspid valve prolapse
endocarditis |
|
|
Term
| In the absence of _____________, tricuspid regurgitation is usually well tolerated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| JVD and a prominent V wave are usually present in which valve disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A high pitched, pansystolic murmur best heard along the sternal border is associated with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of the population has mitral valve prolapse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which murmur is a midsystolic click, followed by a late systolic murmur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dx of mitral valve prolapse is confirmed by ___________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tricuspid stenosis is most often __________ in origin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pts with tricuspid stenosis generally exhibit symptoms of right ventricular heart failure such as... |
|
Definition
fatigue
abd bloating
peripheral edema |
|
|
Term
| pulmonic stenosis is often ___________ in origin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pulmonic regurgitation is often secondary to ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The murmur of ____________________ is a high pitched, blowing murmur best heard at the 2nd left intercostal space.
Its also called a _______________ murmur. |
|
Definition
pulmonic regurgitation
Graham Steel |
|
|
Term
| prophylaxis for rheumatic fever should be continued for __________ after the primary illness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Multivalvular disease is common in which type of pts? |
|
Definition
| pts with rheumatic heart disease and in the elderly |
|
|
Term
| Acute rheumatic fever is a sequela of __________________________ |
|
Definition
| group A B-hemolytic strep |
|
|
Term
| In which age group does acute rheumatic fever occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acute rheumatic fever usually presents as an... |
|
Definition
| acute febrile illness 2-4 wks after a strep pharyngitis |
|
|
Term
| What are the major criteria for acute rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
carditis
polyarthritis
chorea
erythema marginatum
subcutaneous nodules |
|
|
Term
| What are the minor criteria for acute rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
fever
arthralgia
previous rheumatic fever
or known rheumatic heart disease |
|
|
Term
| Dx of acute rheumatic fever can be made if ____ major criteria are met OR ____ major and ____ minor are present after a recent, documented strep pharyngitis |
|
Definition
2 major
OR
1 major and 2 minor |
|
|
Term
| What can you use for rheumatic fever prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
1.2 million U of benzathine PCN monthly
OR
oral PCN or erythromycin |
|
|
Term
| What do you need to control to prevent further progression of arteriosclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do statins help hypercholesterolemia? |
|
Definition
| they lower LDL with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| How does niacin help hypercholesterolemia? |
|
Definition
| increases HDL, decreases hepatic LDL and VLDL, decreases hepatic TG esterification |
|
|
Term
| Three of the processes that contribute to the initiation and progression of atherosclerosis are... |
|
Definition
accumulation of lipoproteins
endothelial injury and
inflammation |
|
|
Term
| If the atherosclerotic plaque is covered with a __________________ rupture is less likely, but the plaque can inc in size. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Temporary myocardial ischemia, "angina", is usually secondary to _______________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a pt with angina, the ECG is normal in what percentage of people? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acute coronary syndrome includes: _________, __________ and __________. |
|
Definition
unstable angina
NSTEMI
STEMI |
|
|
Term
| The distinction btwn unstable angina, and NSTEMI can only be made after the results of the _______________ are available |
|
Definition
| serum cardiac enzyme analyses |
|
|
Term
| AMI usually begins at _______, worsens __________ and persists for _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CK-MB levels elevate within _____ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CK-MB peaks within _____ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CK-MB returns to baseline in _____ days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Troponin sr levels elevate within ______ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Troponin sr levels peak at _____ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Troponin sr levels return to baseline ____ days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Myoglobin elevates in ____ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Myoglobin levels peak within ____ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Myoglobin levels return to normal in ______ hrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The 2 most current methods for therapy for AMI are: |
|
Definition
