Term
| What distinguishes secondary follicles from primary follicles? |
|
Definition
| Secondary follicles are active with pale central germinal centers |
|
|
Term
| Where do B-cells localize and proliferate in the lymph node? |
|
Definition
| Follicles of outer cortex |
|
|
Term
| What two cell types are found in the medullary sinuses of a lymph node? |
|
Definition
| reticular cells and macrophages |
|
|
Term
| What part of the lymph node is poorly developed in patients with DiGeorge syndrome? |
|
Definition
| paracortex (houses T cells) |
|
|
Term
| What part of the body does the right lymphatic duct drain? |
|
Definition
| right arm and right half of head |
|
|
Term
| What type of cells are found in the periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) of the spleen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells are found in the follicles of the spleen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are Howell-Jolly bodies? |
|
Definition
| nuclear remnants that are present in RBC's post-splenectomy |
|
|
Term
| From what branchial pouch is the thymus derived? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus? |
|
Definition
corticomedullary junction
(cortex = immature cells; medulla = pale with mature T cells) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does MHC II bind to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What MHC is expressed on almost all nucleated cells? |
|
Definition
| MHC I, loads intracellular peptides in RER |
|
|
Term
| With what does MHC I pair in the cell membrane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which MHC class is encoded by HLA-DR, HLA-DP, and HLA-DQ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are antigens loaded onto MHC II molecules? |
|
Definition
| In acidified endosomes following relase of invariant chain |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with HLA A3? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 4 diseases are associated with HLA B27? |
|
Definition
| psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, reiter's syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with HLA B8? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diseases are associated with HLA DR2? |
|
Definition
| multiple sclerosis, hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture's syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with HLA DR3? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 diseases are associated with HLA DR4? |
|
Definition
| Rheumatoid arthritis, type I diabetes |
|
|
Term
| What 2 diseases are associated with HLA DR5? |
|
Definition
| pernicious anemia, Hashimoto's thyroiditis |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with HLA DR7? |
|
Definition
| steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What do NK cells use to induce apoptosis of virally infected cells and tumor cells? |
|
Definition
| perforin and granzymes (serine proteases that activate apoptosis inside target cells) |
|
|
Term
| What is the only lymphocyte that is a member of the innate immune system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 cytokines enhance the activity of NK cells? |
|
Definition
| IL-12, INF-beta, INF-alpha |
|
|
Term
| What cells are responsible for killing cells that are missing MHC class I molecules on their cell surface? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of T-cells help B cells make antibody and produce gamma-interferon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of T cells kill virus-infected cells directly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine induces Th2 cells to form from helper T cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three antigen-presenting cells? |
|
Definition
| macrophage, dendritic cell, B cell |
|
|
Term
| What is the costimulatory signal required for the activation of helper T-cells? |
|
Definition
| B7 on APC and CD28 on CD4+ helper T cell (signal 2) |
|
|
Term
| What costimulatory signal is required to activate cytotoxic T cells? |
|
Definition
| IL-2 from *helper T cell* must activate the CD8+ cytotoxic T-cell (binds to its IL-2 receptor) |
|
|
Term
| What is the costimulatory signal required for B-cell class switching? |
|
Definition
| CD40 ligand on helper T-cell binds to CD40 receptor on B-cell |
|
|
Term
| What cytokines do Th1 cells secrete? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 types of cells do Th2 helper T cells activate? |
|
Definition
| macrophages and CD8+ T cells |
|
|
Term
| What cytokine inhibits Th1 helper T-cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokines do Th2 helper T cells secrete? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine inhibits Th2 helper T cells? |
|
Definition
| IFN-gamma (made by Th1 helper T cells) |
|
|
Term
| What 2 cytokines do macrophages release that help stimulate lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The carboxy terminal of an antibody corresponds to what fragment (Fc or Fab)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two immunoglobulins are expressed on mature B lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunoglobulin does NOT fix complement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunoglobulin is a monomer in circulation but a dimer when secreted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does IgA cross epithelial cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what cells does IgE bind? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do thymus-independent antigens lack? |
|
Definition
| a protein component (therefore stimulate release of IgM only and does not result in immunologic memory) |
|
|
Term
| What activates the classic complement pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What activates complement in the alternative pathway? |
