The best vaccine for an encapsulated extra-cellular bacterium would likely stimulate the production of antibodies that:  A) activate mast cells  B) attract eosinophils  C) stimulate the acute phase response  D) opsonize and activate complement

D) opsonize and activate complement

1. Trauma to one eye can lead to damage to both eyes because:  A) you might fail to recognize your girlfriend or boyfriend  B) endogenous viruses could travel to the other eye via nerves  C) type I hypersensitivity could be induced by foreign objects such as splinters and fibers  D) self antigens would be transported to lymphoid tissue leading to sensitization

1. Herpes virus can inhibit cell surface expression of MHC I molecules.  This is an effective means of immune evasion because during a Herpes infection:  A) CD4+ T cells will not be activated  B) cytotoxic T cells will not be able to recognize Herpes virus infected cells  C) natural killer cells will not be able to recognize Herpes virus infected cells  D) all of the above

1. The major way in which intracellular bacteria evade the immune system is to avoid:  A) being killed once they are phagocytized  B) being phagocytized  C) lysis by beta interferon  D) none of the above

1. Most congenital immunodeficiencies are:  A) more common in females  B) involve a defect in a single gene  C) induced by infections with pox viruses  D) due to multiple defects found on the Y chromosome

1. Which of the following types of grafts would be rejected within days after grafting due to destruction of donor tissue involving antibody and complement?  A) 1^st set allograft  B) 2^nd set allograft  C) xenograft  D) both b and c

1. Which of the following types of vaccines would be most likely to stimulate a vigorous cell mediated immune response?  A) attenuated virus  B) inactivated virus  C) viral capsid  D) a toxoid

1. If an individual failed to make functional C1, C2, and C4, what type of hypersensitivity would be more likely to occur in this individual?  A) Type 1  B) Type II  C) Type III  D) Type IV

1. Insulin resistant (type II or adult onset) diabetes mellitus is not very treatable with insulin because:  A) insulin receptors are reduced or blocked  B) insulin production is impaired  C) glomeruli are damaged  D) TSH receptors are blocked

1. The binding of HIV viral protein, GP120 to specific chemokine receptors on T cells and antigen presenting cells promotes which stage in viral infection?  A) initial attachment of the viral capsid to the cell membrane  B) viral envelope- cell membrane fusion  C) reverse transcription  D) the exit of newly synthesized viral particles

1. In a wheal and erythema on the skin of an individual caused by type 1 hypersensitivity, the wheal in the center contains mostly:  A) B cells  B) neutrophils  C) fluid  D) T lymphocytes

1. The types of antigens that most commonly cause type I hypersensitivity are:  A) small, soluble, carbohydrates  B) small, soluble proteins  C) large, insoluble proteins  D) cross-linked nucleic acids

1. IgE antibodies do not usually cause type III hypersensitivity because:  A) they do not fix complement  B) they do not forma  large number of small soluble complexes  C) they are quickly bound to mast cells  D) all of the above

1. The major difference between local type III hypersensitivity reactions such as the Arthus reaction and systemic types of hypersensitivity such as serum sickness relates to whether:  A) IgE or IgG is the major class of antibody involved  B) NK cells are recruited into the bloodstream  C) a granuloma forms to wall off the response  D) the immune complexes deposit inside or outside of blood vessels

1. A person with Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia would not be likely to suffer from: A) autoimmune hemolytic anemia  B) pernicious anemia  C) Graves disease  C) any of the above

1. D) any of the above

1. Hashiomoto’s disease and Grave’s disease represent organ specific forms of autoimmunity. Which organ are they specific for?  A) kidneys  B) striated muscle  C) thymus  D) thyroid

1. There are many types of organ specific autoimmune diseases.  This may be due in part to the fact that antigens specific to these organs:  A) are not expressed in the thymus and therefore are not involved in negative selection  B) are not expressed in the thymus and therefore are not involved in positive selection  C) are not expressed in secondary lymphoid tissue and therefore cannot cause apoptosis of basophils  D) are mainly T independent antigens