thrombolytics and
coronary intervention (stenting is the procedure of choice) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
CBC
SrCr, BUN
electrolyte panel
PT, PTT, INR
blood typing, cardiac enzymes
ABG, CRP, homocysteine
fasting lipid panel |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 ways a coronary artery can become obstructed? |
|
Definition
1. artherosclerosis
2. thrombus
3. spasm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
dysnpea
weakness
diaphoresis
NVD
confusion
feeling of impending doom |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
angina, MVP, dissecting AA
cocaine induced CP, musculoskeletal factors
rib fracture, nerve root compression
bacterial PE, anxiety disorder, esophagitis
spontaneous pneumothorax
cholocystitis, cholelithiasis |
|
|
Term
| How soon after arrival does a pt with AMI have to receive a thrombolytic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When O2 demands increase in the setting of limited myocardial O2 supply, ____________ results. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Prolonged ischemia may produce
_______________,
_______________, or even ______. |
|
Definition
myocardial stunning
hibernation or even MI |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of patients with acute MI have no symptoms or atypical symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The initial ECG in a pt with suspected MI is nondiagnostic in what percentage of pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides AMI, why else might CKMB be elevated? |
|
Definition
extensive skeletal mm injury or disease
chronic renal disease
hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
| Which cardiac enzyme is the most sensitive and specific for myocyte necrosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cardiac arrhythmias result from disorders of what 2 things? |
|
Definition
impulse formation
and/or
impulse conduction |
|
|
Term
| Cardiac arrhythmias: Disorders of impulse formation include... |
|
Definition
| enhanced or abnormal automaticity and triggered activity |
|
|
Term
| Cardiac arrhythmias: Disorders of impulse conduction include... |
|
Definition
| block with or without re-entry |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 cateogries that cardiac arrhythmias can be divided into? |
|
Definition
1. premature beats
2. bradyarrhythmias
3. tachyarrhythmias |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 different types of premature beats? |
|
Definition
atrial premature complexes
junctional premature complexes
ventricular premature complexes |
|
|
Term
| Bradyarrhythmias are usually the result of either ____________________ or ____________________ |
|
Definition
| sinus node dysfunction or AV block |
|
|
Term
| Tachyarrhythmias are divided into what 3 groups? |
|
Definition
supraventricular
ventricular
pre-excited tachycardias |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common complaints in a person with an arrhythmia? |
|
Definition
palpitations
presyncope, syncope
dizziness
CP
sxs of HF |
|
|
Term
| Skipped beats are likely to be the result of: |
|
Definition
| a premature atrial or ventricular beat |
|
|
Term
| Periods of rapid, irregular heart beats may be reflective of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pts with valvular heart disease or HTN will frequently develop what type of arrhythmia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The S2 may become widely or paradoxically split if a __________ develops during an arrhythmia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some diagnostic tests used for arrhythmias? |
|
Definition
Echocardiogram
Recording devices
Head-up tilt table testing
electrophysiologic study |
|
|
Term
| Ventricular Fib occurring in the absence of acute ischemia is likely to ______ and requires _______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which prescriptions have been known to cause arrhythmias? |
|
Definition
digoxin
theophylline
anti-arrhythmic agents
certain Abx |
|
|
Term
| Which nonprescription drugs have been known to cause arrhythmias? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which metabolic abnormalities have been known to cause arrhythmias? (4 Hs) |
|
Definition
hypokalemia
hypomagnesemia
hypoxia
hyperthyroidism |
|
|
Term
| What are some nonpharmalogical forms of treatment for arrhythmias? |
|
Definition
pacemakers
direct current cardioversion and defibrillation
radiofrequency catheter ablation and automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillators |
|
|
Term
| Long QT syndrome is defined as a QT >_____ms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do genetic mutations cause congenital forms of Long QT syndrome? |
|
Definition
| by altering the K and Na channels |
|
|
Term
| Congenital forms of Long QT syndrome may also be associated with ________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Long QT syndrome is associated with the development of a type of VT called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat torsades de pointes? |
|
Definition
| with IV magnesium (2-3mg) |
|
|
Term
| Why don't you use typical anti-arrhythmic meds to treat torsades de pointes? |
