| Term 
 
        | IgE is induced by allergen and bound via its Fc receptor to mast cells and eosinophils.  After encountering the antigen again, the fixed IgE induces degranulation and release of mediators (e.g. histamine) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Antigens on a cell surface combine with antibody, which leads to complement-mediated lysis or other cytotoxic membrane damage |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ag-Ab immune complexes are deposited in tissues, complement is activated, and PMN cells are attracted to the site, causing tissue damage |  | Definition 
 
        | Type III Hypersensitivity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T cells, sensitized by an antigen, release cytokines upon second contact with same antigen.  The cytokines induce inflammation and activate macrophages |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Vascular Adherence (cell rolling)Diapedesis - process of neutrophils moving through EC into ECMActivation - increased granulesPhagocytosis and Killing |  | Definition 
 
        | Phagocyte (neutrophil) Response to Infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Characteristic of neutrophils   Contain Cationic proteins Defensins (play a role in killing) myeloperoxidase |  | Definition 
 
        | Characteristics of Primary Neutrophil Granules |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Specific for Mature Neutrophils   Contain lysozyme NADPH Lactoferrin (reduce ability to use Fe) B-12 binding protein (reduce ability to use B-12) |  | Definition 
 
        | Characteristics of Secondary Granules |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Receptor Mediated   
AttachmentPseudopod ExtensionPhagosome FormationGranule FusionPhagolysosome Formation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Damage to Microbial membranes |  | Definition 
 
        | Function of Cationic Proteins |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hydrolyses mucopeptides in the cell wall |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Deprives pathogens of iron |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Function of Hydrolytic enzymes (proteases) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Fragments of complement proteins released during activation.   Results in increased vascular permeability and attracts leukocytes. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Bacterial toxins released from damaged cells. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CD8   T cells that kill other cells |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Lysis of bacteria or cells by insertion of membrane attack complex derived from compliment activation   |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A process whereby phagocytic cells are attracted to the vicinity of invading pathogens |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Immunity in which the participation of lymphocytes and macrophages is predominant.   Generally applied to Type IV Hypersensitivity |  | Definition 
 
        | Cell-mediated (cellular) immunity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | B cells are the precursors of plasma cells that produce antibody |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A substance that can react with an antibody |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A protein produced as a result of interaction with antigen.   The protein has the ability to combine with the antigen that stimulated its production. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Variants of a single genetic locus |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Molecules that mediate the binding of cells to other cells or ECM (such as fibronectin) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Large granular lymphoid cells with no known antigen-specific receptors.  The are able to recognize and kill certain abnormal cells and also activate the innate response |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A phagocytic blood cell that matures into a tissue macrophage |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A phagocytic mononuclear cell found in tissues and at site of inflamation.   Also an accessory role is an antigen-presenting cell (APC) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Low MW proteins that stimulate leukocyte movement |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Characterized by a multilobed nucleus   Phagocytic for bacteria and other particles |  | Definition 
 
        | Polymorphonuclear Cell (PMN) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cluster of gen es in close proximity that encodes the histocompatibility antigens |  | Definition 
 
        | Major Histocompatability Complex |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A molecule that is not immunogenic by itself but can react with a specific antibody |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A set of plasma proteins that is the primary mediator of antigen-antibody reactions |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Induction of immunity by injecting a dead or attenuated form of a pathogen |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A thymus-derived cell that participates in a variety of cell-mediated immune reactions |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A terminally differentiated B cell that secretes antibody |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The coating of an antigen or particle by sustances (such as Ab, complement, fibronectin, etc.) that facilitate phagocytosis |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A substance capable of enhancing phagocytosis.   Antibodies and complement are the two main opsonins. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The end product of activation of the complement cascade, which makes holes in the membrane of cells, resulting in lysis. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Monomuclear cell containing a densely packed nucleus and a small rim of cytoplasm.   Includes T cells and B cells. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Low MW proteins elaborated by infected cells.   Protect noninfected cells from viral infection.   Cytokines that also have immunomodulating functions. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Local accumulation of fluid and cells after injury or infection |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Subdivision based on structural differences   IgG IgA IgM IgE IgD |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A subdivision of the classes of immunoglobulins based on structural differences. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A glycoprotein that functions as antibody. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Protection azquired by deliberate introduction of an antigen into a responsive host. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Nonspecific resistance not acquired through contact with antigen |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Development of resistance to a foreign substance   Can be antibody-mediated, cell-mediated, or both |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Pertaining to Immunity in a body fluid and used to denote immunity mediated by antibody and complement |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sharing transplantation antigens |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Site on an antigen recognized by an antibody |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Developing T cells found in thymus |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
To produce, maintain, and distribute lymphocytesTo act as a filterTo return excess water from the interstitial space back to the general circulation |  | Definition 
 
        | Functions of Lymphoid System |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Start as pockets rather than tubesLarger diameterHave thinner wallsFlat and irregular in section |  | Definition 
 
        | How do lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Special lymphatic capillaries in small intestine   Transport lipids from digestive tract |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | from the right lymphatic duct empties into the right subclavian vein   from the thoracic duct empties into the left subclavian vein |  | Definition 
 
        | Where do all lympatics empty into? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | CD Markers of Neutrophils |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | CD Markers of Macrophages |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Presence of CD 56 and CD 16   Absence of CD 3 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CD 8   binds to MHC class I molecules |  | Definition 
 
        | CD Markers of Cytotoxic T Cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CD 4   binds to MHC class II molecules |  | Definition 
 
        | CD Markers on Helper T Cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Distributed on all nucleated somatic cells   Present peptide antigens to CD 8 T cells |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Distributed on antigen-presenting cells and activated T cells   Present peptide antigens to CD 4 T cells |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Classical Pathway   Lectin Pathway   Alternative Pathway |  | Definition 
 
        | 3 Pathways of Complement Activation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | IgM and IgG attach to pathogen   C1 binds to Ab   C3 is cleaved by C3 Convertase into C3a and C3b |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the Classical Pathway of Complement Activation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Mannose-binding lectin binds to sugar residues found in microbial surface polysaccharides   Then the pathway follows the classical pathway from the cleaving of C3 |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Describe the Lectin Pathway of Complement Activation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Many different substances activate C3 cleavage |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Describe the Alternative Pathway of Complement Activation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Recruitment of Inflammatory Cells   Opsonization   Membrane Attack Complex |  | Definition 
 
        | 3 Possibilities of cell Death from Complement |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Neutrophil activationneutrophil adhesionpromotes diapedesis and chemotaxismonocyte activation to produce IL-1 and IL-6Mast Cell degranulation |  | Definition 
 
        | Biological Effects of C5a |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | How many complement proteins are there? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | C3 is cleaved by C3 convertase into C3a and C3b   C3a is an anaphylatoxin   C3b leads to the MAC or Opsonization |  | Definition 
 