1. Antibodies to instrinsic factor usually lead to:  A) pernicious anemia  B) a normal process of removing aged erythrocytes  C) a severe form of type IV hypersensitivity  D) a transient form of serum sickness

1. A means of immunotherapy for cancer which is/are being tested involve(s) taking out ______ and treating them by _________ before reinjecting them into the patient:  A) tumor cells, transfecting them with the gene for B7  B) tumor cells, expanding them with IL-2  C) tumor infiltrating lymphocytes, transfecting them with the gene for B7  D) both b and c

1. It is often difficult to produce useful vaccines specific for infectious agents which normally cause chronic infections.  This is likely to be true because these agents:  A) do not stimulate cell mediated immunity  B) express no antigen  C) express no MHC  D) are not eliminated by the type(s) of immunity they stimulate

1. D) are not eliminated by the type(s) of immunity they stimulate

1. Purified capsular polysaccharide vaccines for human use are sometimes altered to initiate a T cell dependent antibody response by:  A) adding Freund’s complete adjuvant  B) adding heat inactivated LPS  C) conjugating the polysaccharide to a protein  D) cross-linking the polysaccharide

1. The measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine occasionally causes disease in individuals receiving the vaccine.  This is sometimes due to the fact that one or more of the:  A) attenuated viruses reverts to a virulent form  B) toxoids have not been completely inactivated  C) antigens react with natural IgM antibodies leading to type IV hypersensitivity  D) none of the above

1. Hyperacute rejection of an allograft would not e likely to occur in which of the following individuals:  A) a person with Bruton’s aggamablobulinemia  B) a person with defective C9  C) an atopic individual  D) a person with rheumatoid arthritis

1. Chronic graft rejection of allografts is usually due to differences in _____ antigens.  A) MHC I  B) MHC II  C) minor histocompatibility  D) blood group

1. Which of the following treatments of an allograft recipients would be considered the most specific (have the least amount of unwanted side effects):  A) cytotoxic drugs that act on rapidly proliferating cells  B) corticosteroids  C) cyclosporine  D) antibody specific for MHC I

1. The two most important antigens of the influenza virus for the generation of and recognition of neutralizing antibodies are the neuraminidase and the _______.  A) hemagglutinin  B) gp120  C) protease  D) major basic protein

1. The type of antigenic variation among influenza viruses most likely to lead to a pandemic is:  A) antigenic shift  B) antigenic modulation  C) antigenic seclusion  D) antigenic shift

1. In addition to binding to CD4, HIV virions also bind to: A) antibody  B) CD8  C) a chemokine receptor  D) a complement receptor

1. A deficiency in early complement components could contribute to the generation of an autoimmune disease because:  A) clearance of immune complexes  B) enhanced lysis of the bodies own cells would release nuclear contents  C) IgE production would be increased  D) CD4+, CD25+ cells would be activated

1. Which of the following individuals would be least likely to exhibit an acute rejection of a kidney from a human donor?  A) a person with Brutons agammaglobulinemia  B) a person with DiGeorge Syndrome  C) a person with systemic lupus erythematosis  D) a person who had previously received a graft from a baboon

1. Which of the following types of hypersensitivity usually involve complement fixation?  A) Type I  B) Types II and III  C) Type IV  D) None of them

1. In Graves disease, autoantibodies mimic the effect of _____.  A) testosterone B) T3 and T4  C) TSH  D) thyroglobulin

1. Which of the follow does not occur during Type 1 hypersensitivity sensitization?  A) antigen presentation  B) B cell activation  C) TH1 cell activation  D) Tcyt cell activation

1. Regulatory T cells express which of the following cell surface markers?  A) CD14  B) CD25  C) mannose binding receptor  D) CD40

1. Type I hypersensitivity reactions are usually very quick because:  A) they involve complement  B) they involve pre formed mediators  C) they involve pre sensitized Tct cells  D) macrophages are found in all tissues

