Term
| When Academy FDIO is OTS, what action must be taken by the FD position? |
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Definition
| Copy/request IFR clearances |
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Term
| FD relays tower visibility to other tower positions, McAlester AFSS, and ___________. |
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Definition
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Term
| In an emergency situation, an alerts #2 would indicate a(n) __________. |
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Definition
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Term
| In an emergency situation, an Alert #3 would indicate a(n) __________. |
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Definition
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Term
| An aircraft ID may contain up to ________ characters. |
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Definition
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Term
| The phraseology used to assign a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) is _____________. |
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Definition
| "(SID name and number) DEPARTURE". |
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Term
| An example of the phraseology used to add a transition onto a SID is _____________. |
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Definition
| "STROUDSBURG ONE DEPARTURE, SPARTA TRANSITION" |
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Term
| If the altimeter is 29.89, what is the lowest usable flight level? |
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Definition
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Term
| Where a higher altitude is required because of a MEA and a MCA is specified at the fix, when must an aircraft be cleared to begin to climb? |
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Definition
| Prior to the fix so as to cross the fix at or above the MCA |
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Term
| Hold for Release (HFR) instructions are ___________. |
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Definition
| Used to inform a controller that a departure clearance is not valid. |
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Term
| What is always included when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by an FSS dispatcher? |
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Definition
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Term
| What should be specified when NOT included in the SID? |
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Definition
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Term
| An air traffic controller's first priority is separation of aircraft and __________. |
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Definition
| issuance of safety alerts |
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Term
| Controllers are required to provide additional services to the extent possible, contingent upon highter priority duties, radar limitations, traffic volume, and _________. |
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Definition
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Term
| When must you issue a safety alert? |
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Definition
| When you observe an aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft |
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Term
| When a pilot reports an inflight equipment malfunction, controllers must determine the __________. |
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Definition
| nature and extent of special handling desired. |
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Term
| What is the first action to take when an aircraft reports a NAVAID malfunction? |
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Definition
| Request a report from a second aircraft. |
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Term
| When a MARSA procedure is taking place, a controller will provide separation between participating military aircraft and ______. |
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Definition
| nonparticipating IFR aircraft |
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Term
| Control formation flights as _______. |
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Definition
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Term
| When should use of another controller's airspace be coordinated for an aircraft under your control? |
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Definition
| Prior to entering the other controller's airspace |
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Term
| When can you assume control of an aircraft being transferred to you? |
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Definition
| ONly after the aircraft enters your area of jurisdiction unless specifically coordinated or specified in an LOA or facility directive. |
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Term
| When should radio communications of an aircraft under your control be transferred? |
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Definition
| Before the aircraft enters the receiving controller's area of jurisdicion. |
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Term
| Whan are traffic advisories NOT provided to an aircraft? |
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Definition
| When the aircraft is in Class A airspace or omission is requested by the pilot. |
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Term
| A controller's responsibility for applying Traffic Management initiatives does NOT have priority over _________. |
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Definition
| maintaining separation of aircraft |
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Term
| Aircraft assigned EDC times should depart as close as possible to the EDC time but NO earlier than ______ minutes before and NO later than _____ minutest after the EDC time. |
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Definition
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Term
| One of the methods employed by Traffic Management personnel to minimize delas is _________. |
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Definition
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Term
| Who distributes FDIO departure strips to the Clearance Delivery position? |
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Definition
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Term
| When necessary, amend proposed flight plans via? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| When radar is Out of Service (OTS) where does Flight Data send departure times on all IFR aircraft? |
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Definition
| FDIO to Fort Worth Center or Interphone when FDIO is OTS |
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Term
| Who does FDIO forward departure/arrival times to McAlester Flight Service on? |
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Definition
| military and foreign registry aircraft |
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Term
| Who disseminates new ATIS codes? Where do they send them? |
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Definition
| FDIO dissemenates to all tower positions and Academy Approach |
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Term
| Who's responsibility is it to broadcast on all appropriate frequencies to advise aircraft of a change in ATIS code/message? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Who maintains the SIA/Systems Atlanta? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who posts weather information on the SIA when received from the Automated Surface Oberserving System (ASOS)? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who may request the FD position to initiate an alert or classify the emergency situation? |
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Definition
| Ground Control or Local Control |
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Term
| Who activates the emergency alarm switch, which simulates an audio alarm in the crash shack? |
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Definition
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Term
| What indicates that an aircraft is approaching the airport witha feathered propeller, oil leak, etc? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Who issues departure clearances? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| When should you include the airport of departure when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by a FSS, dispatcher, etc? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What is a preplanned IFR departure procedure published for pilot use that provides obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure? |
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Definition
| Instrument Departure Procedure |
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Term
