Term
The ITO is a composite visual and instrument takeoff. (B/1/1)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the situation where you would perform an ITO. (B/1/2)
a. Toward or over water
b. Night takeoffs
c. Desert areas
d. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After liftoff during an ITO, you should be committed to ______ due to the potential of spatial disorientation. (B/1/3)
a. normal takeoff procedures
b. composite takeoff procedures
c. attitude instrument flying procedures
d. departure procedures |
|
Definition
| Attitude instrument flying procedures |
|
|
Term
The gear is raised when the altimeter alone indicates a positive rate of climb. (B/1/4)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where would you normally look for a published departure? (B/2/1)
a. In the FLIP Terminal High and/or Low Altitude book that covers the state where the departure airfield’s located
b. In the IFR Supplement
c. In the Flight Information Handbook
d. Departure procedures are not available in any of the above documents |
|
Definition
| In the FLIP Terminal High and/or Low Altitude book that covers the state where the departure airfield's located |
|
|
Term
The symbol of the black inverted triangle with a “T” in the center means that you will need to use nonstandard weather takeoff minimums on departure in your T-6A. (B/2/2)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If your aircraft is given a different altitude by ATC than that depicted on the DP, consider the DP cancelled. (B/2/6)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Flying a DP, a controller gives you a heading that takes you off the DP/DP TRANSITION and does not provide any additional information. You should _______. (B/2/7)
a. expect to resume the DP
b. consider the DP cancelled
c. remain on the DP until the next altitude restriction is reached, then turn to the new heading
d. turn to the new heading, but level off at the DP’s next altitude restriction. |
|
Definition
| Consider the DP cancelled |
|
|
Term
The takeoff attitude for an ITO is ______.
a. a normal takeoff based on visual cues with transition to instruments at the same rate as loss of visual cues
b. established only by setting approximately 7-10° on the EADI and holding it constant as the aircraft becomes airborne
c. set by the aircraft trim
d. established by setting 11-15° on the EADI and holding it constant as the aircraft becomes airborne |
|
Definition
| a normal takeoff based on visual cues with transition to instruments at the same rate as loss of visual cues |
|
|
Term
During an ITO, retract the gear and flaps with a positive climb indication on the ______.
a. EADI pitch attitude and airspeed
b. EADI pitch attitude and altimeter
c. VSI and altimeter
d. VSI and airspeed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When will the procedures and techniques used in an ITO help maintain your situational awareness?
a. At night
b. Over water
c. Desert areas
d. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To ensure you are ready for an IFR departure, what should you have?
a. Current publications
b. Departure procedures
c. An ATC clearance and an understanding of the departure
d. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which item is NOT provided by a DP?
a. Communication frequencies
b. Departure route description
c. Radar vectors
d. Minimum rates of climb |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An instrument departure is a maneuver used to safely take the aircraft to the ______.
a. next altitude restriction
b. next controlling agency
c. next phase of flight
d. high altitude structure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A departure that has a published route and altitude restriction is called a ______.
a. radar vector departure
b. Departure Procedure
c. composite departure
d. VFR departure/IFR pickup |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A controller issues a clearance to “climb and maintain” or “maintain” an altitude different than on a DP. You continue to fly the DP route and ______.
a. resume the DP altitude restrictions
b. disregard all of the remaining DP altitude restrictions
c. ask the controller for clarifications on altitudes
d. expect radar vectors |
|
Definition
| disregard all of the remaining DP altitude restrictions |
|
|
Term
ATC will only issue an in-flight clearance if requested by the pilot. (B/1/1) a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When receiving a new in-flight clearance, you should read back any ______ the controller gives you.
(B/1/2)
a. weather information
b. altimeter settings
c. altitude and/or heading assignments
d. B and C |
|
Definition
| B and C (altimeter settings and altitude and/or heading assignments) |
|
|
Term
In a nonstandard holding pattern, all turns are made to the right. (B/2/1) a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Holding can be accomplished at ______. (B/2/3) a. a VOR
b. a VORTAC
c. an intersection
d. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following IS NOT an AIM holding entry procedure? (B/2/5)
a. Parallel entry
b. Standard entry
c. Teardrop entry
d. Direct entry |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You are established in a VOR holding pattern at 13,000 feet MSL. How long should the second
inbound leg be? (B/2/6)
a. 1½ miles
b. 2 miles
c. 1 minute
d. 1½ minutes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of clearance should you expect if you have major changes to your flight plan enroute?
a. A new ATC clearance
b. ATC will not accept any major changes to an enroute flight plan. c. You must land at the nearest field and refile your flight plan.
d. ATC will only change your altitude enroute. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When you are reading back a clearance to ATC, you should read back ______.
a. altitudes
b. altitude restrictions
c. headings
d. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What FLIP planning document contains specific information on maximum holding airspeeds, holding patterns, and how controllers will issue holding instructions?
a. IFR Supplement
b. Flight Manual
c. FLIP General Planning
d. Instrument approach plates |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When are you considered established in the holding pattern?