1. The types of antigens that most commonly cause type II hypersensitivity are: A) small, soluble, carbohydrates  B) small, soluble proteins  C) cell and matrix associated antigens  D) cross-linked nucleic acids

1. If a patient lacked neutrophils, which type(s) of hypersensitivity would be decreased or absent?  A) Type I  B) Type II  C) Type III D) Type IV

1. D) Type IV

1. The major difference between local Type III hypersensitivity reactions such as the Arthus reaction and systemic types of hypersensitivity such as serum sickness relates to whether:  A) IgE or IgG is the major class of antibody involved B) NK cells are recruited into the bloodstream  C) a granuloma forms to wall off the response  D) the immune complexes deposit inside or outside of blood vessels

1. D) the immune complexes deposit inside or outside of blood vessels

1. A person with bare lymphocyte syndrome (lacking MHC II) would have immune defects similar to a patient with:  A) Grave’s disease  B) systemic lupus erythematosis  C) Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia  D) full blown AIDS

1. Grave’s disease involves autoantibodies specific for:  A) acetylchone  B) acetylcholine receptors  C) thyroid stimulating hormone  D) thyroid stimulating hormone receptors

1. D) thyroid stimulating hormone receptors

1. One mechanism for preventing autoimmunity is ____ tolerance which occurs when T lymphocytes react with non-immune cells outside of lymphoid tissue and fail to receive all of the signals necessary for activation.  A) follicular  B) heteroclitic  C) isotopic  D) peripheral

1. D) peripheral

1. Epitope switching in autoimmunity can occur due to the: A) aggregation of activated and naïve T cells  B) somatic hypermutation of helper T cells  C) B cell uptake of particles containing multiple antigenic polymers  D) dilation of local blood vessels

1. We are not able to generate vaccines similar to Edward Jenner’s vaccine against smallpox because:  A) most modern diseases are chronic  B) of a lack of an appropriate adjuvant  C) most pathogens don’t have a natural non-pathogenic relative  D) capsule subunits are poorly immunogenic

1. Cyclosporin A blocks IL-2 production by:  A) blocking ZAP 70 transport B) blocking the action of a phasophtase  C) increasing cyclic AMP levels  D) acting as a receptor antagonist

1. Viral vaccines are often produced by using an attenuated form of the virus.  Attenuation is usually achieved by:  A) combining the virus with an adjuvant  B) promoting mutations of the virus in other species  C) treatment with formalin  D) purifying the capsid proteins to be used as antigens

1. Which of the following viral vaccines would likely trigger a greater cell mediated immune response:  A) killed  B) live attenuated  C) subunit (the capsid only)  D) finely ground Cheetos

1. Rejection of first set allografts usually occurs due to the _____ in the recipient:  A) presences of pre-formed antibodies  B) inability to form new blood vessels  C) species specificity of growth factors  D) generation fo sensitized T cells

1. Passenger leukocytes often promote rejection of an allograft because:  A) they serve as a source of foreign MHC I  B) they serve as a source of foreign MHC II  C) they can survive storage conditions better than most other cells  D) they annoy the other passengers by playing loud music and singing the OU fight song

1. In multiple sclerosis, the self antigen recognized by the immune system is associated with:  A) acetylcholine  B) instrinsic factor  C) islet cells  D) myelin

1. Blood clotting could elict the production of autoantibodies because:  A) novel epitopes are created when proteins are cleaved  B) the clotting system is made up of polysaccharides which have repeating epitopes  C) clotting components are excluded from positive selection  D) there are no thrombin receptors on B cells

1. If a virus produced a homologue of IFN gamma that acts similar to the host’s own INF gamma and infection was best blocked by neutralizing IgA antibodies- A) this could be of no benefit to the virus  B) this could benefit the virus by cuasing a TH1 to TH2 shift  C) this could benefit the virus by causing a TH2 to TH1 shift  D) this could benefit the virus by down regulating CD3 expression

1. Antigenic drift among influenza viruses occurs because of:  A) genetic exchange between human and avian strains  B) variation in which gene of a set of functionally related genes is expressed  C) accumulation of point mutations over time  D) somatic hypermutation