        | Why is C3 important in the complement cascade? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Predisposition to Systemic Lupus Erethymetosis   Opsonization of immune complexes help keep them soluble, deficiency results in increased precipitation in tissues and inflammation. |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the disease and mechanism associated with a deficiency of C1, C2, and C4? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Susceptibility to bacterial infections.   Lack of opsonization and inability to utilize MAC |  | Definition 
 
        | 
What is the disease and mechanism associated with a deficiency of C3? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Susceptibility to Gram Negative infections   Inability to attack outer membrane     Clinical manifestation is increased temperature and respiratory rate and decreased BP |  | Definition 
 
        | 
What is the disease and mechanism associated with a deficiency of C5-C9? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Two chains (a and b) that have a transmembrane portion and a distal CDR.   This attaches to the MHC markers on a cell surface. |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the structure and function of T Cell receptors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
The native protein is denaturedPeptides are cut and placed in MHC "cradle"MHC is exocytosed to the plasma membrane MHC class I has b-2 microglobulin (non-covalently linked) and presents to CD8 T cells 
 MHC class II presents to CD4 T cells TH1 activates macrophages TH2 activates B cells |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the structure and process of antigen presentation with MHC markers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) |  | Definition 
 
        | What are MHC markers also known as? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 
Progenetor cells give rise to many lymphocytes of different specificityAn antigen comes in contact with a lymphocyte of correct specificityClonal expansion due to being activated by presentation with antigen |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the process of clonal selection and differentiation. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Complementary Determinant Region   The domain on an immunoglobulin or T cell receptor that is variable and includes the active site. |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the CDR portion of immunoglobulins and T cell receptors? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ab sees and binds to native conformation   T cell recognition requires processing and is going to be presented on an MHC molecule |  | Definition 
 
        | What is different about the peptide when it is presented by surface immunoglobulins as opposed to MHCs? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Type 1 Helper T cell   INF-g released by innate system cells   activates macrophages or cause B cells to switch to IgG   Promotes bacterial clearance |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Type 2 Helper T cells   IL-4 is released   Activate mast cells and eosinophils and cause B cells to switch production to IgE   Aids in response to parasites |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | pentamer   primary immune response |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | dimer   prevent attachment of pathogens to EC |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | monomer   primary and secondary immune response |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | monomer   binds to mast cells and basophils to cause them to release histamine |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | monomer   attached to surface of B cell   important in B cell activation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Somatic recombination   Point mutations   Class switching |  | Definition 
 
        | Mechanisms of Antibody Diversity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Neutralization   Agglutination   Precipitation   Complement Fixation |  | Definition 
 
        | Mechanisms of antibody action |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | [image]Variable region on the N-termini Fc region is constant and may have transmembrane regions on C-termini if on B cell   Heavy Chains are 50 kD each Light Chains are 25 kD each |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the structure and function of antibodies/immunoglobulin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Source: Macrophages (IFN-a), fibroblasts (IFN-b)   Function: Antiviral |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Source:  T Cells and NK Cells   Function: Activateion of macrophage and TH1 differentiation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Source:  Macrophages and T cells   Function:  Cell activation, fever, cachexia, antitumor |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Source: T cells   Function:  Activates PMNs |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Source:  Macrophages   Function:  Cell activation, fever |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Source:  T cells   Function:  T cell growth and activation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Source: T cells and mast cells   Function: B cell proliferation and switching to IgE TH2 differentiation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Source: Macrophages   Function: Differentiation of T cells activation of NK cells |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This includes immunological barriers and the innate immune response |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | These are the two main buckets of the acquired immune response |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Host is not actively involved in, you just acquire due to transfer of immunoglobulins |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 2 Parts of Passive Immunity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Giving someone antibodies against rabies is an example of what immunity? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Passing immunity from the mother to fetus or through breastfeeding is an example of which immunity? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Receiving a flu shot would be an example of which immunity? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | When exposed to an antigen for a second time and memory B and T cells are activated against it, this type of immunity is? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What are the three main levels of acute inflammatory response? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Which antibody is naturally acquired through colostrum from mother? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What is an advantage of passive immunity? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | No long term protection 
 Serum sickness
 
 Type III Hypersensitivity
 
 Transmissino of Hepatitis and AIDS
 
 GVHD
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What are the disadvantages of passive immunity? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Attenuated organisms 
 Killed Organisms
 
 Subcellular Fragments
 
 Toxins
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What are 4 methods in which artificial active immunity can be made from? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When T cells are removed from the thymus and B cells are removed from the bone marrow, then they are inactivated to produce tolerance. |  | Definition 
 
        | What is central tolerance? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Lack of response due to the absence of signals |  | Definition 
 
        | What is peripheral tolerance? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What is the loss of tolerance? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | A mechanism by which we see autoimmune diseases develop.  Molecules that look like self.  Therefore host cells are attcked by immune system. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This is an autoimmune disease that follow strep throat. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Severe Combined Immune Deficiency |  | Definition 
 
        | What does SCID stand for? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The thymus is not developed properly 
 It is a T Cell disease
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Lack of IgG development 
 Lack of B Cell development
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The inability of cells to be phagocytic |  | Definition 
 
        | What is Chediak-Higashi Disease? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Pregnancy 
 Blood Transfusion
 
 Previous Transplant
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What are the three ways that patients can be sensitized to HLA? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This is where the body already has antibodies against transplant. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This is the rejection where HLA sensitization produces HLA specific antibodies and T cells are generated. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Graft versus Host Disease |  | Definition 
 
        | What does GVHD stand for? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  There is no evidence that the frequency of cancer rises with patients with immunodeficiencies. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Tumor associated Antigens |  | Definition 
 
        | These antigens are similar to viral infection and create defective signaling that will not activate T cells properly. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Who developed the smallpox vaccination? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sniffing of small pox crust |  | Definition 
 
        | In 3000 BC Egyptians and 2000 BC in China, sniffed this to be immunized. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | The Turks introduced this in 1500 BC |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This vaccine was introduced in 1885 by Pasteur |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This vaccine was introduced in the 1920's |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Vaccine for this was introduced in 1934 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What vaccine was developed in the 1960's and by whom? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This disease is caused by the variola virus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Activate immune response immediately 
 Produce antibodies quickly
 