a. Once you cross the fix and turn inbound
b. After one complete turn in the holding pattern
c. Once you have established a wind corrected pattern
d. Upon initial passage of the holding fix |
|
Definition
| Upon initial passage of the holding fix |
|
|
Term
You were given clearance to hold enroute at an unpublished holding fix and the controller did not specify the direction of turn. What type of holding pattern will you fly and when would you begin to slow to holding airspeed?
a. Nonstandard and three minutes prior to the fix
b. Standard and three minutes prior to the fix
c. Standard and crossing the fix
d. Nonstandard and crossing the fix |
|
Definition
| Standard and three minutes prior to the fix |
|
|
Term
When do you begin timing outbound in a VOR holding pattern? a. Prior to crossing the fix
b. Prior to crossing the fix or when in your turn to the outbound leg c. 45° to the abeam position
d. Over or abeam the holding fix but if unable to determine the abeam position when wings-level outbound |
|
Definition
| Over or abeam the holding fix but if unable to determine the abeam position when wings-level outbound |
|
|
Term
Which of the following defines a nonstandard holding pattern?
a. Holding altitude is below 14,000 feet.
b. All turns are away from the holding side.
c. The holding fix is not co-located with the NAVAID.
d. The holding pattern consists of left-hand turns. |
|
Definition
| The holding pattern consists of left-hand turns. |
|
|
Term
For an AIM teardrop entry, turn ______ to a heading for a ______° teardrop entry on the holding side.
a. outbound; 30
b. outbound; 45
c. toward the holding fix; 30
d. left; 45 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After liftoff during an ITO, you should be committed to attitude instrument flying procedures due to the potential for ______. (B/1/1) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Before retracting gear and flaps, you should have indications of positive rate of climb on the ______. (B/1/2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which DP types should be flown to the maximum extent possible? (B/1/3) |
|
Definition
a. Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs)
b. Obstacle Departures (ODPs) |
|
|
Term
| ______ensure obstacle clearance at airfields which have published instrument approaches but no published instrument departures? (B/1/4) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True or false? AETC pilots are required to read back all in-flight clearance information. (C/1/1) |
|
Definition
| False. AETC Pilots are only required to read back numbers. Read back additional clearance information for clarification as necessary |
|
|
Term
| Holding fixes may be defined ______. (C/2/1) |
|
Definition
a. directly over a NAVAID (VOR/NDB)
b. using a radial and DME from a NAVAID
c. at a GPS Waypoint d. at a published intersection |
|
|
Term
| What are the three AIM holding entry procedures? (C/2/2) |
|
Definition
a. Parallel
b. Teardrop
c. Direct |
|
|
Term
| How fast do you transition to instrument references during an instrument takeoff (ITO)? What is the pitch attitude for an ITO? |
|
Definition
a. Transition at the rate outside references become unreliable.
b. Rotate to 7-10° nose high at 85 KIAS |
|
|
Term
| What are the only USAF methods of instrument departures? |
|
Definition
a. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) b. Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
c. ATC Departure Instructions d. Diverse Departure
e. Special MAJCOM Certification |
|
|
Term
| The maximum length of an inbound leg of a holding pattern above 14,000 feet MSL is ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the only difference in entry procedures for a nonstandard versus standard holding pattern? |
|
Definition
| Entry turns are made in the opposite direction |
|
|
Term
When performing an enroute descent you should specify the type of approach you desire. (B/1/1)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Performing a pilot discretion descent allows the pilot to ______. (B/1/2)
a. start the descent when the pilot chooses
b. use any rate of descent
c. level off at an intermediate altitude
d. do all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You are in a 4° descent angle and your airspeed is at .4 Mach. What is your VSI rate of descent? (B/1/3)
a. 800 fpm
b. 1200 fpm
c. 1400 fpm
d. 1600 fpm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Instrument penetration approaches are found in FLIP ______. (B/2/1)
a. Terminal High Altitude books
b. Terminal Low Altitude books
c. FLIP High Altitude Enroute Charts
d. FLIP Low Altitude Enroute Charts |
|
Definition
| Terminal High Altitude books |
|
|
Term
Can you fly a TACAN approach in the T-6A? (B/2/2)
a. Yes
b. No |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the penetration airspeed in the T-6A? (B/2/4)
a. 150 KIAS
b. 170 KIAS
c. 190 KIAS
d. 200 KIAS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If no penetration turn altitude is depicted on the approach plate, when will you begin your turn inbound on a non-DME teardrop penetration? (B/2/5) a. At twice the FAF altitude
b. At half the IAF altitude
c. At an altitude halfway between IAF and FAF altitude
d. After timing 15 seconds for each thousand feet between the IAF and FAF |
|
Definition
| At an altitude halfway between IAF and FAF altitude |
|
|
Term
You are cleared for a non-DME teardrop VOR penetration but are 3000 feet below the published IAF
altitude. How long will you time outbound before descending? (B/2/6) a. 15 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 45 seconds
d. 60 seconds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When flying a radial approach, as you pass the IAF ______. (B/2/7)
a. turn immediately in the longest direction toward the approach course
b. immediately configure the aircraft with gear, landing flaps, and slow to 110 KIAS
c. immediately reduce power to idle and establish a minimum descent gradient of 8°-10° nose-low
d. turn immediately in the shorter direction toward the approach course |
|
Definition
| turn immediately in the shorter direction toward the approach course |
|
|
Term
When flying high altitude radial/arc penetrations, you should calculate and use normal lead points to
complete required course/arc intercepts. (B/2/8)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What section of the approach plate provides a side view preview for the altitude restrictions?