|
Definition
| bc they have a tendency to prolong the QT interval which would exacerbate the arrhythmia |
|
|
Term
| Short QT syndrome is associated with a high incidence of ______________________ and/or _________. |
|
Definition
| sudden cardiac death and/or A Fib |
|
|
Term
| How do you Dx short QT syndrome? |
|
Definition
| when the pt exhibits syncope and a corrected QT interval <320ms |
|
|
Term
| What is brugada syndrome? |
|
Definition
| the presence of ST segment elevation in V1-3 that is unrelated to ischemia, structural heart disease or electrolyte abnormalities. |
|
|
Term
| What are often the first symptoms in a pt with Brugada syndrome? |
|
Definition
| syncope and sudden cardiac death |
|
|
Term
| When does the polymorphic VT arrhythmia tend to occur in pts with Brugada syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Transient loss of consciousness and postural tone due to inadequate cerebral blood flow with prompt recovery without resuscitative measures is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Syncope is more likely to occur in pts with: |
|
Definition
known heart disease
Older men
younger women who are prone to vasovagal episodes |
|
|
Term
| Vasomotor Syncope may be due to what 2 things? |
|
Definition
excessive vagal tone
or
impaired control of peripheral circulation |
|
|
Term
| Orthostatic hypotension is common in which types of pts? |
|
Definition
the elderly
diabetics, or other pts with autonomic neuropathy
pts with blood loss or hypovolemia
or pts taking vasodilators, diuretics or adrenergic blockers |
|
|
Term
| How much does a pt's BP have to decrease when going from a supine to standing position in order for it to be considered orthostatic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some mechanical causes of cardiogenic syncope? |
|
Definition
aortic stenosis
pulmonary stenosis
hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
congenital lesions assc with pulm HTN or L to R shunting
LA myxoma obstructing the mitral valve |
|
|
Term
| What are some arrhythmic causes of cardiogenic syncope? |
|
Definition
disorders of automaticity like sick sinus syndrome
disorders of conduction like an AV block
tachyarrhythmias (esp VT, SVT)
|
|
|
Term
| What 4 things govern systolic function? |
|
Definition
1. contractile state of the myocardium
2. preload of ventricle
3. afterload applied to the ventricles
4. heart rate |
|
|
Term
| What can cause high output failure? |
|
Definition
thyrotoxicosis
severe anemia
AV shunting
Pagets
Thiamin deficiency |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary feature of Left heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Left sided heart failure leads to _____________ as the blood backs up into the lungs. |
|
Definition
| pulmonary venous congestions |
|
|
Term
| Left sided heart failure leads to pulmonary venous congestion which leads to pulmonary HTN which leads to what? |
|
Definition
| Right sided heart failure |
|
|
Term
| Right sided heart failure leads to what? |
|
Definition
| lower extremity edema, tender hepatomegaly and pleural effusions |
|
|
Term
| Diastolic cardiac dysfunction is more frequently caused by... |
|
Definition
| Left ventricular hypertrophy |
|
|
Term
| Left ventricular hypertrophy usually results from what? |
|
Definition
HTN
DM2
cardiomyopathies
pericardial dz |
|
|
Term
| What forms of heart failure are there? |
|
Definition
systolic/diastolic
high/low output
L/R sided
acute/chronic |
|
|
Term
| Systolic heart failure refers to the inability of the heart to __________ strongly enough to provide adequate blood flow to the periphery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary abnormality in idiopathic cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diastolic heart dysfunction occurs when there is abnormal ________________ of the myocardium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diastolic heart dysfunction is associated with what diseases? |
|
Definition
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
cardiac amyloidosis
sarcoidosis |
|
|
Term
| High output heart failure occurs when the heart is unable to meet abnormally _____________ metabolic demands of the peripheral tissues |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Low output heart failure is characterized by insufficient ____________________, both at rest and at times of increased metabolic demand |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| NY heart association classifications of heart failure: |
|
Definition
1. asymptomatic
2. symptomatic with moderate activity
3. symptomatic with slight activity
4. symptomatic at rest |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common heart failure symptom? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a pt with heart failure when does their cough worsen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which symptoms can occur with right sided heart failure? |
|
Definition
RUQ pain
loss of appetite
N
pulmonary edema |
|
|
Term