 Prevent disease from occurring because the antigen is eliminated rapidly
 |  | Definition 
 
        | A memory B cell or T cell circulating through the body will elicit which three responses when recognizing antigen? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This vaccine is made from a virus or bacteria that has to replicate to work. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Made from a virus or bacteria, can fractionate, and organisms do not replicate. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  A toxoid takes a toxin and chemically alters it so it loses its activity but can still illicit an immune response |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This vaccine type stimulates T cell independent immunity.  It stimulates B cells without T cells, is short lived and needs boosters. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This vaccine type stimulates T cell dependent immunity.  T helper cells involved, produces memory and results in booster effect upon subsequent exposure. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) |  | Definition 
 
        | What is a known complication of the H1N1 vaccine? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  Gullain-Barre Syndrome is a neurological disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  Humoral factors and cell-mediated immune phenomena have been implicated in the damage of myelin and or myelin-producing Schwann cells. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Vaccinations 
 Epidural anesthesia
 
 Thrombolytic agents
 |  | Definition 
 
        | List three events that GBS follows |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What is the infection that is known to hae the highest prevalence of GBS if infected with it before GBS? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What is the primary method of treatment for GBS? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | A single cell producing a single antibody specificity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cleaves both Fab regions and the Fc region |  | Definition 
 
        | How does papain cleave IgG? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Yes they can.  However, effectiveness is quite limited. |  | Definition 
 
        | When papain cleaves an IgG molecule, can Fab and the Fc regions still bind? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This separates the Fc fragment from the Fab regions and leaves the Fab regions bivalent.  Therefore it cannot bind complement anymore. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  A papain digested IgG could neutralize a toxin. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F: Could a pepsin digested IgG neutralize? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | False 
 The macrophage would not be able to recognize
 |  | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  A pepsin or papaindigested fragment can opsonize? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What is the spleen cells in a laboratory fused with to make an immortal cell line? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hypervariable regions directing involved with antigen binding |  | Definition 
 
        | Humanized Monoclonal Antibodies 
 Which part of the mouse antibody is not replace with humanized counterparts to create humanized monoclonal antibodies?
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  In a chimeric antibody, the variable light and variable heavy chains are xenographic in nature. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What type of humanized monoclonal antibody has a human framework, but xenographic CDR? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Hybridomas and recombinant DNA technologies are two ways of producing ____ _____. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | When producing monoclonal antibodies through recombinant technology, what vector is usually used to accomplish this? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Toxins can be coupled to antibodies through papain digestion. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | False 
 OKT3 is against CD3 T cells
 |  | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  OKT3 is a mouse monoclonal antibody that is against CD4 T cells. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What monoclonal antibody would one receive if they were rejecting a transplant? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Shuts down ALL the T cells |  | Definition 
 
        | Why does OKT3 cause patients to be severely immunosuppressed? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Herceptin is a humanized antibody used to treat what type of cancer? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | B-cell leukemia 
 (Chronic lymphocytic leukemia)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Campath is a humanized monoclonal antibody used against what? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  Humira is a monoclonal antibody used to treat rheumatoid arthritis by acting against cytokine TNF |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  Enbrel is a monoclonal antibody used to treat Rheumatoid arthritis by blocking TNF. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | In transplant rejection, the organ transplanted into the recipient is attacked by what cell in the immune system? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When bone marrow is transplanted, the T cells in the transplant attack the recipient's tissues. |  | Definition 
 
        | What is graft versus host disease (GVHD)? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What are three HLA class 1 proteins that are important in transplantations? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What are the three HLA class II proteins that are important in transplants? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | B lymphocytes 
 Monocytes
 
 Dendritic Cells
 |  | Definition 
 
        | HLA class II molecules are found on what cells? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  HLA class I molecules have an alpha transmembrane chain and a beta-2-microglobulin. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  HLA class II molecules have an alpha and a beta transmembrane chain. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Kappa and Lambda refer to _____ chains of immunoglobulins? 
 A.  Heavy
 B.  Light
 C.  Disulfide Bond
 D.  None of the above
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Which chromosome encodes for the HLA genes? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Which HLA gene is encoded most distal from the centromere? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The tope of the head and the antlers |  | Definition 
 
        | Which part of the "Bullwinkle model" contain(s) polymorphisms that govern peptide binding? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Previous rejected organ allografts 
 Previous pregnancy
 
 Previous blood transfusion (WBC)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | How could preformed anti-HLA antibodies be present in renal transplant candidates? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hyperacute rejection; graft thrombosis; graft loss 
 Acute humoral rejection, delayed graft function, early graft loss
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Why are donor reactive HLA specific IgG antibodies a high risk to transplants? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | lymphocyte crossmatch 
 antibody screening tests
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What are two tests that are run to assess HLA sensitization in a patient? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | It is a test to ensure that the transplant recipient does not have antibodies. |  | Definition 
 
        | In a lymphocyte crossmatch, what is being done? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | amos modified NIH XM cell mediated lysis
 |  | Definition 
 
        | In this type of lymphocyte crossmatch, anti HLA-A, B, or C antibodies are detected, and it causes the cell to lyse. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | anti-human globulin (AHG) augmented XM complement mediated lysis
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What type of lymphocyte crossmatch would detect low levels of IgG anti-HLA or non-complement binding antibodies? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Flow cytometric T and B cell XM 
 Complement Independent
 
 Able to detect HLA II antibodies
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What type of lymphocyte crossmatch is similar to AHG but is even more sensitive and is not complement-dependent and uses fluorescence? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Least:  Amos-Modified NIH XM 
 Anti-Human Globulin augmented XM
 
 Most:  Flow Cytometric T&B cell XM
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Rank the lymphocyte crossmatch from least sensitive to most sensitive? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Dendritic cells from donor migrate to the spleen where they activate effector T cells. 
 Effector T cells migrate to graft via blood.
 
 Graft destroyed by effector T cells.
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What happens if a kidney used for transplantation is recognized as foreign to the recipients immune system? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 48 hours 
 Yes, HLA matching benefit
 
 Yes, HLA matching is used in allocation
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the kidney's max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 24 hours 
 No HLA matcing benefit
 
 No, HLA matching in allocation
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the pancreas's max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 24 hours 
 No HLA matching benefit
 
 No HLA matching in allocation
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the liver's max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 4-5 hours 
 Yes, HLA matching benefit
 
 No, HLA matching in allocation because it is so rare.
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the heart max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 6-8 Hours 
 Yes, HLA matching benefit
 
 No HLA matching in allocation
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the lung's max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Indefinite 
 Yes, HLA matching benefit
 
 Yes HLA matching in allocation
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the blood stem cell's max cold time and HLA matching benefit and is HLA matching used in allocation? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Autologous Transplantation 
 Breast Cancer uses this
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the graft called when it is within the same individual or autotransplantation? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Syngeneic Graft 
 Most ideal
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the graft called that uses identical twins (isotransplantation)? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Allogeneic Graft 
 Most common, what Dr. Fowler was a donor for
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What type of graft is non-identical, allotransplantation? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What type of graft occurs between species, xenotransplantation? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cytotoxic Agents 
 Agents interfering with gene expression
 