a. Profile view
b. Plan view
c. Minima section
d. Aerodrome sketch |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The non-DME teardrop approach is usually associated with a ______ approach.
a. VOR/DME
b. VOR
c. TACAN
d. GPS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When flying a non-DME teardrop approach, you are required to maintain a pitch attitude ______
below the level flight picture for the penetration airspeed to ensure you remain within protected
airspace.
a. 3°- 5°
b. 5°- 8°
c. 8°-10°
d. 10°-12° |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When flying a radial approach if your heading is within ______ of the outbound penetration course,
you are not required to overfly the IAF and may use normal lead points to intercept the course.
a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 90°
d. 180° |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you have a 3 descent gradient, how much altitude have you lost in 1 nautical mile?
a. 100 feet
b. 300 feet
c. 500 feet
d. 600 feet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When flying a radial/arc approach, ______ you may begin your descent to the next applicable altitude
restriction.
a. once a lead point is reached AND a turn to the next approach segment is initiated
b. you must intercept the next approach segment before
c. once a lead point is reached
d. once a turn to the next approach segment is initiated |
|
Definition
| once a lead point is reached AND a turn to the next approach segment is initiated |
|
|
Term
You are 40 miles from Junction at FL310 at .5 Mach and are required to cross Junction at 15,000.
How will you determine your descent gradient?
a. Divide the number of miles to go (40) by your TAS in miles per minute (5). This provides your descent gradient in degrees (8).
b. Divide the amount of altitude you have to lose in thousands of feet (16) by your TAS in miles per
minute (5). This provides your descent gradient in degrees (3.2).
c. Divide the miles you have to go (40) by the altitude you have to lose in thousands of feet (16).
This provides your descent gradient in degrees (2.5).
d. Divide the altitude you have to lose in hundreds of feet (160) by the number of miles you have to
go (40). This provides your descent gradient in degrees (4). |
|
Definition
Divide the altitude you have to lose in hundreds of feet (160) by the number of miles you have to
go (40). This provides your descent gradient in degrees (4). |
|
|
Term
If you are using a feeder facility to an IAF and are cleared for the approach, you are considered established on the approach. (B/1/1)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What airspeed do you maintain prior to configuring when flying a low altitude approach in the T-6A? (B/1/2)
a. 110 - 140 KIAS
b. 120 - 150 KIAS
c. 150 - 175 KIAS
d. 175 - 200 KIAS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The “barb” on a procedure turn means that your turn is made opposite the maneuvering side. (B/2/3)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When executing a 45/180 procedure turn maneuver, turn on the maneuvering side 45° away from the outbound course, time for ______ minute(s), then turn 180° in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound course. (B/2/4)
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When would you not execute a procedure turn? (B/2/5)
a. The procedure turn barb is depicted.
b. Radar vectors to final are unavailable.
c. ATC tells you that timed approaches are no longer being conducted for this approach.
d. ATC has cleared you for a straight-in approach. |
|
Definition
| ATC has cleared you for a straight-in approach. |
|
|
Term
Approaching the IAF for a procedure track approach, if your heading is within ______ of the procedure track course you do not have to overfly the IAF and may use normal lead points to intercept the published course. (B/3/2)
a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90° |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The term “NoPT” means that you will ______. (B/3/3)
a. fly a teardrop approach
b. fly a procedure turn approach
c. not fly a procedure turn approach
d. select any type of approach |
|
Definition
| not fly a procedure turn approach |
|
|
Term
Which of the following are ways to recognize a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn depiction? (B/4/1)
a. A normal holding pattern in the plan view
b. The outbound and inbound courses are shown with two dark arrows in the profile view
c. A normal holding pattern with a bold black line in the plan view
d. Both B and C |
|
Definition
Both B and C (The outbound and inbound courses are shown with two dark arrows in the profile view &
A normal holding pattern with a bold black line in the plan view) |
|
|
Term
Prior to initiating a descent on the inbound leg of a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn, you must be established on the inbound course. (B/4/3)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Low altitude approaches enable the aircraft to transition from instrument flight conditions to a visual landing while providing ______.
a. terrain clearance and separation from other IFR aircraft
b. terrain clearance only
c. separation from all aircraft
d. separation from VFR aircraft |
|
Definition
| terrain clearance and separation from other IFR aircraft |
|
|
Term
Which of the following are considered course reversal approaches?
a. Procedure turn approaches
b. Teardrop procedure track approaches
c. Holding in lieu of a procedure turn (HILO PT) approaches
d. Both A and C |
|
Definition
| Both A and C (Procedure turn approaches & Holding in lieu of a procedure turn (HILO PT) approaches) |
|
|
Term
When executing a low altitude approach in the T-6A you should maintain maneuvering speed of ______ prior to reaching the IAF.
a. 100 – 120
b. 110 – 140
c. 120 – 150
d. 130 - 160 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The barbed symbol depicted in a procedure turn approach means that the turn ______.