| A parasternal lift is indicative of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A diminished first heart sound is indicative of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tests are good for diagnosing heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which meds are known to worsen heart failure? |
|
Definition
CCBs
NSAIDs
Anti-arrhythmic agents |
|
|
Term
| What doses of Lasix are indicated in severe HF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which meds are used to treat HF? |
|
Definition
Lasix, Spironolactone
ACEI or ARBs
BB
Digitalis glycosides
Vasodilators (nitrates, nesiritide, hydralazine)
CCBs
Anticoagulation
|
|
|
Term
| What is Acute CHF caused by? |
|
Definition
extensive MI or severe ischemia
volume overload
arrhythmias
mitral stenosis
ventricular septal rupture |
|
|
Term
| What can cause acute CHF secondary to chronic CHF? |
|
Definition
d/c of meds
excessive salt intake
tachyarrhythmias
myocardial ischemia |
|
|
Term
| Myocarditis is usually caused by... |
|
Definition
a viral infection
coxsackievirus B and echovirus being the more common |
|
|
Term
| What may provide the most convient and thorough eval for myocarditis? |
|
Definition
| ECHO and serum viral titers |
|
|
Term
| What is the gold standard for Dx myocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pericardial friction rub may be heard if what is present? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 main lipids in the blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is familial hypercholestermia? |
|
Definition
| a condition in which the body is unable to remove LDL cholesterol from the blood, resulting in unregulated synthesis of LDL |
|
|
Term
| What occurs in pts with a Trig level >1000? |
|
Definition
| formation of eruptive xanthomas |
|
|
Term
| Very high LDL levels can result in xanthomas. Where are they located? |
|
Definition
| on tendons like the achilles, patellar or back of hand |
|
|
Term
| lipemia retinalis are seen with trig levels great than what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug is good at lowering LDL levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Soluble fiber, garlic, soy protein, vit C, pecans and plant sterols are all said to lower what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Intensity of drug therapy for high cholesterol should be to lower LDL by what percentage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What was the first lipid lowering drug to be assc with a dec in total mortality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does niacin effect cholesterol levels? |
|
Definition
dec in VLDL production
secondary dec in LDL and inc in HDL
dec TGs by 1/2 |
|
|
Term
| What is the main reason pts can't tolerated niacin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Niacin can exacerbate what other conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bile acid binding resins decrease LDL levels by what percentage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antihyperlipidemic agent can increase TGs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is the only antilipid that can be used in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fibric acid derivatives decrease TG by what percentage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pts with very high sr TG levels are at risk for what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what level of TGs is medication indicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypoglycemia can cause what symptoms? |
|
Definition
hypothermia HA
confusion bizarre behavior
visual distrubances seizures
lethargy syncope
coma |
|
|
Term
| At what sr glucose level can brain function become impaired? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| at what sr glucose level do symptoms begin to occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fasting hypoglycemia occurs in what pts? |
|
Definition
those with hypopituitarism, Addison's dz, myxedema
acute alcoholism, liver failure
renal failure |
|
|
Term
| When fasting hypoglycemia occurs in a pt w/o apparent endocrine or metabolic dz, what are the 2 Dx possibilities? |
|
Definition
1. hyperinsulinism
2. non-insulin-producing extrapancreatic tumor |
|
|
Term
| Early postprandial hypoglycemia is seen after what type of procedure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which drugs can cause hypoglycemia? |
|
Definition
sulfonylureas
insulins
quinine, quinidine
disopyramide
salicylates
ACEIs
gatifloxacin, pentamidine |
|
|
Term
| What blood pH level will a pt with lactic acidosis have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Accumulation of excess lactic acid in the blood can lead to ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The main feature of lactic acidosis is marked _________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A serum bicarb level in a pt with lactic acidosis is below what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Low bicarb and pH indicate the presence of severe metabolic ____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dx of lactic acidosis is confirmed by a plasma lactic acid concentration of what? |
|
Definition
| greater than or equal to 5 |
|
|
Term
What are the levels of the following in a pt with DKA?