 Agents interfering with intracellular signaling
 
 Agents interfering with intercellular signaling
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What do immunosuppressive agents do in the body? 
 4 things
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | False 
 The recipient's T cells attack... leads to graft rejection
 |  | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  In kidney tranplantation, the donor's T cells attack the transplant. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  In bone marrow transplantation, the T cells in the transplant or graft attack the recipient's tissue. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | A regimen in which the transplant recipient is prepared for bone marrow transplantation is called _____. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The antigen in the HLA of the recipient is the one recognized by the T cells of the donor. |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the antigen being presented in GVHD? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | By T cell recognitionof host alloantigens. 
 Term alloantigens means same thing as HLA MHC.
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | NK cells, CD8+ T cels, cytokines |  | Definition 
 
        | Effector cells are cells from the donor.  What are a few that are prevalent in the recipient post engraftment? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Epithelial cell necrosis, skin, liver, gastrointestinal tract 
 Characterized by skin rash, jaundice, and diarrhea
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What are some sign of acute GVHD? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Minor histocampatibility antigens are governing the immune response |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the term when all HLA are matched and we still see GVHD? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Adv:  Donor availability and no GVHD 
 Dis:  potential infusion of malignant cells
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is an advantage and disadvantage of autologous transplant? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Adv: No malignant cells infusion, decreased rate of GVHD 
 Dis:  Donor availability and limited GVL
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is an advantage and disadvantage of syngeneic transplant? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Adv: No malignant cells in infusion, GVL 
 Dis:  potential GVHD, potential graft rejection, donor availability, limited by age and co-morbidities
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is an advantage and disadvantage of allogeneic transplant? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The goal and the rationale is to attempt to eradicate all tumor cells prior to bmt and use hemopoetic cells to rescue the patient |  | Definition 
 
        | What does it mean to maximize conditioning? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The goal and the rationale is to use donor stem cells for tolerance and donor T cells and NK cells for GLV/GVTumor or otherwise abnormal host cells |  | Definition 
 
        | What does it mean to minimize the conditioning? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | False 
 They would most likely undergo maximal conditioning
 |  | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  A patient who is young and healthy would most likely undergo minimal conditioning. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Is there a sign of GVHD in stage 0 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What is the worst stage of GVHD? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | allele mismatch single class I mismatch and single class II
 mismatch
 multiple class i mismatch
 class i and class ii mismatch
 |  | Definition 
 
        | rank the probability of survival from highest to lowest of the following:
 multiple class i mismatch
 class i and class ii mismatch
 single class i mismatch
 single class ii mismatch
 allele mismatch
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | class i and class ii mismatch single class ii mismatch
 multiple class i mismatch
 single class i mismatch
 allele match
 |  | Definition 
 
        | rank the propability of gvhd based on mismatching from highest to lowest:
 allele match
 multiple class i mismatch
 class i and class ii mismatch
 single class i mismatch
 single class ii mismatch
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | inhibits dna synthesis....interfers with and inhibits tcell profileration |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | interfering with dena replication and rna transcription
 |  | Definition 
 
        | what is cyclophosphamide? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor..inhibits dna synthesis by inhibiting the production of thymidine
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | antibody against tcells.....depleting tcells inducing complement lysis and uptake...modulates and
 masks cell surface receptors for t&b lymphocytes...
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | interfers with signal tranduction from tcr to inhibit t cell activation and reduces transcription of cytokine
 genes
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | block independent signaling pathways in t & b cells..blocks proliferation of t cells and b cell proliferation and Ig synthesis |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe action of Rapamycin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | elimination, equilibrium and escape |  | Definition 
 
        | what are the three categories of cancer immunoediting |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | represents the process of the immune system that selects or promotes cancer cells and initiates response of immune system to allow cancer to grow or to kill the cancer....important that this is the point that the immune response recognizes the tumor |  | Definition 
 
        | Define equilibrium in cancer immunoediting |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | mutated self protein overexpressed or abernathy expressed self protein oncogenic virus 
 important to denote here that tcells cd8 specifically is the type of cell involved in immunoediting
 |  | Definition 
 
        | How are tumor cells displayihng what proteins/virus will be recognized by CD8 T cells |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | loss/down regulation of HLA class I 
 down regulation, mutation or loss of tumor antigens
 
 loss of co-stimulation alteration in cell death receptor signaling
 
 immunosuppresive cytokines production of other suppressive factors
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What are the 4 ways that cancer avoids immune surveillance? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Stimulating the antitumor response 
 Decreasing suppressor mechanism
 
 Altering tumor cells to increase their immunogenicity and make them more susceptible to immunologic defenses
 
 Improving tolerance to cytotoxic drugs or radiotherapy
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What are the main mechanisms of immunotherapy? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | antibody therapy 
 cytokine therapy
 
 adoptive therapy-passively transfer cells to patient
 
 vaccination
 
 combinational therapy
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What are some current immunotherapeutic strategies? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Killed tumor cells 
 Purified tumor antigens
 
 Dendritic cells pulsed with immunoglobulins
 
 Plasmid DNA immunization
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What are the types of tumor vaccines? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Stimulating tumor cells by exposing them to tumor cells or antigens in the laboratory and the injecting expanded population of treated cells into the patient. 
 Patient is both donor and recipient
 |  | Definition 
 
        | What is adoptive immunotherapy? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Color of staining for gram positive |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Color of staining for acid fast gram positive |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | color of staining for gram-negative |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | color of staining for acid fast |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | color of staining for wall-less |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 1-8 microns   coccus (cocci) bacillus (bacilli) spirochete |  | Definition 
 
        | What are the main shapes of bacteria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What is the bacterial cell was composed of? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | How many layers of peptidoglycan do gram-positive bacteria have?  Gram-negative? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | found in tears, saliva, and nasal secretions |  | Definition 
 
        | What is a natural antimicrobial found in the human body that targets the peptidoglycan of bacteria? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | N-acetyl glucosamide - N-acetyl muramic acid   Have b(1,4) linkages |  | Definition 
 
        | What are the monomers of peptidoglycan? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | L and D amino acids   Variability in these side chains are a typing mechanism for different species |  | Definition 
 
        | What serves as linkages for side chains in peptidoglycan layers? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Lipid A which is in the embedded in the outer membrane |  | Definition 
 
        | What mediates septic shock in gram-negative bacteria? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Peptidoglycans   40+ layers |  | Definition 
 
        | Gram Positive cell walls are composed of what? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Transformation   Transduction   Conjugation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Gram Positive   Peptidoglycan layer is so thick that the MAC cannot penetrate the cell wall. |  | Definition 
 