a. is optional and does not have to be executed
b. is made on the opposite side of the outbound course
c. is made on the side indicated by the barb
d. is a holding turn |
|
Definition
| is made on the side indicated by the barb |
|
|
Term
In a procedure turn, what procedures are used to determine the direction of turn for intercepting the outbound course when first crossing the low altitude IAF?
a. Use normal entry holding techniques (AIM or 70°) to determine the direction of turn.
b. The 60-1 rule
c. The procedure is based on the 45/180 maneuver.
d. Use the maneuvering side for all turns. |
|
Definition
| Use normal entry holding techniques (AIM or 70°) to determine the direction of turn. |
|
|
Term
If DME is available, what method would you use to stay within the “Remain Within” distance on a procedure turn approach?
a. Use only DME
b. Use only time
c. Use DME with timing as a backup
d. Once crossing the fix you must make all turns immediately back to the fix |
|
Definition
| Use DME with timing as a backup |
|
|
Term
Procedure tracks utilize _______ to depict the flight path between IAF and FAF.
a. arcs
b. radials
c. headings
d. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What altitude can you descend to if you are using a feeder facility and are cleared for the approach?
a. You can descend to the altitude depicted on the feeder route
b. You can descend to the IAF crossing altitude 10 NM from the IAF
c. You can descend to the IAF altitude when half way between the feeder fix and IAF
d. You can descend only to the IAF altitude when crossing the IAF |
|
Definition
| You can descend to the altitude depicted on the feeder route |
|
|
Term
You have commenced a holding in lieu of a procedure turn approach. How many orbits in holding are you expected to make?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. The controller will specify how many orbits you may make |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You are 70 NM from the Palacios VORTAC at FL180 and 240 KTAS. You are instructed to descend
to cross the Palacios VORTAC at 4000 feet MSL. What should your descent gradient be? What is the resulting VSI if you maintain airspeed (assume no wind)? (B/1/1) |
|
Definition
a. Descent gradient = 140/70 = 2º (200 ft/NM)
b. VSI = 200 X (240/60) = 200 ft/NM X 4 NM/min = 800 fpm descent |
|
|
Term
| At a groundspeed of 4NM per minute and a descent gradient of 3°, what is the VSI rate of descent? (B/1/2) |
|
Definition
a. VSI = angle (NM/min X 100)
b. VSI = 3 X (4 NM/min X 100)
c. VSI = 3 X 400
d. VSI = 1200 fpm |
|
|
Term
| Prior to the IAF you should complete a W-HOLDS check. What do the letters in W-HOLDS stand for? (B/2/1) |
|
Definition
a. Weather: ensure reported weather meets command minimums for commencing the approach
b. Holding clearance: if directed to hold, ensure clearance and holding pattern is understood and NAVAIDS properly set c. Obtain approach clearance: if approach clearance has not been issued, query the controller d. Letdown plate review: check minimum and emergency safe altitudes, frequencies, descent rates, approach minimums, missed approach instructions, and the aerodrome sketch
e. Descent check: ensure descent check is completed
f. Speed as required: slow to holding or approach speed |
|
|
Term
| If starting a non-DME teardrop approach from below the published IAF altitude, you must fly outbound ______ for every ______ feet below the IAF altitude before initiating the descent. (B/2/2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two categories of low altitude instrument approach procedures (IAPs)? (C/1/1) |
|
Definition
| Course reversals, Procedure tracks |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of low-altitude course reversal approaches? (C/1/2) |
|
Definition
| Procedure turn, Holding in lieu of procedure turn |
|
|
Term
| What are the three common types of low-altitude procedure track approaches? (C/1/3) |
|
Definition
| Straight-In, Arcing , Teardrop |
|
|
Term
| How is a procedure turn depicted on an instrument approach procedure? (C/2/1 |
|
Definition
a. By a “barb” symbol
b. Barb indicates “maneuvering” side |
|
|
Term
| When flying a procedure turn you must complete the course reversal turn on the _______. (C/2/2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When can you descend to the FAF altitude? (C/2/3) |
|
Definition
| When established on the inbound segment of the approach |
|
|
Term
| When will a procedure turn approach not be flown? (C/2/4) |
|
Definition
a. ATC clears you for a Straight-in approach. b. Flying approach via “NoPT” routing. c. Established in holding, cleared the approach, and holding course is same as procedure turn course. d. ATC Radar vectors you to final.