glucose
sr bicarb
blood pH
|
|
Definition
glucose >250
bicarb <15
pH <7.3
|
|
|
Term
| DKA is the production of ketones during fat metabolism due to a lack of ____________ needed for glucose uptake |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DKA can occur during times of increased insulin requirements. What are some examples? |
|
Definition
infection
surgery
trauma
MI |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1+ dys of polydipsia/polyuria
marked fatigue
NV
mental stupor progressing to coma |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 categories of cardiomyopathies? |
|
Definition
dilated
hypertrophic
restrictive |
|
|
Term
| What is dilated cardiomyopathy characterized by? |
|
Definition
chamber enlargement and impaired systolic function (contractile) of one or both ventricles
etiology is unknown |
|
|
Term
| what is the most common type of cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is autosomal dominant in ____% of pts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by __________ hypertrophy, involving the Left ________________________. |
|
Definition
ventricular
ventricular septum |
|
|
Term
| Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy results in... |
|
Definition
| elevated diastolic pressures |
|
|
Term
| Arrhythmias are an important problem that can lead to sudden cardiac death in what type of cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____________ cardiomyopathy may progress to ______________ cardiomyopathy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some possible causes of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
HTN
familial
renal disease |
|
|
Term
| Pts with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy often present with... |
|
Definition
| dyspnea, CP, syncope and increased outflow obstruction |
|
|
Term
| A loud S4 is seen in which cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
| hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
|
|
Term
| Which drug improves diastolic function and reduce outflow obstruction by vasodilation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________________ cardiomyopathy is characterized by impaired diastolic filling but distinct in that early diastolic filling is accentuated rather than impaired. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With restrictive cardiomyopathy which sided heart failure dominates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is contractility increased or decreased in dilated cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pulmonary HTN is present with which type of cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which cardiomyopathy has a large ventricular cavity and which has a small one? |
|
Definition
Dilated -- large
hypertrophic, restrictive -- small |
|
|
Term
| How much serous fluid is normally btwn the inner visceral layer attached to teh epicardium and the parietal layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pericarditis CP may radiate where? |
|
Definition
| to the tip of the shoulder and to the neck |
|
|
Term
| What positions decrease CP caused by pericarditis? |
|
Definition
| sitting or leaning forward |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the assc symptoms of pericarditis? |
|
Definition
| fever, tachycardia, pulsus paradoxus, tamponade, ESR, leukocytosis, elevated ST, PR depression |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can increase the risk for pericarditis? |
|
Definition
procainamide
hydralazine
isoniazid |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common viral causes of pericarditis? |
|
Definition
HIV
Hepatitis
mumps
influenza
EBV
Echoviruses
coxsackie |
|
|
Term
| How does tuberculous pericarditis occur? |
|
Definition
| from direct lymphatic or hematogenous spread |
|
|
Term
| Name some forms of non-infectious pericarditis. |
|
Definition
uremic in RF w/ dialysis
Neoplastic - due to spread of lung CA
Post-MI
Radiation
RA, lupus, and drug-induced
myxedema |
|
|
Term
| Which areas of the body inc or dec catecholamines to produce vasodilation or vasoconstriction? |
|
Definition
| baroreceptors and adrenal glands |
|
|
Term
| When is it appropriate to treat HTN based on just one BP reading? |
|
Definition
| if there is evidence of acute target-organ damage (hypertensive crisis) |
|
|
Term
| what is pseudohypertension? |
|
Definition
| elderly pts with stiff, noncompliant, atheromatous arteries who appear to have HTN |
|
|
Term
| What percentage wt loss can decrease BP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what position is BP the lowest? highest? |
|
Definition
lowest - lateral decubitus
highest - standing |
|
|
Term
| Pregnancy induced HTN has a ______% incidence in multiple gestations and a ____% in pregnancies that proceed beyond the first trimester. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HTN in pregnancy is assc with... |
|
Definition
| abruptio placentae, hepatic rupture and preeclampsia,eclampsia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the dev of HTN w/ proteinuria and/or edema induced by pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| Eclampsia is preeclampsia with the presence of ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you give pts with worsening preeclampsia or severe preeclampsia or eclampsia? |
|
Definition
Mg Sulfate (to prevent convulsions)
Hydralazine first choice antihypertensive
Delivery |
|
|
Term