        | What type of bacterial cell is resistant to complement lysis?  Why? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Waxes and Lipids   These hold onto the acid stains, which gives the cells their names. |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the cell wall composed of in acid-fast bacteria? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Flagella   capsule   pili   cell wall   endospore |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 What are the major components of the prokaryotic cell that can become virulence factors? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Part of the outer membrane that mediates septic shock with a gram negative organism |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Thick Peptidoglycan Layer (40+)   Teichoic Acids and Lipoteichoic Acids   Other Proteins and Carbohydrates |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Important Components for Gram Positive Bacteria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Has an Outer Phospholipid Bilayer Membrane   Periplasmic Space   Single Layer of Peptidoglycan   Porins   Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Important Components for Gram Negative Bacteria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Where do b-lactamases reside in the gram negative bacteria? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 b-lactamases are enzymes that break down b-lactams (penicillins).  Therefore, the organism is resistant to those microbials. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 What is the importance of b-lactamases? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Bacteria in the Bloodstream (Bacteremia) breaks down.  A component of the lipopolysaccharide, Lipid A, helps is engulfed or attached to a macrophage.  The macrophage, which then releases IL-1 and TNF-a, which work synergistically to induce fever, vasodilation, and “leaky” capillaries for chemotaxis of immune cells into tissue. This allows a severe drop in blood pressure and volume.   |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 What Is Happening During Septic Shock? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Treatment centers around two key concepts:  dynamically addressing the primary pathogen responsible for the mediation into sepsis and reversing the hypersensitivity reaction within the individual.  Antibiotics such as tetracyclines have shown to be effective.  Surgical debriidement of infected tissue removes infected cells and bacterial mass.  However, this may lead to a susceptibility to an opportunistic pathogen.  Hemodynamic support, as in pushing fluids and vasopressor agents aid in the reversal of hypersensitivity reactions by the immune system. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 What are accepted and developing methods for treating septic shock?  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Lysozyme hydrolyzes the backbone and is naturally found in tears, saliva, and nasal secretions |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Naturally occurring enzyme that breaks down the peptidoglycan and where it is found |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Main Chain is N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid (b1,4 linkage)   Cross-links are tetrapeptide with both L and D amino acids |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Composition of the murein backbone (peptidoglycan) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 It is found in all species, though is highly variable between species.  It is used for typing. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 What is significant about the tetrapeptide sequence in the murein backbone? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 At the b1,4 linkage between N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Where does lysozyme cleave the murein backbone? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Smooth bacteria include the O-antigen on the end of their LPS, while rough end at the core.          |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 What is the difference between smooth and rough bacteria? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Acid Fast Bacteria (Mycobacteria) |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 These bacteria have a cell wall that is composed of fatty acids and waxes that contribute to virulence. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        |  Filament (major straight structure that is swung around)   Hook (where we have the bend)   Rings (insertions into the membranes) |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Main components of the flagella |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Hair-like proteins that are responsible for adhesion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Sex pili are used in which process |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Protein coat on the surface of bacteria that can be a virulence factor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Lag Phase (first introduction to environment – active metabolism)   Log Phase (rapid cell growth – population doubling every generation)   Stationary Phase (balance between reproduction and death – endospores are formed)   Death Phase |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Phases of Bacterial Growth |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Bacteria that have 0-20°C  optimum growth.  No known psychrophilic human pathogens. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Bacteria that have 20-40°C preferred range, optimum 35-37°C = 98°F body temp (most human pathogens).  This causes special concerns with refrigerated foods |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Bacteria that have 40-90°C growth range |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 need up to 30% salt to grow |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 differentiates based on hemolysis reactions |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 differentiates based on casease production |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 differentiates based on type of lactose fermentation (mixed acid/neutral) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Differentiates based on lactose fermentation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Staphylococcus epidermidis & S. aureus Propionibacterium, Corynebacterium Pityosporum & Candida (fungi) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Normal Flora of Upper Respiratory Tract |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Staphylococcus epidermidis & S. aureus Streptococcus pneumoniae, Hemophilus, Neisseria, diptheroids |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Streptococcus, Lactobacillus, Corynebacterium Actinomycetes, Treponema, Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Candida |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Normal Flora of Large Intestine |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Gram negative enterics (E. coli, Enterobacter, Citrobacter, Proteus, Klebsiella, Shigella), Enterococcus, Lactobacillus, Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Clostridium, Candida |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 S.epidermidis, Micrococcus, Enterococcus,  Lactobacillus, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, Proteus, diptheroids |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Lactobacillus, Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Bacteroides, Clostridium, Candida, Trichomonas vaginalis (protozoan) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Normal Flora of Male external genitalia |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Mycobacterium smegmatis, other skin flora |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Damage to DNA Protein Denaturation Disruption of Cell Membrane of Wall Removal of Sulfhydral Groups |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Modes of Action for Antimicrobials |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Specialized Genetic Elements Capable of Independent Replication |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Genetic Elements that Moves from One Gene Locus to Another |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Transformation   Conjugation   Transduction |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Mechanisms of Bacterial Genetic Transfer |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Nt = N0 2n where n is the number of generations   n = (log Nt – log N0)/0.301 |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Equation for Unchecked Binary Fission |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Time needed for a culture population to double |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 1.      Microbe found in diseased animals and absent from healthy animals   2.      Microbes isolated and grown in culture   3.      Cultures causes disease in healthy animals   4.      Microbe is re-isolated from diseased animals and re-cultured |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Peak  of Disease is known as  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 1.      Incubation period (no signs or symptoms) 2.      Prodromal phase (vague symptoms) 3.      Invasive Phase (most severe signs and symptoms) 4.      Decline Phase (declining signs and symptoms) 5.      Convalescence Period |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Phases of Bacterial Infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Portals of Entry Number of Invading Microbes Adherence Penetration or Evasion of Immune Defense Cytopathic Effects Portals of Exit |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 What are the Important Points of Transmission and Infectious Process |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Pili Lipoteichoic Acid, F and M Proteins |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Virulence Factors that Deal with Adherence |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Exotoxins are produced inside gram positive bacteria and are secreted or released into surrounding media.   Endotoxins are incorporated into the outer surface of the cell wall in gram negative bacteria.  They are liberated when the cell breaks apart. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 What is the difference between Exotoxins and Endotoxins? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Fragment A (inhibits protein synthesis) 
 Fragment B (binds to surface of CD by CD2) |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 What are the two fragments of Diptheria Toxin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Protein A binds the Fc region of IgG |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Why is Protein A expression on the surface of microbes considered an antiphagacytic agent? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Purification of Antibodies |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 What is Protein A also used for? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Genetic recombination presents a myriad of possible combinations for pili structure. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 How do pili evade the immune system? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Penicillians   cephalasporins   bacitracin   vancomycin |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Antimicrobials that Inhibit Cell Wall Synthesis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Antimicrobials that Inhibit Nucleic Acid Replication and Transcription |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Chloramphenicol   erythromycin   tetracyclines   streptomycin |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Antimicrobials that Inhibit Translation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sulfanilamides   trimethoprim |  | Definition 
 