e. Cleared by ATC for Timed approach. f. Memory Aid: “SNERT” |
|
|
Term
| The term “NoPT” at an IAF on an instrument approach means ______. (C/3/1) |
|
Definition
| you are expected to fly the depicted NoPt routing, not the procedure turn |
|
|
Term
| Approaching the IAF for a procedure track approach you may use normal turn lead points if your heading is within ______ of the procedure track course. (C/3/2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn depicted on an instrument approach plate? (C/4/1) |
|
Definition
| a. Plan view: same as a normal holding pattern but with bold black lines b. Profile view: outbound and inbound course arrows shown |
|
|
Term
| True or false? When flying a low altitude procedure turn approach you may begin the turn inbound at any point. |
|
Definition
| True. However, you cannot exceed remain within distance |
|
|
Term
| When flying a procedure turn approach, if you elect to fly a teardrop entry, the teardrop course must be within how many degrees of the procedure turn course? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are segments of procedure track approaches depicted? |
|
Definition
| By heavy black lines with arrowheads showing intended aircraft ground track |
|
|
Term
You have been cleared the VOR/DME RWY 5 approach at Cochran Airport. How many turns are
you expected to complete in holding? |
|
Definition
One turn. If additional turns are required to lose excess altitude you must coordinate with
ATC first. |
|
|
Term
When can you descend from the turn completion altitude on a non-DME high altitude, teardrop
instrument penetration? |
|
Definition
| When established on the inbound segment of the approach. |
|
|
Term
You are cleared for an enroute descent at “pilot’s discretion” from FL 190 to 7000 feet MSL. Can you
temporarily level off at 11,000 feet? |
|
Definition
Yes, you may level off at an intermediate altitude, but once you leave that altitude you
cannot return to it. |
|
|
Term
| What descent angle and VSI do you need to descend at 210 KTAS from 15,000 feet MSL to 3000 feet MSL in 30 NM (no wind)? |
|
Definition
a. Descent Angle
b. 120/30 = 4°
c. VSI
d. 3.5 NM/min X 400 feet/NM = 1400 fpm |
|
|
Term
If flying a non-DME teardrop approach with no published turn altitude, initiate the inbound turn when
the aircraft is ______. |
|
Definition
| halfway between the IAF and FAF altitudes |
|
|
Term
Precision approaches are distinguished from nonprecision approaches by the addition of ______ information. (B/1/1)
a. DME
b. altitude
c. heading
d. glideslope |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The glideslope helps maintain the proper approach angle, which is normally between ______. (B/1/2)
a. 1.5 and 2°
b. 2.5 and 3°
c. 3.5 and 5°
d. 5 and 10° |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For many nonprecision approaches, you will need to establish a descent rate of about ______ to reach MDA prior to VDP. (C/1/2)
a. 100 to 300 fpm
b. 300 to 500 fpm
c. 800 to 1000 fpm
d. 1500 fpm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the runway is not in sight when you reach VDP, you must execute a missed approach. (C/1/3)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Selecting ______ on the EHSI during a GPS approach will display the IAF(s), FAF, and MAP along with the course lines connecting them. (C/2/1)
a. waypoint mode
b. MAP mode
c. ARC mode
d. DTK mode |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the approach active mode, the active leg of a GPS approach is indicated on the EHSI by a ______ between waypoints. (C/2/2)
a. white LEG annunciator
b. white line
c. green LEG annunciator
d. green line |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A localizer transmitter will provide course guidance and glideslope information for an approach. (C/3/2)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which marker beacon is normally located at the FAF or glideslope intercept point?
a. Middle marker (MM)
b. Inner marker (IM)
c. Outer marker (OM)
d. Final marker (FM) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In a VOR approach in which the VOR station serves as the FAF, the approach course will be ______.
a. inbound on the designated radial
b. outbound on the designated radial
c. perpendicular to the designated radial
d. aligned with the radial flown from the IAF |
|
Definition
| outbound on the designated radial |
|
|
Term
On the GPS display, a waypoint identifier followed by a lower case “m” designates ______.
a. the middle marker
b. the missed approach point
c. the minimum descent altitude
d. the approach mode change point |
|
Definition
| the missed approach point |
|
|
Term
An ILS is flown down to a point where you must either establish visual reference with the runway and continue to landing, or execute a missed approach. This point is called the ______.
a. Minimum descent altitude (MDA)
b. approach decision point (ADP)
c. visual descent point (VDP)
d. decision altitude (DA) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On a localizer backcourse approach, you must set ______ in the EHSI.
a. the published front course in the course selector window
b. the published localizer backcourse final approach
c. the reciprocal of the outbound localizer course
d. a course perpendicular to the inbound course |
|
Definition
| the published front course in the course selector window |
|
|
Term
In most VOR approaches, you will use either ______ to indicate arrival at the FAF.
a. timing or DME
b. DME or an aural alert
c. timing or station passage
d. DME or station passage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To calculate VDP, you should divide the height of the MDA above the touchdown zone (HAT) by the desired approach angle times ______.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 500 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DME HOLD will not display on the EHSI when ______ is selected as the primary nav sensor.
a. VOR
b. GPS
c. LOC
d. ILS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During ILS final approach, control inputs should be minimized to prevent over controlling. You should limit pitch adjustments to 2° or less and heading corrections to ______or less.
