| Term 
 
        | What is hyperacute result of transplant rejection? |  | Definition 
 
        | Preformed recipient's antibody reacts w/ donor's antigen and complement  Time for suppression= minutes to hours  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is acute transplant rejection? |  | Definition 
 
        | Antigen activates recipient's T cells, recipient generates antibodies against donot antigen Time for suppression= weeks to months |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Chronic result of transplant rejection? |  | Definition 
 
        | Thought to be chronic inflammation resulting from T cell responses to donor antigen  Time for suppression: months to years  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is central tolerance? |  | Definition 
 
        | Clonal deletion of autoreactive T and B cells during developmental stage  so that majority of immature T and B cells do not develop into self-reeactive clones |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is peripheral tolerance? |  | Definition 
 
        | Fas-Fas ligand-mediated apoptosis, activation of T suppressor cells, induction of anergy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is cytotoxicity autoimmune disorder? |  | Definition 
 
        | Antibody to self-antigen: opsonization of cells in the target organ leading to cytotoxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: Immune complex are deposited in blood vessels causing inflammtion and damage to blood vessels? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is cell-mediated autoimmune disorder? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cytotoxic T-cells react with specific self-antigens causing the destruction of the tissue expressing the antigen |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are types of cytotoxic autoimmunity? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Acute rheumatic fever - Autoimmune hemolytic anemia - Goodpasture's syndrome  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: in autoimmune hemolytic anemia streptococcal cell wall antigens  (autoantigen) that cross react with cardiac muscle and the result is myocarditis or arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | False, this is acute rheumatic fever  Autoimmune hemolytic anemia has Rh group antigen (autoantigen) and result is destruction of erythrocytes  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Autoantigen= Renal glomerular basement membrane collagen type IV Result: glomerulonephritis, pulmonary hemorrhage  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are types of immune complex disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Mixed essential cryoglobulinemia: autoantigen= rheumatoid factor IgG complexes, result systemic vasculitis  - Systemic lupus erythematosus: autoantigen= DNA, histones, ribosomes, snRNP, scRNP, result glomerulonephritis vasculitis, arthritis  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are types of T-cell mediated diseases? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Multiple sclerosis: autoantigen= myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein, result CNS deficit - Rheumatoid arthritis: Unknow autoantigen-possible synovial antigens, result joint inflammation and destruction  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are examples of autoimmune diseases? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Rheumatoid arthritis - Psoriasis - Scleroderma - Systemic lupus - Erythematosus - Multiple sclerosis - Myasthenia gravis, crohn's disease, grave's disease, type 1 diabetes  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is an example of inhibitors of cytokine gene expression? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are examples of cytotoxic antimetabolites? |  | Definition 
 
        | Mycophenolate mofetil, leflunomide, azathiprine, methotrexate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is and example of cytotoxic alkylating agent? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are examples of specific lymphocyte signaling inhibitors? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cyclosporin, tacrolimus, and sirolimus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Anti CD3: muromonab Anti-CD20 mAb: rituximab Anti-CD25 mAb: basiliximab  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Inhibition of costimulation? |  | Definition 
 
        | abatacept, and belatacept |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Blockade of cell adhesion? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Inhibition of complement activation? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are ADE of methotrexate? |  | Definition 
 
        | GI (most commons): ulcerative stomatitis, nausea, abd pain Low white blood cell count and thus predisposition to infection (acute penumonitis) Highly teratogenic (pregnancy X) Pulmonary toxicity, liver toxicity, renal toxicity  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are contraindication with methotrexate? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pts w/ liver disease or renal disorders Pts with blood disorders Pts with peptic ulcers or ulcerative colitis Pregnancy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAIDs increase methotrexate blood levels (plasma protein displacement, and inhibit elimination) Sulfas, tetracycline, phenytoin, can also displace methotrexate    |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMP) the rate-limitng enzyme in the formation of guanosine? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: both MPA (mycophenolic acid, active metabolite of MMF) and MMF act primarily on lymphocytes? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | N/V, diarrhea abd pain Myelosuppression (leukopenia, neutropenia) Increased risk of infection Lymphoma  DI= Iron recudes MMF oral bioavailability  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | MMF is contraindicated in what cases? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: Glucocorticoids upregulate expression of key cytokines (TNF-a, IL-1 and IL-4)? |  | Definition 
 