        | Antimicrobials that Inhibit Metabolite Synthesis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Antimicrobials that Cause Injury to Plasma Membrane |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Protein Shell That Coats And Encloses Nucleic Acid (RNA Or DNA) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Make Up Capsid.  Morphologic Units (Polypeptides)  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Classified as + or -.  Lipid containing membrane surrounding some viral particles.   Becomes very important when we look at the release of some viral particles. As the virus exits the cell, it may carry host membrane components. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Describe the Envelope of a Viral Particle |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Protein/Nucleic Acid Complex  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 naked ssDNA viron with icosahedral symmetry that causes 5th disease |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 enveloped dsDNA viron with icosahedral symmetry that causes HPV and genital warts |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 dsDNA viron with complex symmetry and coats that causes Herpes Type 1 and 2 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 enveloped RNA viron that causes SARS |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 enveloped RNA viron that causes HIV |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 enveloped RNA viron with helical symmetry that causes flu |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 enveloped RNA viron with helical symmetry that causes rabies |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Attachment Penetration Uncoating Expression of viral genome Synthesis of viral components Assembly Release |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Basic Steps for Viral Replication Cycle |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Causes Mononucleosis   Attaches via CD21 on B cells |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Respiratory   Most exposure to the environment |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 The most common port of entry for viral infections is |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Cilia, lymphocytes, macrophages, IgA |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Localized Immune Response to Respiratory Viral Infections |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | How many cases worldwide do we have of HIV? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Worldwide New Infection Rate with HIV for 2007 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sub-Saharan Africa   22.5 million cases   Especially in Zimbabwe and Botswana |  | Definition 
 
        | Where is the heaviest accumulation of HIV cases seen? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What strain of HIV and what type of virus is responsible for causing AIDS? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Binding and Entry   Reverse Transcription   Replication   Budding   Maturation |  | Definition 
 
        | Phases of the HIV Life Cycle |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When the CD4 cell count falls below 200 cells/ml   and/or   A typical AIDS-defining illness is observed |  | Definition 
 
        | When is an HIV infection considered AIDS? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Which presents a good correlation of disease progression with HIV, viral load or CD4 cell count? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What are "cofactors" for HIV infection? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Erythema infectisum. Mild constitutional symptoms may accompany the rash, which has a typical “slapped cheek” appearance.  Join involvement is a prominent feature in adult cases.  The symptoms mimic RA. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Clinical manifestation of parvovirus (Fifth Disease) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Treatment for Fifth Disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Oropharyngeal:  HSV-1 involves the buccal and gingival mucosa of the mouth.  Symptoms include fever, sore throat, vesicular and ulcerative lesions, gingivostomatitis, and malaise. Keratoconjunctivitis: HSV-1 may occur in the eye, producing sever keratoconjunctivtis Genital Herpes: HSV-2 causes genital herpes is characterized by vesiculoulcertive lesions of the penis of the male or the cervic, vulva, vagina, and perineum of the female |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Clinical manifestations of Herpesviruses |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Several antiviral drugs have proved effective against HSV infections, including acyclovir, valacyclovir, and vidarabine.  Acyclovir is currently the standard therapy.   All are inhibitors of viral DNA synthesis. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Symptoms of classic influenza usually appear abruptly and include chills, headache, and dry cough, followed closely by high fever, generalized muscular aches, malaise, and anorexia. |  | Definition 
 
        | Clinical manifestation of orthomyxovirus (influenza) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 The NA inhibitors zanamivir and oseltamivir were approved in 1999 for treatment of both influenza A and B.   To be maximally effective, the drugs must be administered very early in the disease. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 The human coronavirses produce “colds” usually afebrile in adults.  The tymptoms are similar to those produced by rhinovirses, typified by nasal discharge and malaise.   Symptoms usually last about 1 week. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Clinical manifestation of coronavirus (SARS) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        |   There is no proven treatment and no vaccine.   |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        |   The clinical spectrum can be divided into three phases a short prodromal phase – malaise, anorexia, headache, photophobia, nausea, sore throat and/or fever acute neurologic phase – signs of nervous system dysfunction coma phase   |  | Definition 
 
        |   Clinical manifestation of rabies   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Source: Macrophages (IFN-a), fibroblasts (IFN-b)   Function: Antiviral |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Source:  T Cells and NK Cells   Function: Activateion of macrophage and TH1 differentiation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Source:  Macrophages and T cells   Function:  Cell activation, fever, cachexia, antitumor |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Source: T cells   Function:  Activates PMNs |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Source:  Macrophages   Function:  Cell activation, fever |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Source:  T cells   Function:  T cell growth and activation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Source: T cells and mast cells   Function: B cell proliferation and switching to IgE TH2 differentiation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Source: Macrophages   Function: Differentiation of T cells activation of NK cells |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Spores germinate in the tissue at the site of entry, and growth of the vegetative organisms results in formation of gelatinous edema and congestion.  Bacilli spread via lymphatics to bloodstream shortly before and after death. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Characteristics of spores of Bacillus anthracis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Capsule is required for virulence.  The poly-D-glutamic acid capsule is antiphagocytic.  The capsule gene is on a plasmid. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Characteristics of capsule of Bacillus anthracis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Anthrax toxin is made up of three proteins: protective antigen (PA), edema factor (EF), and lethal factor (LF).  PA binds to specific cell receptors, and following proteolytic activation it forms a membrane channel that mediates entry of EF and LF into the cell. EF is an adenylyl cyclase; with PA it forms a toxin known as edema toxin.   LF plus PA form lethal toxin, which is a major virulence factor and cause of death. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Characteristics of Anthrax toxin from Bacillus anthracis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Many antibiotics are effective against anthrax in humans, but treatment must be started early.   Ciprofloxacin is recommended for treatment; penicillin G, along with gentamicin or streptomycin, has previously been used to treat anthrax. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Treatment of infection with Bacillus anthracis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus has two distinct forms The emetic type is associated with fried rice The diarrheal type is associated with meat dished and sauces. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 What is an infection of Bacillus cereus associated with? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and occasionally diarrhea.  Recovery occurring within 24 hours. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Clinical manifestation of the emetic form of B cereus infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Incubation period of 1-24 hours is followed by profuse diarrhea with abdominal pain and cramps.  Fever and vomiting are uncommon. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Clinical manifestation of diarrheal form of B cereus infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 An exotoxin that has seven antigenic variants, however types A, B, and E are the principal causes of human illness.  Types A and B have been associated with a variety of foods and type E predominately with fish products.   The toxin is a large protein that is cleaved into two proteins linked by a disulfide bond. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Characteristics of Clostridium botulinum toxin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Toxin is absorbed from the gut and binds to receptors of presynaptic membranes of motor neurons of the PNS and cranial nerves.   After cleaving of the toxin, it inhibits the release of ACh at the synapse, resulting in lack of muscle contraction and paralysis.   |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Pathology of Clostridium botulinum toxin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Yes, the toxins are destroyed by heating for 20 minutes at 100 °C. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Can Clostridum botulinum toxin be destroyed? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Visual disturbances (incoordination of eye muscles), inability to swallow, and speech difficulty, signs of bulbar paralysis are progressive, and death occus from respiratory paralysis or cardiac arrest. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Clinical manifestation of oral digestion of Clostridum botulinum |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Potent antitoxins to three types of botulinum toxins have been prepared in horses.  Since the type responsible for an individual case is not known, trivalent antitoxin must be promptly administered with customary precautions. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Treatment of Clostridum botulinum |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 The toxin initially binds to receptors on presynaptic membranes of motor neurons, and migrates to the CNS.  The toxin diffuses to terminals of inhibitory neurons, and degrades a protein required for docking of neurotransmitter vesicles on the presynaptic membrane.  Release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters is blocked, and motor neurons are not inhibited.  Spastic paralysis results. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Pathology of Clostridum tetani toxin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 The disease is characterized by tonic contraction of voluntary muscles (lockjaw).  Gradually, other moluntary muscles become involved, resulting in tonic spasms.  Any external stimulus may precipitate a titanic generalized muscle spasm.  Death usually results from interference with the mechanics of respiration. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Clinical manifestation of Clostridium tetani |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 The IM administration of human antitoxin give adequate systemic protection.  It neutralizes the toxin that HAS NOT BEEN FIXED to nervous tissue. Patients who develop symptoms are treated symptomatically, with muscle relaxants, sedation, and assisted ventilation.  Penicillin strongly inhibits the growth of bacteria and prevents further toxin production. |  | Definition 
 