1. Autoimmune diseases and inherited immunodeficiencies differ in that autoimmune diseases:  A) are not influenced by genetics  B) usually have multiple contributing factors  C) accumulation of point mutations over time  D) somatic hypermutation

1. Which of the following individuals would be least likely to exhibit an acute rejection of an allograft?  A) a person with Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia  B) a person with type I hypersensitivity  C) a person with systemic lupus erythematosis  D) a person with DiGeorge Syndrome

1. The HIV virus infects T cells and:  A) B cells B) dendritic cells and macrophages  C) neutrophils  D) none of the above

1. If you experienced a crusty rash which you first noticed the day after you walk around Lake Carl Blackwell and found that the rash contained a large number of monocytes, you would conclude that the rash was most likely caused by:  A) malaria  B) a type I hypersensitivity reaction  C) a type III hypersensitivity reaction  D) a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

1. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency is no longer called lazy leukocyte syndrome because:  A) the ACLU found the term discriminatory to neutrophils  B) the deficiency has nothing to do with migration  C) the deficiency effects migration but has nothing to do with how fast leukocytes move  D) both terms are equally accurate but leukocyte adhesion deficiency in an international meeting

1. The principle targets for currently used therapeutic agents which inhibit HIV virus replication are the _____ and ______ of this virus.  A) capsid and DNA polymerase  B) protease and reverse transcriptase  C) tyrosine kinase and DNA polymerase  D) tyrosine kinase and protease

1. In a wheal and erythema on the skin of an individual caused by type I hypersensitivity, the wheal is usually due to:  A) dilation of local blood vessels  B) constriction of local blood vessels  C) increased vascular permeability  D) free hemoglobin from lysed erythrocytes

1. C3 and C4 are often decreased in patients with systemic lupus erythematosis.  This is most likely due to:  A) decreased production because of pancreatic damage  B) decreased production due to kidney damage  C) binding of C3 and C4 to the surface of mast cells  D) cleavage of C3 and C4 through the classical complement pathway

1. D) cleavage of C3 and C4 through the classical complement pathway

1. IgM antibodies do not usually cause type IV hypersensitivity because:  A) they do not fix complement  B) they do not form large complexes  C) type IV hypersensitivity involves cell mediated immunity  D) it is quickly bound to mast cells and basophils

1. Individuals with a CCR5 chemokine receptor defect are resistant to HIV infection because:  A) their T cells fail to migrate to sites of HIV infection  B) the CCR5 chemokine receptor acts as a co-receptor for HIV binding  C) HIV infected cells secrete a CCR5 homologue which diverts dendritic cell trafficking  D) CCR5 is toxic for HIV

1. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia involves a defect in:  A) integrin beta chian expression  B) generation of toxic oxygen derivatives  C) the Btk tyrosine kinase  D) MHC expression

1. Newborn infants of mothers with myasthenia gravis exhibit symptoms of myasthenia gravis at birth that goes away within about two weeks.  The cause of the transient disease in infants is likely to be:  A) placental passage of acetylcholine receptor specific antibodies  B) placental passage of myelin sheath specific antibodies  C) Rh blood group differences between the mother and fetus  D) excessive production of alpha fetoprotein

1. Organ specific autoimmunity diseases are fairly common.  This may be due in part to the fact that antigens specific to these organs:  A) are not expressed in the thymus and therefore are not involved in negative selection  B) are not expressed in the thymus and therefore not involved in positive selection  C) are not expressed in secondary lymphoid tissue and therefore cannot cause apoptosis of basophils  D) are mainly T independent antigens

1. Autoantibodies to red blood cell surface antigens often lead to:  A) autoimmune hemolytic anemia  B) pernicious anemia  C) a severe form of type IV hypersensitivity  D) a transient form of serum sickness