| For pregnant pts with chronic HTN, when do you give antiHTN therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antihypertensive medication is a good choice during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hyponatremia is defined as < _____ meq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common electrolyte abnormality in hospitalized pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 2 diseases can cause pseudohyponatremia? |
|
Definition
hyperlipidemia
hyperproteinemia |
|
|
Term
| What are some extra renal causes of salt loss? |
|
Definition
dehydration
diarrhea
vomiting |
|
|
Term
| Hypernatremia is a sr Na > ____ meq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Over how long a period of time you should admin fluids in a pt with hypernatremia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypokalemia is a sr K < ___ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the total content of K in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of hypokalemia? |
|
Definition
| GI loss due to infectious Diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important regulator of body K content? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______________ is an important cofactor for K uptake and for maintenance of intracellular K levels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some signs and symptoms of hypokalemia? |
|
Definition
mm weakness
fatigue
mm cramps
constipation
ileus |
|
|
Term
| What are some signs and symptoms of hypokalemia? |
|
Definition
flaccid paralysis
hyporeflexia
hypercapnia
tetany
rhabdomyolysis |
|
|
Term
| When you give IV K you are not to exceed ____ mEq/L an hour. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a pt with severe hypokalemia you need to check serum levels how often? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hyperkalemia - a serum K > ____ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Severe hyperkalemia is defined as > ____ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which drugs inhibit K excretion? |
|
Definition
spironolactone
ACEIs
ARBs
NSAIDs
Trimethoprim
Cyclosporine |
|
|
Term
| Burns, rhabdomyolysis, hemolysis, severe infection, internal bleeding and vigorous exercise can cause an increase in which electrolyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serum K conc rises ___ mEq/L for every decrease of 0.1 pH during acidosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What meds can you use to distribute K into cells? |
|
Definition
| IV Sodium Bicarb, insulin, albuterol |
|
|
Term
| Hypocalcemia is defined as ionized sr Ca <___ mg/dL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
mm cramps, tetany, laryngospasm w/ stridor, convulsions, parasthesia, abd pain
Chvostek's sign
Trousseau's sign
Vent arrhythmias
cataracts |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| contraction of facial mm when you tap on facial nn anterior to the ear |
|
|
Term
| What is Trousseau's sign? |
|
Definition
| Carpal spasm occurring after occlusion of brachial artery with BP cuff for 3 mins |
|
|
Term
| Hypomagnesia leads to low PTH which leads to low ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you use to treat severe hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
Calcium gluconate 10%
infusion of 10-15 Ca2
|
|
|
Term
Mild hypercalcemia is defined as ___ - ___ mg/dL
Severe hypercalcemia >___ mg/dL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypercalcemia usually becomes symptomatic when sr Ca levels reach what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia |
|
Definition
Constipation, polyuria
N, V
anorexia, PUD
renal colic, hematuria
mild drowsiness, weakness
depression, lethargy, stupor, coma |
|
|
Term
| hypercalcemia can cause nephrogenic __________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hypophosphatemia is defined as < ___ mg/dL for severe, and ___ to ___ mg/dL for moderate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do you want to make sure that you measure serum or plasma phosphorus? |
|
Definition
plasma
bc imbalances can occur with low, normal or high concentrations of phosphorus in serum |
|
|
Term
| Parental admin of phosphate can cause _________ so oral replacement is better |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In DKA hypophosphatemia is usually correct with normal __________ _________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______________ deficiency often coexists with hypophosphatemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phosphate salts can not be used in pts with what illnesses? |
|
Definition
hypoparathyroidism
renal insufficiency
tissue damage/necrosis
hypercalcemia |
|
|
Term
| Hyperphosphatemia is defined by a sr phosphorus level > _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main cause of hyperphosphatemia? |
|
Definition
| Chronic renal insufficiency |
|
|
Term
| What are some exogenous phosphate sources? |
|
Definition
excessive Vit D
laxatives or enemas containing phosphate
IV phosphate |
|
|
Term
| What are some endogenous sources of excessive phosphate? |
|
Definition
rhabdomyolysis
cell destruction by chemo
metabolic acidosis (lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis)
respiratory acidosis |
|
|
Term
| What conditions can cause pseudohyperphosphatemia? |
|
Definition
multiple myeloma
high Trigs
cell lysis |
|
|
Term