        |   Treatment of Clostridium tetani   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 Bacteria that is the causal agent for gas gangrene |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 The alpha toxin is a lecithinase, and its lethal action is proportionate to the rate of splitting.  The theta toxin has similar hemolytic and ncrotizing effects but is not a leithinase.  DNase and hyaluronidase are also produced. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Characteristics of Clostridium perfringens toxin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 From a contaminated wound, production of a foul smelling discharge, rapidly progressing necrosis, fever, hemolysis, toxemia, shock, and death.  Food poisoning usually follows the ingestion of large numbers of this bacteria  that have grown in warmed meat dishes.  The toxin forms when the organisms sporulate in the gut, with the onset of diarrhea – usually without vomiting or fever.  |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Clinical manifestation of Clostrdium perfringens |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 Administration of antimicrobial drugs, particularly penicillin, is begun at the same time as surgical debridement if cutaneous.  Food poisoning due to entertoxin usually requires only symptomatic care. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 Treatment of infection with Clostridium perfringens |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
 There are over 35 different species, three of which are of clinical significance. Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis, and Staphylococcus saprophyticus |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 The genus Staphylococcus has how many species?  How many and which ones are of clinical significance |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
 What is an enzyme that is produced that differentiates staphylococci from streptococci? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Catalase – converts H2O2 into H2O and O2   Coagulase – initiates fibrin polymerization   Clumping factor – responsible for adherence of organisms to fibrinogen and fibrin   Exotoxins – attacks membranes (cell membrane and sphingomyelin)   Leukocidin – attacks and kills white blood cells   Exfoliative toxins – superantigens that cause desquamation   Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin – TSST-1 binds to MHC class II which promotes toxic shock symptoms   Enterotoxins - superantigens   |  | Definition 
 
        |   What are the main substances and toxins that are associated with staphylococci?   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Most bacteria in Group A Streptococci (GAS) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Type of Hemolysis with S pyogenes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Pharngitis   Impetigo   Rheumatic Fever   Scarlet Fever   Glomerulonephritis |  | Definition 
 
        | Common and Important Diseases associated with S. pyogenes (GAS) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Composed of hyaluronic acid   Impede phagocytosis |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the capsule of GAS |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Consist partly of M protein   Covered with lipoteichoic acid (important for attachement to EC) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Streptokinase (fibrinolysin to break up clots)   Streptodornase (depolymerizes DNA)   Hyaluronidase (spreading factor)   Pyrogenic Exotoxins (Erythrogenic Toxin - associated with Streptococcal toxic shock syndrom and scarlet fever)   Diphosphopyridine Nucleotidase (aid in killing leukocytes)   Hemolysins |  | Definition 
 
        | What are the important Toxins and Enzymes produced by S. pyogenes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | pharyngitis   Pili attache to epithelium via lipoteichnoic acid.    In infants and small children, the sore throat occrs with little fever and extends to middle ear and the mastoid.  Cervical lymph nodes are typically enlarged.    In older children and adults, disease is more acute.  Characterized by intense nasopharyngitis, tonsilitis, and intense redness and edema of the mucous membranes and high fever. |  | Definition 
 
        | Name and describe the most common infection due to S pyogenes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Consists of superficial vesicles that break down and erode areas where surface is covered with pus and later is encrusted.  It spreads continuity and is highly communicable.    More widespread infection occurs in eczematous or wounded skin or in burns and may progress to cellulitis. |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe impetigo caused by S pyogenes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Penicillin G   most are also susceptible to erythromycin |  | Definition 
 
        | Treatment of choice for S pyogenes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Penicillin's action is to inhibit cell wall growth (formation of peptidoglycan cross-links) |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the mode of action for the first antibiotic of choice for GAS? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | False.  Antigens may be present with killed bacteria. |  | Definition 
 
        | T/F:  A positive antigen test for GAS, indicates the presence of a live bacteria. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Predominant Site for E coli infections |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | staphylococci and streptococci |  | Definition 
 
        | Most common Enterobacteriacae causing GI inflammation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Gram negative rods   many times are motile due to peritrichous flagella   may or may not have a capsule   may be aerobic or anaerobic |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the general class of Enterobacteriacae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Lipopolysaccharide side chains   Over 150 O serotypes |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Capsule   Over 100 capsular antigens |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Flagella   Over 50 flagellar antigens |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | E coli causes 90% of UTIs   K antigen (capsule) is mainly responsible |  | Definition 
 
        | What is the most common cause of urinary tract infection, what percentage of UTIs are caused this way, and what it the primary virulance factor used? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | EPEC is an important cause of diarrhea in infants.  Nosocomial and community infection for developed countries.   Adhere to mucosal cells of bowls by chromosomal encoded adherence factors.  Loss of microvilli and formation of pedestals.   Result is self-limiting, watery diarrhea.   Duration shortened and cured by antibiotic treatment.  |  | Definition 
 