|
Definition
| molecules on the surface of microbes, especially endotoxin |
|
|
Term
| What are the two primary opsonins in bacterial defense? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two molecules help prevent complement activation on self cells? |
|
Definition
| decay-accelerating factor, C1 esterase inhibitor |
|
|
Term
| What are C1, C2, C3, and C4 of the complement pathway primarily responsible for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What complement factors are important in anaphylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What complement factor is important in neutrophil chemotaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What complement factors are important in cytolysis by the membrane attack complex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease does a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Deficiency of what complement factor leads to severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections with increased susceptibility to type III hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Deficiency of what complement factors can lead to Neisseria bacteremia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Deficiency in what leads to complement-mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria? |
|
Definition
| decay-accelerating factor |
|
|
Term
| What cytokine is secreted by macrophages and called an "endogenous pyrogen" because it causes fever and acute inflammation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine activates endothelium to express adhesion molecules and induces chemokine secretion to recruit leukocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine causes fever and stimulates production of acute-phase proteins and is secreted by both macrophages and helper T-cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine is a major chemotactic factor for neutrophils? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What chemokine induces differentiation of T cells into Th1 cells, activates NK cells, and is secreted by both macrophages and B-cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine mediates septic shock by causing leukocyte recruitment and vascular leak? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine supports the growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells, functioning like GM-CSF? |
|
Definition
| IL-3 (secreted by T-cells) |
|
|
Term
| What cytokine stimulates growth of helper and cytotoxic T cells? |
|
Definition
| IL-2 (secreted by Th1 cells) |
|
|
Term
| What cytokine activates macrophages and Th1 cells while suppressing the activation of Th2 cells? |
|
Definition
| Interferon-gamma (secreted by Th1 cells) |
|
|
Term
| What cytokine induces differentiation into Th2 cells, promotes the growth of B cells, and enhaces class switching to IgE and IgG? |
|
Definition
| IL-4 (secreted by Th2 cells) |
|
|
Term
| What cytokine promotes differentiation of B cells, enhances class switching to IgA, and stimulates the growth and differentiation of eosinophils? |
|
Definition
| IL-5 (also secreted by Th2 cells) |
|
|
Term
| What cytokine inhibits actions of activated T cells and Th1 while activating Th2? |
|
Definition
| IL-1 (secreted by Th2 and regulatory T cells) |
|
|
Term
| What proteins place uninfected cells in an antiviral state? |
|
Definition
| interferons (alpha, beta, gamma) |
|
|
Term
| Which interferon inhibits viral protein synthesis? |
|
Definition
| interferon-alpha, interferon-beta |
|
|
Term
| Which interferon increases MHC I and MHC II expression and antigen presentation in all cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 3 proteins are expressed on the surface of all T cells? |
|
Definition
1. TCR
2. CD3 (associated with TCR for signal transduction)
3. CD28 (binds B7 on APC) |
|
|
Term
| What cell surface proteins are found on B cells? |
|
Definition
| Ig, CD19, CD20, CD21, CD40, MHC II, B7 |
|
|
Term
| What is the receptor for EBV on B-cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cell surface proteins can be found on macrophages? |
|
Definition
| MHC II, B7, CD40, CD14, receptors for Fc and C3b |
|
|
Term
| What cell surface proteins can be found on NK cells? |
|
Definition
| receptors for MHC I, CD16 (binds Fc of IgG), CD56 (UNIQUE marker for NK cells) |
|
|
Term
| What cross-link the beta-region of the T-cell receptor to MHC class II on APC's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cause uncoordinated release of interferon-gamma from Th1 cells and release of IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha from macrophages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what does endotoxin bind? |
|
Definition
| CD14 on macrophages, directly stimulated the macrophages (Th cells not involved) |
|
|
Term
| What parasites have programmed rearrangement (a type of antigen variation)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What needs to be given after exposure to tetanus toxin, botulinum toxin, HBV, or rabies? |
|
Definition
| preformed antibodies (passive immunity) |
|
|
Term
| What tests for type I hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
| scratch test, radioimmunosorbent assay |
|
|
Term
| What tests for type II hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
| direct and indirect Coombs test |
|
|
Term
| What type of type III hypersensitivity is it when antigen-antibody complexes activate complement, which attract neutrophils, which release lysosomal enzymes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immune complex disease is associated with deposition in membranes where immune complexes fix complement and lead to tissue damage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is characterized by fever, urticaria, arthralgias, proteinuria, and lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after drug exposure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is it called when intradermal injection of antigen induces antibodies, which form antigen-antibody complexes in the skin and cause edema, necrosis, and activation of complement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you test for type III hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