1. The vaccine for measles and mumps should not be given to individuals with DiGeorge syndrome because:  A) they could get severe cases of measles and mumps  B) green monkey’s don’t eat bananas  C) they would have a type IV hypersensitivity reaction  D) muscle is a privileged site

1. It is often difficult to produce useful vaccines specific for infectious agents that normally cause chronic infections.  This is likely to be true because these agents:  A) do not stimulate cell mediated immunity  B) express no antigens  C) express no MHC  D) are not eliminated by the type(s) of immunity they stimulate

1. Hyperacute rejection of an allograft would not be likely to occur in which of the following individuals:  A) a person with Bruton’s aggamaglobulinemia  B) a person with defective C9  C) an atopic individual  D) a person with rheumatoid arthritis

1. Chronic graft rejection of allografts is usually due to differences in ____ antigens.  A) MHC I  B) MHC II  C) minor histocompatability  D) blood group

1. Which of the following treatments of allograft recipients would be considered the most specific (have the least amount of unwanted side effects):  A) Cytotoxic drugs that act on rapidly proliferating cells  B) corticosteroids  C) high dose radiation therapy  D) antibody specific for CD3

1. In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, red blood cells are removed by complement lysis and by:  A) apoptosis  B) CD8+ cell attack  C) NK cell attack D) phagocytosis

1. D) phagocytosis

1. HIV gp120 binds to CD4 and:  A) CD3  B) CD14  C) chemokine receptors  D) mannose sugars

1. The protein which acts as a transcription factor to allow the expression of hundreds of tissue specific genes in the thymus for the purpose of negative selection is called:  A) autoimmune regulator (AIRE)  B) HLA-S  C) Proteosomes  D) neuraminidase

1. The two most important influenza antigens are the hemagglutinin and the _____.  A) gp120  B) leukoagglutinin  C) protein  D) neuraminidase

1. A deficiency in early complement components could contribute to the generation of an autoimmune disease because:  A) clearance of immune complexes would be impaired  B) enhanced lysis of the bodies own cells would release nuclear contents  C) IgE production would be increased  D) CD4+, CD25+ cells would be activated

1. Which of the following individuals would be least likely to exhibit an acute rejection of a kidney from a human donor?  A) a person with Bruton agammaglobulinemia  B) a person with DiGeorge syndrome  C) a person with systemic lupus erythematosis  D) a person who had previously received a graft from a baboon

1. If an individual failed to make IgA, what types of hypersensitivity would not be expected to occur in this person?  A) Type I  B) Types II and III  C) Type IV  D) None would be effected

1. D) None would be effected

1. In Grave’s disease, autoantibodies mimic the effect of ______.  A) testosterone  B) T3 and T4  C) TSH  D) thyroglobulin

1. Desensitization involves rejection of an allergic patient with ____.  A) allergin  B) antibody  C) anbtihistamines  D) chloramphenecol

1. HIV infection has a long and variable course due to the fact that the virus:  A) only replicates when cells are activated  B) requires a helper virus  C) hides out in nervous tissue until stress occurs  D) cannot bind to macrophages and dendritic cells

1. Among agents released from mast cells, histamine is a pre-formed mediator contained in the mast cell granules.  An example o a mediator released later would be:  A) IL-2  B) major basic protein  C) leukotriene  D) c reactive protein

1. The types of antigens that most commonly cause type I hypersensitivity are:  A) small, soluble carbohydrates  B) small, soluble proteins  C) large, insoluble proteins  D) cross-linked nucleic acids

1. Small molecular weight substances can become antigenic by:  A) being processed by neutrophils  B) aggregating  C) binding to a host protein  D) becoming negatively charged

1. The major difference between local type III hypersensitivity reactions such as the Arthus reaction and systemic types of hypersensitivity such as serum sickness relates to whether:  A) IgE or IgG is the major class of antibody involved  B) NK cells are recruited into the bloodstream  C) a granuloma forms to wall off the response  D) the immune complexes deposit inside or outside of blood vessels

1. A person with bare lymphocyte syndrome (lacking MHC II) would have immune defects similar to a patient with:  A) Grave’s disease  B) systemic lupus erythematosis  C) Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia  D) full blown AIDS