a. 5°
b. 10°
c. 15°
d. 20° |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Minimum Vector Altitude (MVA) may be lower than the published MEA or MOCA. (B/1/1)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
With the airfield weather station reporting 2 miles visibility, what is the minimum distance from the FAF and the maximum intercept angle the controller can use to set up aircraft for final approach course intercept? (B/1/2)
a. 1 mile and 20°
b. 3 miles and 30°
c. 4 miles and 10°
d. 5 miles and 45° |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What three radio calls are you required to repeat back to the controller when operating in the radar
pattern? (B/1/5)
a. Assigned headings, airspeed, weather information
b. Altitudes, altimeter settings, assigned approach
c. Assigned headings, traffic advisories, altimeter
d. Assigned headings, altitude, altimeter settings |
|
Definition
| Assigned headings, altitude, altimeter settings |
|
|
Term
When flying in the radar pattern, maintain ______ KIAS in a clean configuration while on radar
downwind. (B/1/6)
a. 100-120
b. 120-150
c. 150-200
d. 180-210 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Using the technique discussed earlier, if you were flying in the radar pattern and instructed to turn
right from heading 360 to heading 045, what angle of bank would you use? (B/1/7)
a. 10°
b. 30°
c. 45°
d. 60° |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the criteria you must meet in order to land from an ASR approach? (C/1/2)
a. Runway environment in sight
b. Aircraft in a position to make a safe landing
c. Controller directs “land”
d. A and B |
|
Definition
A and B (Runway environment in sight &
Aircraft in a position to make a safe landing) |
|
|
Term
On PAR final approach, use bank equal to the number of degrees to be turned not to exceed standard rate (C/2/2)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If on PAR final, you accidentally drift off assigned heading, what is the proper action to take? (C/2/3)
a. Maintain the heading, the controller will base new heading instruction based on your observed course.
b. Inform controller of actual heading so he can adjust his corrections.
c. Immediately correct back to the last assigned heading.
d. Either A or C |
|
Definition
| Immediately correct back to the last assigned heading. |
|
|
Term
Decision Altitude on a PAR is determined by ______. (C/2/4)
a. the barometric altimeter reading
b. when advised by the controller “at decision altitude”
c. A or B, whichever occurs first
d. timing from the begin descent point |
|
Definition
| A or B, whichever occurs first |
|
|
Term
When you reach final approach on a no-gyro ASR or PAR, you must automatically transition to using half-standard rate turns. (C/3/1)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
MVAs are established at ______ feet above the highest obstacle within the sector, ______ in mountainous terrain.
a. 500; 1000
b. 1000; 2000
c. 1500; 2500
d. 2000; 4000 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Traffic advisories are a mandatory service provided by controllers to aircraft operating in the radar pattern.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where can you locate an airfield’s radar approach minimums?
a. In FLIP General Planning
b. In the back of the Instrument Approach book
c. In the front of the Instrument Approach book
d. In the IFR Supplement |
|
Definition
| In the front of the Instrument Approach book |
|
|
Term
Aircraft malfunction reports are ______.
a. made only for engine malfunctions
b. optional
c. mandatory
d. applicable only to multi-engine aircraft |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the T-6A, it is mandatory to configure the aircraft on base leg of the radar pattern.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An ASR is a ______approach.
a. precision
b. nonprecision
c. nonradar
d. VFR only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When flying an ASR approach, the MAP is defined by ______.
a. timing from the FAF
b. the barometric altimeter
c. the VDP
d. the controller |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To execute a missed approach while circling to land from an ASR, turn initially towards the ______.
a. last assigned heading
b. nearest available alternate airfield
c. landing runway
d. nearest IAF |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A PAR approach starts when ______.
a. the aircraft is in range of the precision radar
b. contact has been established with the final controller
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above |
|
Definition
| Both A and B (the aircraft is in range of the precision radar & contact has been established with the final controller) |
|
|
Term
T-6A final approach airspeed on a PAR approach is ______ KIAS.
a. 100
b. 105
c. 110
d. 120 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When flying no-gyro vectors and approach, you must acknowledge the “start/stop turn” controller directives until ______.
a. told “do not acknowledge further transmissions”
b. the aircraft is established on final approach
c. the aircraft has landed
d. handed over to the final controller |
|
Definition
| told “do not acknowledge further transmissions” |
|
|
Term
At some airports, HIRL lights turn yellow ______ feet from the departure end. (B/1/1)
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 3000
d. 4000 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All approach lighting systems have ______ lights. (B/1/2)
a. yellow
b. flashing
c. red
d. white |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where can you find graphic descriptions of the configurations of various approach lighting systems? (B/1/3)
a. Flight Information Handbook
b. IFR Supplement
c. VFR Supplement
d. Instrument Approach Procedures Legend |
|
Definition
| Flight Information Handbook |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a method used to define the missed approach point for a nonprecision, nonradar approach? (C/1/1)
a. Timing
b. DME
c. NAVAID
d. Decision altitude (DA) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When transitioning from instrument to visual references, look for the landing environment ______. (C/1/2)
a. directly in front of the aircraft
b. as directed by the tower controller
c. in the direction determined by relationship of the final course vector and visual references identified in the airport sketch
d. in the direction of the course arrow on the EHSI |
|
Definition
| in the direction determined by relationship of the final course vector and visual references identified in the airport sketch |
|
|
Term
Full flaps are required when beginning the visual descent to the runway after an instrument approach. (C/1/4)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bright approach lights suddenly appearing on final approach can give an impression of being below glidepath. (C/2/1)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Flying an approach to a narrow runway may give the impression of being below glidepath on final. ( C/2/2)