| immunofluorescent staining |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of hypersensitivity is cell-mediated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you test for type IV hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder are anaphylaxis, allergic reactions, and atopic disorders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is hemolytic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is Goodpasture syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is ITP, erythroblastosis fetalis, and acute hemolytic transfusion reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is Graves' disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, and polyarteritis nodosum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is poststreptoccal glomerulonephritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is serum sickness, Arthus reaction, and hypersensitivity pneumonitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is type I diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is multiple sclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is Guillain-Barre syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is graft-versus-host disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is Hashimoto's thyroiditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is contact dermatitis (e.g poison ivy)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity disorder is most typically specific to tissue or site where the antigen is found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with antinuclear antibodies (ANA)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with antihistone antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with anti-IgG antibodies? |
|
Definition
| rheumatoid arthritis ("rheumatoid factor") |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with anticentromere antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with anti-Scl-70 antibodies (anti-DNA topoisomerase I antibodies)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with antimitochondrial antibodies? |
|
Definition
| primary biliary cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with antigliadin and antiendomysial antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with anti-basement membrane antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with anti-desmoglein antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with antimicrosomal, antithryoglobulin antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with anti-Jo-1 antibodies? |
|
Definition
| Polymyositis, dermatomyositis |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with anti-SS-A and anti-SS-B (anti-Ro and anti-La) antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with anti-U1 RNP antibodies? |
|
Definition
| mixed connective tissue disease |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with anti-smooth muscle antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with anti-glutamate decarboxylase antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with c-ANCA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an X-linked recessive disease that is associated with a defect in BTK, a tyrosine kinase gene? |
|
Definition
| Bruton's agammaglobulinemia |
|
|
Term
| What disease is results from a block to B-cell differentiation/maturation, leading to recurrent bacterial infections after age 6 months? |
|
Definition
| Bruton's agammaglobulinemia |
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by defective CD40L on helper T cells that results in an inability to class switch? |
|
Definition
| Hyper-IgM syndrome, results in sever pyogenic infections early in life |
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by a defect in isotype switching, leading to sinus and lung infections, milk allergies, and anaphylaxis on exposure to blood products containing IgA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by a defect in B-cell maturation? |
|
Definition
| Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) |
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by a normal number of B cells with a decrease in plasma cells and immunoglobulin? |
|
Definition
| common variable immunodeficiency |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with a 22q11 deletion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immune deficiency is associated with congenital heart and great vessel defects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease results in a decreased Th1 response with disseminated mycobacterial infections? |
|
Definition
| IL-12 receptor deficiency |
|
|
Term
| What disease results when Th cells fail to produce IFN-gamma (and neutrophils are unable to respond to chemotactic stimuli)? |
|
Definition
| Hyper-IgE syndrome (Job's syndrome) |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with coarse Faces, cold (noninflamed) staphlococcal Abscesses, retained primary Teeth, increased IgE, and Dermatologic problems (eczema)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells are dysfunctional in chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease occurs if there is a defective IL-2 receptor? |
|
Definition
| SCID (most commonly X-linked) |