| Hypomagnesemia is defined as < ____ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The excretion of magnesium is related by what organ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Magnesium has physiologic effects on the ___________ resembling those of Calcium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Severe and prolonged Mg depletion impairs PTH secretion with consequent hypo___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are symptoms that hypokalemia, hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia have in common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What change can you see on an EKG in a pt with hypomagnesemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a pt has normal _______ function they shouldn't develop hypermagnesemia bc the __________ will dump the excess |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypermagnesemia is defined as > ____ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristic S/Sx of hypermagnesemia? |
|
Definition
| mm weakness, dec DTRs, mental obtundation, confusion |
|
|
Term
| What is a EKG finding seen in a pt with hypermagnesemia? |
|
Definition
| inc PR interval, broad QRS complex, peaked T wave |
|
|
Term
| Respiratory acid base disorders affect blood pH causing changes in _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Metabolic acid-base disorders affect blood pH by causing changes in ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Metabolic acidosis has an arterial pH < ____
and an arterial HCO3 < ___ mEq/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hyperkalemia is associated with which type of acid-base disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alcoholic ketoacidosis, Salicylate intox and methanol intoxication can cause which acid-base disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Metabolic acidosis has an arterial pH > ____ and a serum HCO3 > _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Severe metabolic acidosis requires _____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Respiratory acidosis is also known as _______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Respiratory acidosis has an arterial pH < ____
a sr PCO2 > _____ and
a sr HCO3 > _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can cause respiratory acidosis? |
|
Definition
opiod-induce CNS depression
acute respiratory failure
underying lung disease - COPD |
|
|
Term
| Respiratory alkalosis is also called _____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Respiratory alkalosis is a pH > ___, and a sr pCO2 < ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of respiratory alkalosis? |
|
Definition
| hyperventilation syndrome |
|
|
Term
| what is the best indicator of water balance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of gynecomastia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does fatty gynecomastia differ from glandular gynecomastia? |
|
Definition
fatty is typically diffuse and nontender
glandular is lumpy and may be tender |
|
|
Term
| You need to make sure you distinguish gynecomastia from what 2 other conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gynecomastia can be the first sign of which serious disorder? |
|
Definition
| Peutz-Jeghers syndrome -- prone to dev gynecomastia secondary to testicular tumors |
|
|
Term
| Why would you order a CXR in a pt with gynecomastia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does it usually take pubertal gynecomastia to resolve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you treat persistent or painful gynecomastia with? |
|
Definition
| estrogen receptor modulators -- raloxifene or tamoxifen |
|
|
Term
| Adults with a deficiency in GH experience what? |
|
Definition
asthenia
obesity and
Inc cardiac mortality |
|
|
Term
| Deficiency in LH and FSH causes... |
|
Definition
| hypogonadism and infertility in men and women |
|
|
Term
| About ___% of survivors of Subarachnoid hemorrhage develop at least 1 pituitary hormone deficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Kallmann's syndrome is the most common cause of congenital isolated ___________ deficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hypo________ often occurs after the removal of pituitary tumors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ADH deficiency or resistance causes central ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment of choice for diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diabetes incs risk of heart disease by ____times and that of stroke by ____ times |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DM2 goes undiagnosed on average for ______ yrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______________, a complication of DM, is the leading cause of blindness in middle-aged adults |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of ESRD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of non-traumatic amputation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 2 subtypes of DM2? |
|
Definition
Gestational DM
Maturity Onset Diabetes of Youth |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 main characteristics of MODY? |
|
Definition
1. diabetes usually presents at a young age, <25
2. autosomal dominant inheritance
3. do not always need insulin
4. do not produce enough insulin |
|
|
Term
| What are the microvascular complication of diabetes? |
|
Definition
retinopathy
nephropathy
neuropathy
DKA |
|
|
Term
| What are the macrovascular complications of diabetes? |
|
Definition
cardiovascular disease
coronary artery disease
dyslipidemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fast plasma glucose >126 on two separate occasions |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs mask hypoglycemia sxs? |
|
Definition
|
|