        | Discuss Enteropathogenic E coli |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ETEC is a causitive agent for "traveler's diarrhea" or "Montizuma's Revenge" and diarrhea for infants in developing countries.   Produce toxins LT and ST (discussed on another card)   Spread by fecal contamination.   At least 108 E coli need to be present to result in transmission. |  | Definition 
 
        | Discuss Enterotoxigenic E coli |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Organisms produce LT and/or ST   LT (heat-labile exotoxin) is a high MW protein in two subunits.  Subunit B attaches to EC and facilitates entry of Subunit A.  Hypersecretion of water and chlorides results, with the inhibition of reabsorption of sodium.   ST (heat-stable enterotoxin) is a low MW protein that stimulates fluid secretion.     Both toxins are found on a plasmid. |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the toxins produced by ETEC |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | EHEC is a causitive agent for hemorrhagic colitis ("Hamburger disease") with hemolytic uremic syndrome.  Causes DIC in arterioles and arteries of nephrons, decreasing kidney function and potentially acute kidney failure and thrombocytopenia.     Extremely low innoculum required for disease.  Most common serotype is O157:H7.   Many cases can be prevented by thoroughly cooking ground beef. |  | Definition 
 
        | Discuss Enterohaemorrhagic E coli |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | EIEC is similar to shigellosis   Invasion of epithelial cells   Food and water borne.   Most common in children in developing countries. |  | Definition 
 
        | Discuss Enteroinvasive E coli |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Shigellae are slender gram-negative rods, that are aerobic or anaeorobic, and ferment glucose.  Shigella sonnei also ferments lactose.   More than 40 O serotypes |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the organism of shigelae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Endotoxins (lipid A)   Shigella dysenteriae exotoxin |  | Definition 
 
        | Two types of toxins from Shigellae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Heat-labile exotoxin that affects both the gut and CNS.  The exotoxin is a protein that is antigentic, thus may illicit antitoxin production.   Produces diarrhea and inhibits sugar and amino acid absorption in the small intestine, proceeds to dysentery with blood and pus in stools.  The neurotoxin effect may rsult in meningismus or coma. |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the Shigella Dysenteriae Exotoxin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Motile organisms with peritrichous flagella.  The classification of salmonellae is complex because the organisms are a continuum rather than a defined species.  Antigenic structures O, H, and Vi (equivalent to K) are important pathogenic factors.     The organisms enter via the oral route, usually with contaminated food or drink.  Host factors contribute to resistance.  Salmonellae produce three main types of disease in humans (enteric fevers, septicemias, and enterocolitis), but mixed forms are frequent. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Produced by only a few of the salmonellae, of which Salmonella typhi is the most important.     Ingested salmonellae reach the small intestine, go through the lymphatics to the blood stream.  The organisms multiply in the intestinal lymphoid tissue and are excreted in stools.   After an incubation period of 10-14 days, fever, malaise, headache, constipation, bradycardia, and myalgia occur.  A gradual rise then high plateau in fever occurs.   Antimicrobials have reduced mortality rate from 10-15% to less than 1%. |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe Enteric Fever (Typhoid Fever) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Most common manifestation of salmonella infection.  Organism penetrates and replicates inside of cell.   8-48 hours after ingestion, nausea, headache, vomiting, profuse diarrhea with low-grade fever occurs.  Episode usually resolves in 2-3 days.     Bacteremia is rate (2-4%). |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe Enterocolitis infection from Salmonella species |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Abrupt onset of liquid diarrhea in edemic area, up to 5 L/day in severe forms.  Needs prompt replacement of fluids and electrolytes IV or orally.  Killer in 3rd world countries.   Ogranisms gow in gut and produce toxin (describe on another card).  Toxin causes hypersecretion in small intestine.  Disease is toxin-mediated.   |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe clinical features, epidemiology and pathogenesis of Vibrio cholarae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
Permenant activation of G proteinAdenylene cyclase activated to produce 2nd messenger cAMPRelease of potassium, chlorine, sodium, and bicarbonate ions.Change in osmotic pressure leads to diarrhea |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the process invoked by Cholera Toxin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Fever, diarrhea; PMNs and fresh blood in stools, especially in children.  Usually self-limited.   Infection via oral route from food and pets.  Organisms grow in the small intestine.  Invasion of mucous membrane.  Any toxins are uncertain. |  | Definition 
 
        |   
Describe clinical features, epidemiology and pathogenesis of Campylobacter jejuni   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Upper gastrointestinal illness with nausea and pain.  About 90% of patients with duodenal ulcers and 50-80% of those with gastric ulcers are caused by H pylori.     Spiral-shaped gram negative rod with many flagella on one end that grows best in pH 6-7 at 37 °C.     H pylori is found deep in the mucous layer where the pH is more suitable for growth.  The bacterium overlies gastric-type EC.  Production of a protease that modifies the gastric mucus, reduces the ability of acid to diffuse through the mucus.  Potent urease activity, which yields production of ammonia and further buffering of acid. |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Describe clinical features, epidemiology and pathogenesis of Helicobacter pylori |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Nomenclature confusion as this is not a virus, but a gram negative rod, with capsular polysaccharide.   No exotoxin, and causes flu-like symptoms.  Therefore many times is mis-diagnosed as the seasonal flu.   High carrier-rate |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe Haemophilus influenzae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Small gram-negative rod that casues chancroid (soft chancre), an STD.   Ragged ulcer on the genitaliaz.   Treatment with IM ceftriaxone, oral Bactrim, or oral Erythromycin. |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe Haemophilus ducreyi |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Gram-negative coccobacilli that has an vaccine (though boosters are needed)   Organisms colonize epithelium after transmission via the respiratory route.  After a 2 week incubation, the "catarrhal stage" develops, shere large numbers of organisms are sprayed in droplets during mild coughing.  During the "paroxysmal" stage, the cough develops its explosive character and the characteristic "whoop" upon inhalation.   Toxins 
 
Pertussis toxin - causes coughAdenylate cyclase toxin - damage to cell signalingDermonecrotic toxin - necrotic condition of skinHemolysin - irritation of bronchiols that contributes to cough and secondary infections     |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe Bordetella pertussis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Abrupt onset of fever   Hypotension   Headache   Stiff neck (nuchal rigidity)   Rash |  | Definition 
 
        | Clinical manefestations of Neisseria meningitidis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Transmission is via respiratory droplets   The nasopharynx is the portal of entry, however can become a transient portion of the flora.   Temporal pattern peaks in late winter to early spring. |  | Definition 
 
        | Transmission and Portal of Entry for Neisseria meningitidis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Aerobic gram-negative bacteria   At least 13 serogroups based on polysaccharide capsule   Relative importance of serogroups depends on geographic location and other factors, such as age. |  | Definition 
 
        | Describe the organism of Neisseria meningitidis |  | 
        |  |