1. Pernicious anemia is caused by autoantibodies specific for:  A) pancreatic acinar cells  B) ABO blood group antigens  C) intrinsic factor  D) vitamin B12

1. One mechanism for preventing autoimmunity is believed to be the presence of:  A) CD4+, CD25+ T cells  B) CD8+, CD25+ T cells  C) CD4+, CD40+ T cells  D) CD8+, CD40+ T cells

1. Epitope spreading in autoimmunity can occur due to the:  A) aggregation of activated and native T cells  B) somatic hypermutation of helper T cells  C) B cell uptake of particles containing multiple antigenic polymers  D) dilation of local blood vessels

1. In the MMR vaccine, the R is for:  A) retroviral  B) rhinovirus  C) rabies  D) rubella

1. D) rubella

1. The Pertussis portion of the DPT vaccine acts both as a source of specific antigen and as a(an) _____ for ht eother components of the vaccine.  A) adjuvant  B) carrier protein  C) DNA vaccine  D) recombinant vector

1. DNA vaccines are more similar to live attenuated vaccines because they:  A) never cause disease  B) lead to the presence of antigen over a prolonged period of time  C) do not stimulate cell mediated immunity  D) must always be given orally

1. Which of the following viral vaccines would likely trigger a greater cell mediated immune response:  A) killed  B) live attenuated  C) subunit (the capsid only)  D) finely ground Cheetos

1. Hyperacute rejection of xenografts often occurs due to the ____ in the recipient.  A) presence of pre-formed antibodies  B) inability to form new blood vessels  C) species specificity of growth factors  D) presence of conserved receptors

1. Hyperacute rejection of xenografts often occurs due to the ____ in the recipient.  A) presence of pre-formed antibodies  B) inability to form new blood vessels  C) species specificity of growth factors  D) presence of conserved receptors

1. Minor histocompability antigens are:  A) not associated with the MHC  B) can lead to chronic graft rejection  C) numerous  D) all of the above

1. D) all of the above

1. IgM antibodies do not usually cause type IV hypersensitivity because:  A) they do not fix complement  B) they do not form large complexes  C) type IV hypersensitivity involves cell mediated immunity  D) it is quickly bound to mast cells and basophils

1. Individuals with a CCR5 chemokine receptor defect are resistant to HIV infection because:  A) their T cells fail to migrate to sites of HIV infection  B) the CCR5 chemokine receptor acts as a co-receptor for HIV binding  C) HIV infected cells secrete a CCR5 homologue which diverts dendritic cell trafficking  D) CCR5 is toxic for HIV

1. Chronic granulomatous disease involves a defect in:  A) integrin beta chain expression  B) generation of toxic oxygen derivatives  C) the Btk tyrosine kinase  D) MhC expression

1. Newborn infants of mothers with myasthenia gravis exhibit symptoms of myasthenia gravis at birth that goes away within about two weeks.  The cause of the transient disease in infants is likely to be:  A) placental passage of acetylcholine receptor specific antibodies  B) placental passage of myelin sheath specific antibodies  C) Rh blood group differences between the mother and fetus  D) excessive production of alpha fetoprotein

1. Endocrine tissue associated autoimmune diseases are fairly common.  This may be due in part to the fact that these express tissue specific antigens and they:  A) are privileged sites  B) are highly vascularized  C) do not express MHC  D) are secondary lymphoid tissues

1. Allergins often have what kind of enzymatic function?  A) integrase  B) kinase  C) protease  D) phosphatase

1. The vaccine for measles and mumps should not be given to individuals with DiGeorge syndrome because:  A) they could get severe cases of measles and mumps  B) green monkey’s don’t eat bananas  C) they would have a type IV hypersensitivity reaction  D) muscle is a privileged site

1. It is often difficult to produce useful vaccines specific for infectious agents which normally cause chronic infections.  This is likely to be true because these agents:  A) do not stimulate cell mediated immunity  B) express no antigen  C) express no MHC  D) are not eliminated by the type(s) of immunity they stimulate