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by adenosine deaminase deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by failure to synthesize MHC II antigens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by a defect in DNA repair enzymes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by cerebellar defects (ataxia), spider angiomas (telangiectasia), and IgA deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease leads to a progressive deletion of B and T cells? |
|
Definition
| Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome? |
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by thrombocytopenic purpura, infections, and eczema? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by an increase in IgE and IgA, but a decrease in IgM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease occurs when there is a defect in LFA-1 integrin (CD18) protein on phagocytes? |
|
Definition
| Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (type 1) |
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by recurrent bacterial infections, absent pus formation, and delayed separation of the umbilicus? |
|
Definition
| Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (type 1) |
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by a defect in microtubular function with decreased phagocytosis? |
|
Definition
| Chediak-Higashi syndrome (it's autosomal recessive) |
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by recurrent pyogenic infections by staphylcocci and streptococci, partial albinism, and peripheral neuropathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease has a negative Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test? |
|
Definition
| Chronic granulomatous disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Graft from identical twin |
|
|
Term
| What type of transplant rejection is antibody mediated (type II)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What medications can reverse acute (transplant) rejection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of transplant rejection is associated with cytotoxic T lymphocytes reacting against foreign MHC's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of rejection causes obliterative vascular fibrosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by a maculopapular rash, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, and diarrhea after bone marrow transplantation? |
|
Definition
| Graft-versus-host disease |
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant drug binds to cyclophilins, blocking the differentiation and activation of T cells by inhibiting calcineurin (thus preventing the production of IL-2 and its receptor)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant drug binds to FK-binding protein, inhibiting secrtetion of IL-2 and other cytokines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant drug has side effects of nephrotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension, pleural effusion, and hyperglycemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant drug binds to mTOR and inhibits T-cell proliferation in response to IL-2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant drug has side effects of hyperlipidemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant drug is a monoclonal antibody with a high affinity for the IL-2 receptor on activated T-cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant drug is an antimetabolite precursor of 6-mercaptopurine that interferes with nucleic acid metabolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant drug is used to treat glomerulonephritis and hemolytic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant drug is metabolized by xanthine oxidase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant drug is a monoclonal antibody that binds to CD3 (epsilon chain) on the surface of T cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant drug has the side effects of cytokine release syndrome and a hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is aldesleukin (interleukin-2) used for? |
|
Definition
| renal cell carcinoma, metastatic melanoma |
|
|
Term
| What is filgrastim used for? |
|
Definition
recovery of bone marrow
(filgrastim = granulocyte colony-stimulating factor) |
|
|
Term
| What is sargramostim used for? |
|
Definition
recovery of bone marrow
(sargramostim = granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor) |
|
|
Term
| What is alpha-interferon used for? |
|
Definition
| treatment of hepatitis B and C, Kaposi's sarcoma, leukemias, malignant melanoma |
|
|
Term
| What can beta-interferon be used to treat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can gamma-interferon be used to treat? |
|
Definition
| Chronic granulomatous disease |
|
|
Term
| What can oprelvekin (interleukin-11) and thrombopoietin be used to treat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What therapeutic antibody is used to prevent acute transplant rejection? |
|
Definition
| OKT3 (Muromonab-CD3); targets CD3 |
|
|
Term
| What therapeutic antibody is used to prevent acute rejection of renal transplants? |
|
Definition
| Daclizumab; targets IL-2 receptor |
|
|
Term
| What therapeutic antibody is used to treat Crohn's disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and psoriatic arthritis? |
|
Definition
| Infliximab and Adalimumab; targets TNF-alpha; Infliximab also treats ankylosing spondylitis |
|
|
Term
| What therapeutic antibody is used to prevent cardiac ischemia in unstable angina and in patients treated with percutaneous coronary intervention? |
|
Definition
| Abciximab; targets glycoprotein IIb/IIIa |
|
|
Term
| What therapeutic antibody is used to treat HER2-overexpressing breast cancer? |
|
Definition
| Trastuzumab (Herceptin), targets erb-B2 |
|
|
Term
| What therapeutic antibody is used to treat B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