        | False, downregulate expression |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: alkylating agents interfere with DNA replication and gene expression by conjugating alkyl groups to DNA? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: azathoprine enhances de novo synthesis of purines required for lymphocytes proliferation? |  | Definition 
 
        | False, it inhibits de novo synthesis  its derivative of mercaptopurine, prevents clonal expansion of both B and T lymphocytes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: AZA favors immunosuppression vs. anticancer? |  | Definition 
 
        | True, the conversion of AZA to 6-MP is a slow release proccess, and thus favors immunosuppression vs. anticancer |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 6-MP-nucleotide can form 6-thioguanine nucleotide which is mutagenic? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are ADE of azathoprine? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Skin rashes - GI effects - Liver toxicity - Bone marrow suppression  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is inhibited by methotrexate? |  | Definition 
 
        | DHFR Methotrexate exerts greater toxic effect on rapidly dividing maligant and myeloid cells  Even w/ lower dose SE as hair loss, nausea, HD, and skin pigmentation still common  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of leflunomide? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inhibit pyrimidein synthesis, approved only for rheumatoid arthritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the followings are correct for leflunomide? I) Decrease DNA, RNA, & protein synthesis II) decrease proinflammatory cytokines III) increase lymphocyte proliferation IV) decrease B & T cell propulation A) I only B) I, II, III C) I,II,IV D) all of the above  |  | Definition 
 
        | C) I, II, IV  III) decrease lymphocyte proliferation  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: leflunomide undergoes significant enterohepatic recirculation leading to prolonged t1/2 (5-40 d)? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are ADE of leflunomide? |  | Definition 
 
        | Diarrhea, rash, respiratory infection, alopecia, Elevate liver enzyme (severe liver toxicity), highly teratogenic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is used to wash out leflunomide? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of cyclophosphamide? |  | Definition 
 
        | Highly toxic drug that alkylates DNA. destroy proliferating lymphoid cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are ADE of cyclophosphamide? |  | Definition 
 
        | Alopecia, hemorrhagic cyctitis, bone marrow suppression, GI disorders, Cardiac toxicity, high risk of bladder cancer (carcinogenic metabolite, acrolein) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Inhibitor of T-cell mediated immunity
 Inhibit production of IL-2 by activated T cells  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: Tacrolimus is less potent than cyclosporine, has structural difference to cyclosporine, but mechanism is similar? |  | Definition 
 
        | False, it's more potent Everything else is correct  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of sirolimus? |  | Definition 
 
        | Block IL-2 receptor signaling required for T cell proliferation  It structurally similar to tacrolimus but has different MOA  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where do cyclosporine and tacrolimus bind? |  | Definition 
 
        | They bind to cytoplasmic immunophilins, cyclophilin and FK-BP respectively |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: Cyclosporine-immunophilin and tacrolimus-FKBP complex inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase necessary for dephosphorylation of NFAT required for IL-2 synthesis? |  | Definition 
 
        | True  NFAT will translocate and IL-2 production is suppressed  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does sirolimus bind to? |  | Definition 
 
        | Binds to FKBP and the formed complex binds to mTOR (molecular target of rapmycin (sirolimus)), it blocks the progression of activated T cells from G1 to S phase of cell cycle, thus blocks T cell response to cytokines It also inhibits B cell proliferation and immunoglobulin production  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are ADE of cyclosporine? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Nephrotoxicity - Neurotoxicity - Hepatotoxicity - Hyperlipedemia  - HTN - Infection - Gigival - Hyperplasia, GI disturbance, hirsutism  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are ADE of tacrolimus? |  | Definition 
 
        | Nephrotoxicity, QT prolongation, HTN, Infection, Lymphoma, Hyperglycemia (require insulin), GIT disturbance, Alopecia, anemia, tremor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are ADE of sirolimus? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hepatotoxicity, HTN, peripheral edema, thrombolic disorder, hyperlipedimia, anemia, thrombocytopenia, arthralgia, lymphoma and infection NO nephrotoxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: Cyclosporine + sirolimus more nephrotoxic than cyclosporine alone? |  | Definition 
 