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The airport elevation is ______. (D/1/1)
a. the MSL altitude of the highest obstacle
b. the MSL altitude of the highest point of an airport’s usable runways
c. the MSL altitude at the base of the control tower
d. the MSL altitude of the highest touchdown zone elevation |
|
Definition
| the MSL altitude of the highest point of an airport’s usable runways |
|
|
Term
Where can you find published circling approach restrictions for a particular airfield? (D/1/2)
a. VFR Supplement
b. Flight Information Handbook
c. Instrument Approach Procedure for the airfield
d. T-6A Flight Training Instructions |
|
Definition
| Instrument Approach Procedure for the airfield |
|
|
Term
Which of the following aircraft categories has the largest obstruction clearance radius? (D/1/3)
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
d. Category D
e. Category E |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an INCORRECT circling clearance? (D/2/1)
a. Texan 24, circle west of Runway 17 for a left downwind to Runway 35
b. Texan 24, circle north of Runway 27 for a left base to Runway 17
c. Texan 24, circle east of Runway 17 for a left downwind to Runway 35
d. Texan 24, circle south of Runway 09 for a left base to Runway 35 |
|
Definition
| Texan 24, circle east of Runway 17 for a left downwind to Runway 35 |
|
|
Term
You may lower full (LDG) flaps on a circling approach ______. (D/2/2)
a. once you begin the circle
b. on downwind
c. on base
d. once you begin a normal descent to the runway |
|
Definition
| once you begin a normal descent to the runway |
|
|
Term
A sidestep maneuver is a procedure in which you fly a published instrument approach to one runway, then perform ______ transition to land on an alternate runway. (D/3/1)
a. an instrument
b. a visual
c. a parallel
d. a perpendicular |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Unless specified on the approach plate, a climb gradient of ______ feet/NM is required to ensure obstacle clearance during the published missed approach. (E/1/1)
a. 35
b. 48
c. 200
d. 250 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the first step to perform a missed approach? (E/1/2)
a. Notify the controller
b. Establish a wings-level climb
c. Retract the landing gear and flaps
d. Advance the PCL to MAX |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Execute a ______ if you have started a visual descent from an instrument approach and you cannot safely land the aircraft. (E/1/3)
a. missed approach
b. go-around/waveoff
c. circling maneuver
d. sidestep |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which lighting system can be used as a HIRL, MIRL, and LIRL system?
a. Three step MIRL
b. Three step REIL
c. Three step LIRL
d. Three step HIRL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The numbers on runway remaining markers represent amount of runway remaining in ______.
a. thousands of feet
b. hundreds of feet
c. statute miles
d. nautical miles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The missed approach point is depicted on the approach plate at ______.
a. the end of the course arrow in the airport sketch
b. the end of the solid black final course line in the planform view
c. the end of the solid black final course line in the profile view
d. B and C |
|
Definition
| B and C (the end of the solid black final course line in the planform view & the end of the solid black final course line in the profile view) |
|
|
Term
When transitioning from instruments on an instrument final approach, begin looking for visual references ______.
a. when you get to the MDA
b. when you reach the MAP
c. when you reach the VDP
d. as you approach the MSL altitude for the reported ceiling |
|
Definition
| as you approach the MSL altitude for the reported ceiling |
|
|
Term
If you transition from the MDA to a visual descent to the runway at the FAF your aim point should probably be ______.
a. further down the runway than for a normal contact landing
b. further down the runway but you can still use VASI or PAPI indications
c. at the runway threshold
d. at the departure end of the runway |
|
Definition
| further down the runway than for a normal contact landing |
|
|
Term
Flying an approach to a runway wider than normally experienced can give the illusion of being below the glidepath.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What airspeed should you maintain when using TO flaps during the visual final following an instrument approach?
a. 100 KIAS
b. 105 KIAS
c. 110 KIAS
d. 120 KIAS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The circling MDA and weather minimums to be used are for the runway to which the instrument approach is being flown.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Staying within the aircraft’s obstruction clearance radius ensures ______ feet obstacle clearance during a circling approach?
a. 200
b. 300
c. 400
d. 500 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an example of a correct circling clearance?
a. Texan 22, circle southwest of airport for a left downwind to Runway 13
b. Texan 22, circle southeast of airport for a left downwind to Runway 22
c. Texan 22, circle southeast of airport for a right downwind to Runway 22
d. Texan 22, circle northeast of airport for a right downwind to Runway 13 |
|
Definition
| Texan 22, circle southeast of airport for a left downwind to Runway 22 |
|
|
Term
When performing a circling maneuver, plan your turn to base to permit a ______ NM final.
a. ¼ - ½
b. ½ - ¾
c. ½ - 1
d. ¾ - 1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Climbout instructions supersede published missed approach instructions and constitute an ATC clearance.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pitch attitude for the initial climb on a missed approach is ______ nose-high reference on the EADI.
a. 5-10°
b. 10-15°
c. 15°
d. 20° |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Execute a missed approach from the circling maneuver when you ______.
a. lose sight of the control tower
b. lose sight of the approach end of the runway served by the instrument approach during the circling maneuver
c. lose sight of sufficient landing environment references to remain oriented and complete the circling maneuver
d. cannot see the approach end of the landing runway at the MAP |
|
Definition
| lose sight of sufficient landing environment references to remain oriented and complete the circling maneuver |
|
|
Term
| Is an ILS approach a precision or nonprecision approach? (B/1/1) |
|
Definition
| Precision. ILS approaches provide both course and glidepath information |
|
|
Term
| What are the “6 Ts” you can use as a memory aid to accomplish required items at the FAF? (B/2/1) |
|
Definition
a. Time for the approach/backup approach
b. Turn the aircraft to intercept final approach course.