1. D) are not eliminated by the type(s) of immunity they stimulate

1. The two most important antigens in immunity to influenza virus are hemagglutinin and _____.  A) GP 120  B) hemolysin  C) group B oligosaccharide  D) neuraminidase

1. Which of the following would not be considered an adjuvant?  A) Alum  B) an oil and water emulsion  C) dead mycobacteria  D) inactivated dipheria toxin

1. Which of the following types of vaccines would be most likely to stimulate a vigorous cell mediated immune response?  A) attenuated virus  B) inactivated virus  C) viral capsid  D) a toxoid

1. The theory that suggests that decreased exposure to certain pathogens and increased vaccination may be responsible for an increase in autoimmunity in developed countries is called the _____.  A) haplotype theory  B) hygiene hypothesis  C) idiotypic network hypothesis  D) immunosurveillane theory

1. Blood clotting could elict the production of autoantibodies because:  A) novel epitopes are created when proteins are cleaved  B) the clotting system is made up of polysaccharides which have repeating epitopes  C) clotting components are excluded from positive selection  D) there are no thrombin receptors on B cells

1. If a virus produced a homologue of IFN gamma that acts similar to the host’s own INF gamma and infection was best blocked by neutralizing IgA antibodies- A) this could be of no benefit to the virus  B) this could benefit the virus by cuasing a TH1 to TH2 shift  C) this could benefit the virus by causing a TH2 to TH1 shift  D) this could benefit the virus by down regulating CD3 expression

1. Antigenic shift among influenza viruses occurs because of:  A) genetic exchange between human and avian strains  B) variation in which gene of a set of functionally related genes is expressed  C) accumulation of point mutations over time  D) somatic hypermutation

1. Autoimmune diseases and inherited immunodeficiencies differ in that autoimmune diseases:  A) are not influenced by genetics  B) usually have multiple contributing factors  C) accumulation of point mutations over time  D) somatic hypermutation

1. The HIV virus infects T cells and:  A) B cells  B) dendritic cells and macrophages  C) neutrophils  D) none of the above

1. If you experienced a crusty rash which you first noticed the day after you walk around Lake Carl Blackwell and found that the rash contained a large number of monocytes, you would conclude that the rash was most likely caused by:  A) malaria  B) a type I hypersensitivity reaction  C) a type III hypersensitivity reaction  D) a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

1. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency is no longer called lazy leukocyte syndrome because:  A) the ACLU found the term discriminatory to neutrophils  B) the deficiency has nothing to do with migration  C) the deficiency effects migration but has nothing to do with how fast leukocytes move  D) both terms are equally accurate but leukocyte adhesion deficiency in an international meeting

1. C3 and C4 are often decreased in patients with systemic lupus erythematosis.  This is most likely due to:  A) decreased production because of pancreatic damage  B) decreased production due to kidney damage  C) binding of C3 and C4 to the surface of mast cells  D) cleavage of C3 and C4 through the classical complement pathway

1. D) cleavage of C3 and C4 through the classical complement pathway

1. Desensitization therapy for type I hypersensitivity involves treating the individual with:  A) adrenergic antagonists  B) injections of the allergins they are allergic to  C) Il4  D) modified IgE

1. The cell surface receptor phenotype of regulatory T cells is:  A) CD4+, CD8+, CD45+  B) CD4+, CD45+  C) CD8+, CD25+  D) CD4+, CD25+

1. Proteins are expressed in the thymus under the control of AIRE for what purpose?  A) to delete T cells specific to tissue specific antigens  B) to delete T cells that react with MHC class II  C) to pre-stimulate T cells to common viral antigens  D) to stimulate natural killer cells specific for LPS

1. Two major causes of severe combined immunodeficiency include defects in nucleotide metabolism and a defect in _____.  A) C4  B) the common gamma chain of cytokine receptors  C) NADP oxidase  D) tyrosine kinase Btk