        | True, even more with combination of tacrolimus and sirolimus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: tacrolimus increases LDL? |  | Definition 
 
        | False, no hyperlipedemia with tacrolimus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are DI with cyclosporine? |  | Definition 
 
        | - CYP 450 inducers; phenobarbitone, phenytoin, rifampin, st john's wort, enhance clearance of cyclosporine resulting rejection of transplant - Erythromycin, ketoconazole, grapefruit juice drecrease cyclosporine clearance and increase risk of cyclosporine toxicity  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are DI with tacrolimus? |  | Definition 
 
        | St. Jon's wort reduces serum tacrolimus levels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Voriconazole increases serum sirolimus levels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: TNF-mediated activation of endothelial cells promotes leukocyte adhesion and diapedesis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: TNF regulates monocytes and macrophages to produces IL-2? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Etanercept (SC) is approved for use in what diseases? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Rheumatoid arthritis - Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis - Plaque psoriasis - Psoriatic arthritis - Ankylosing spondylitis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Infliximab (IV) is approved for what diseases? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Rheumatoid arthritis - Crohn's disease - Ulceratvie colitis - Ankylosin spondylitis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Adalimumab (SC) approved for what disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Rheumatoid arthritis - Psoriatic arthritis  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: Etanercept is a recombinant protein (human) consists of TNFR fused to Fc portion of human IgG1? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: infliximab is a partially humanizedmouse against human TNF-a? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: adalimumab is a partially humanized IgG1 antibody agains TNF-a? |  | Definition 
 
        | False, fully humanized IgG1 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: Etanercept binds both TNF-a and TNF-b; but infliximab and adalimumab are TNF-a specific? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are common ADE of TNF-a inhibitors? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Myelosuppression - Heart failure - Optic neuritis - TB reactivation - Increased risk of infection - Injection site reaction - Upper respiratory infection - Abd pain, vomiting  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: TNF-a are safe to use in sepsis and heart failure? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Polyclonal rabbit antibody. Bind to cell surface molecules and block lymphocyte function. deplete circulating lymphocytes by direct citotoxicity is MOA of which antibody? a) muromonab-CD3 b) Rituximab c) Anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) |  | Definition 
 
        | c) anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | It 's a partially huminized anti-CD20 antibody. Depletes circulating B cells is MOA of which antibody? a) Rituximab b) daclizumab c)anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) d) Alefacept |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: daclizumab and basiliximab are anti-CD25 mAb. They bind to IL-2 receptors on the surface of T cells? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: Alemtuzumab is an LFA-3/Fc fusion protein. interupts CD2-LFA-3 signaling by binding to T-cell CD2. It activates NK cells to deplete memory effector T cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | False, this is MOA of alefacept Alemtuzumab is an anti-CD52 mAb, it causes apoptosis of lymphocytes and monocytes  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of muromonab CD3? |  | Definition 
 
        | It is a mouse mAb against human CD3, a cell surface signaling molecule required for T cell activation. Anti-CD3 depletes available T cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: abatacept consists of CTLA-4 fused to an Ig1 random region. it prevents the cos-stimulatory signal by making complex w/ B7 molecules on surface of APC? |  | Definition 
 
        | False, CTLA-4 fused to an Ig1 constant region the cells develops anergy or undergo apoptosis  exacerbation of astham and susceptibility to infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which drug limits T cell adhesion, activation and migration to sites of action by disrupting integrin and ICAM-1 interaction? a) abatacept b) Efalizumab c) Ritixumab d) Alefacept |  | Definition 
 
        | b) efalizumab it is a mAb against LFA-1, an integrin that binds ICAM-1  It does not eradicate the cells  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which drug causes reduction in CD4 and CD8 T cells and is contraindicated in HIV pts? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which drug causes exacerbation of COPD and increased susceptibility to infection, UTI? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which drug causes Thrombocytopenia and immune-mediated hemolytic anemia? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which cytotoxic medication oral absorption is affected by food? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  |