c. Throttle (PCL) set to establish descent.
d. Twist in final approach course on EHSI.
e. Track final approach course inbound.
f. Talk (report FAF and call gear down as required) |
|
|
Term
| Flying a GPS approach with Super Nav 5 mode selected, how is the FAF identified on the GPS display? (B/3/1) |
|
Definition
On the left display panel by a dash and lower case “f” following the FAF waypoint name (i.e. “RUBUF-f”)
Four suffixes are used to identify key points during a GPS approach: a. IAF: “-I”
b. FAF: “-f”
c. MAP: “-m”
d. MAP holding fix: “-h” |
|
|
Term
| While being radar vectored to final, attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for approximately _____. (C/1/1) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If IMC conditions are likely to be encountered, when will missed approach instructions for a radar approach normally be issued? (C/1/2) |
|
Definition
| On radar downwind or base leg |
|
|
Term
If ceiling is less than 500 feet above the MVA and visibility is less than 3 miles, the aircraft will be
vectored to intercept the final approach course at least ______ from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of _____ degrees. (C/1/3) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You are flying an ASR approach and the radar controller is providing recommended altitudes on
final. These recommended altitudes approximate the ______ glidepath and will cease at the ______. |
|
Definition
| PAR; minimum descent altitude |
|
|
Term
| How do you know you are at the MAP on an ASR approach? (C/2/2) |
|
Definition
| You will be told by the controller. |
|
|
Term
| You are at DA on a PAR approach when _____. (C/2/3) |
|
Definition
| you reach published DA on the aircraft’s altimeter or the controller states “At Decision Height”, whichever occurs first |
|
|
Term
| Typical runway lighting consists of a row of ______ lights on each side of the runway, ______ lights identifying the runway threshold, and ______ lights at the departure end. (D/1/1) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) are flashing white lights used to ______. (D/1/2) |
|
Definition
| mark the approach end of the runway |
|
|
Term
| Which runway minimums do you use when flying a circling approach? (D/2/1) |
|
Definition
| Use the circling minimums and MDA for the runway the approach is flown to. DO NOT use minimums for runway of intended landing. |
|
|
Term
| How much obstacle clearance is provided when circling at the published MDA? (D/2/2) |
|
Definition
| 300 feet when remaining within the obstructing clearance area for your category of aircraft |
|
|
Term
| When flying a circling maneuver, is it permissible to fly at an altitude ABOVE the circling MDA? (D/2/3) |
|
Definition
| Yes. Weather permitting you may accomplish the circle maneuver above the published MDA up to normal VFR traffic pattern altitude. |
|
|
Term
| If you are executing climbout instructions and the departure end of the runway is in sight, delay any turn until ______. (D/3/1) |
|
Definition
| past the departure end of the runway and 400 feet AGL |
|
|
Term
| When executing a missed approach from a circling maneuver begin a _____. (D/3/2) |
|
Definition
| climbing turn in the last known direction of the landing runway until established on the missed approach procedure/climbout instructions as appropriate |
|
|
Term
| About ______ nose-low and ______ torque will maintain approach speed and a descent rate of 800 - 1000 fpm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You have been cleared the GPS RWY 5 approach at Cochran Airport and instructed to enter holding at VIENNA. What mode must you select for the GPS before entering holding? |
|
Definition
| OBS mode. You must select OBS mode whenever you are flying a GPS approach and you are given radar vectors, performing a procedure turn, or holding. |
|
|
Term
| When you cross the FAF on a GPS approach, the track line to the FAF on the EHSI will turn ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You are flying an ILS approach. You are past the localizer FAF and above the localizer MDA. You
go two dots below the ILS glidepath. Do you have to go missed approach? |
|
Definition
a. No, you may descend to the localizer MDA and transition to a localizer-only approach.
b. If you recapture the glideslope prior to the localizer MDA, you may continue the ILS approach. |
|
|
Term
| You are going to fly a VOR approach to Runway 13 and circle to Runway 22. Which circling minimums do you use to fly the approach, the minimums for Runway 13 or the minimums for Runway 22? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Radar controllers provide obstacle clearance using _____. |
|
Definition
| Minimum Vectoring Altitudes (MVA) |
|
|
Term
| On final for a no-gyro ASR, begin using half-standard rate turns _____. |
|
Definition
| only when directed by the controller |
|
|
Term
| You would get a graphic depiction of the landing environment for a particular airfield _____. |
|
Definition
| from the airport sketch on an instrument approach plate for that airfield |
|
|
Term
| When can you begin a descent from MDA during a circling maneuver? |
|
Definition
a. When you are in a position to make a normal descent to landing
b. You may start the descent from base or final depending on the situation |
|
|
Term
| When do you have to go missed approach from the MAP? |
|
Definition
a. Landing environment not in sight
b. Not in a position to make a safe landing
c. Directed by the controller |
|
|