| If a published IFR DP is not included in an ATC clearance, compliance with such a procedure is _____________. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| A PDR for the route filed by the pilot is assigned when a SID is not established for the departure route to be flown or __________. |
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Definition
| the pilot indicates that he/she does not wish to use the SID |
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Term
| What action is a pilot expected to take if they do not wish to use a SID issued in an ATC clearance? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Use the word _____________ immediately preceding the alternate route when issuing the clearance. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| An aircraft may be cleared to operate on jet routes below the MEA (but not below the prescribed minimum altitude for IFR operations) or above the maximum authorized altitude if: |
|
Definition
| radar service is provided |
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Term
| If no Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA) is specified, when must the aircraft be cleared to begin climb to the higher MEA? |
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Definition
| prior to or immediately after passing the fix where the higher MEA is designated. |
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Term
| If an MCA is specified, when must the aircraft be cleared to begin climb to the higher MEA? |
|
Definition
| Prior to the fix so as to cross the fix at or above the MCA |
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Term
| Where MEAs have not been established, what action should be taken by the controller? |
|
Definition
| Clear an aircraft at or above the minimum IFR altitude. |
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Term
| When the route or altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended what do you have to restate? |
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Definition
| Restate all applicable altitude restrictions |
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Term
| What are the possible departure restrictions? |
|
Definition
Clearance Void Times
Hold for Release (HFR) Times
Release Times |
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Term
| What is used to delay an aircraft for traffic management reasons? This makes an IFR departure not valid until a release time or addt'l instructions have been rec'd. |
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Definition
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Term
| The facility issuing a release time to a pilot must include a ____________. |
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Definition
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Term
| At the Academy, aircraft assigned EDCTs may be released ____________ prior to the EDCT or up to ___________ after the EDCT. |
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Definition
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Term
| When do you coordinate with the receiving facility before the departure of an aircraft? |
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Definition
| When the departure point is less than 15 minutes flying time from the transfterring facility's boundary. |
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Term
| When informed that an aircraft is responding to a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), do NOT _____________. |
|
Definition
| issue control instructions contrary to that advisory. |
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Term
| When less than the applicable separation minima exists between an aircraft and adjacent airspace without prior approval, it is called a(n) ______. |
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Definition
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Term
| When an aircraft is responding to an RA, traffic advisories and safety alerts regarding terrain and obstructions should be provided for __________________. |
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Definition
| the aircraft responding to the RA and all other aircraft under your control jurisdicion. |
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Term
| Ground Control shall ensure stripmarking is completed for instructions or ___________ issued or received. |
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Definition
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Term
| Ground Control must obtain approval from __________ before authorizing an aircraft or vehicle to cross or use any portion of an active runway. |
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Definition
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Term
| Local Control must verbally specify a runway to be crossed preceded by the word(s) __________. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Departure information for departing aircraft includes braking action for the runway in use when __________________. |
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Definition
| braking action advisories are in effect |
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Term
| What is the phraseology used to issue the time a pilot can expect to start engines when gate hold procedures are in effect? |
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Definition
| "EXPECT ENGINE START (time)" |
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Term
| Helicopter ground taxiing uses less fuel than hover-taxiing and __________. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Helecopter movement above the surface at slow speed, generally below 20 knots and 25 feet AGL, is called what? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Avoid clearances that require small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in proximity to taxiing or ________ helicopters. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| When an emergency occurs on the airport proper, __________________. |
|
Definition
| control other air and ground traffic to avoid conflicts in the area where the emergency is being handled. |
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Term
| When you receive information that an emergency landing will be made with explosive cargo aboard, inform the pilot of the __________________. |
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Definition
| safest or least congested airport areas |
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Term
| Who must be notified of a departing aircraft that is being taxied to a nonactive runway? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| At Academy Tower, Ground control shall pass requests to close VFR flight plans to ________________ for the relay to the FSS. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| At Academy Tower, Ground Control receives the emergency checklist from ___________. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| At Academy Tower, an emergency with low hydraulic pressure is considered an Alert # __________. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| A determination can be made as to whether an aircraft on the ground has an operable receiver, but NO transmitter, by asking the pilot to ______________. |
|
Definition
| move the rudders, move the ailerons, or flash the landing light |
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|
Term
| Do not issue ____________ instructions dependent upon the movement of arrival aircraft on the runway |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Do not use the word "________" in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Issue the measured distance from the intersection to the runway end rounded down to the nearest __________ feet to any pilot who requests and to all military aircraft. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a taxi clearance to a runway is issued to an aircraft, confirm that the aircraft has the correct _______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A taxi clearance to an assigned takeoff runway, authorizes the aircraft to "cross" all taxiways _____________. |
|
Definition
| the taxi route intersects |
|
|
Term
| Request a readback of runway hold short instructions when __________________________. |
|
Definition
| it is not received from the pilot/vehicle operator |
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|
Term
| Avoid clearances that ________________. |
|
Definition
| require heavy jet aircraft to use greater than normal taxiing power. |
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Term
| Whenever an arriving aircraft is inside the ILO Outer Marker (OM) or the fix used in lieu of the OM, do not authorize vehicles/aircraft to operate in the ILS critical area when conditions are a reported ceiling _______ feet or visibility _______ miles. |
|
Definition
| less than 800; less than 2 |
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|
Term
| If the ceiling is 500 feet and the visibility is 1 mile, an aircraft may enter the ILS critical area when ___________. |
|
Definition
| an arriving aircraft is circling to land on another runway |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, extending across the width of the taxiway? |
|
Definition
| Runway holding position markings |
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