Term
|
Definition
| The hydrolysis of large insoluble substances into small soluble substances. |
|
|
Term
| Why is digestion necessary? |
|
Definition
1) Only small soluble molecules can be absorbed into the cells lining the gut.
2) Large molecules such as proteins must be reduced to their component parts ('building blocks') to allow the organism to synthesise its own molecules. |
|
|
Term
| What role do enzymes play in digestion? |
|
Definition
| They are biological catalysts which enable digestion to take place at a sufficient rate at the relatively low temperatures found in organisms. |
|
|
Term
| State the source, substrate, product and optimum pH of amylase. |
|
Definition
Source: saliva (via salivary glands) Substrate: starch Product: maltose Optimum pH: 7 |
|
|
Term
| State the source, substrate, product and optimum pH of pepsin (a type of protease). |
|
Definition
Source: gastric juice (via stomach mucosa) Substrate: proteins Product: Small polypeptides Optimum pH: 2 |
|
|
Term
| State the source, substrate, product and optimum pH of lipase. |
|
Definition
Source: pancreatic juice (via pancreas) Substrate: triglycerides Product: fatty acids and glycerol Optimum pH: 8 |
|
|
Term
| Outline the digestion process of triglycerides (lipids), proteins and polysaccharides (e.g. starch). |
|
Definition
Triglycerides->Fatty acids and glycerol
->ABSORPTION
Proteins->Polypeptides->Di/tripeptides
->Amino acids->ABSORPTION
Polysaccharides->Disaccharides->Monosaccharides
->ABSORPTION |
|
|
Term
| Describe the functions of the stomach. |
|
Definition
1) Temporary storage of food.
2) Mechanical breakdown of food by churning (via muscle contraction).
3) Start of protein digestion via pepsin.
4) Killing of bacteria in food via highly acidic gastric juice. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the functions of the small intestine. |
|
Definition
1) The main region of digestion and absorption.
2) Duodenum (1st part) receives pancreatic enzymes and bile from the liver. All food groups are digested.
3) Ileum (2nd part) is where most absorption occurs. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the functions of the large intestine. |
|
Definition
1) Site of water absorption.
2) The many harmless bacteria found here protect the gut by out-competing with harmful bacteria.
3) Some bacteria synthesise vitamins K and H. |
|
|
Term
| Outline the adaptations of the ileum for efficient absorption of the products of digestion. |
|
Definition
1) Very long with many villi - large surface area.
2) Single columnar epithelial layer - short diffusion distance.
3) Microvilli on epithelial cells - increase surface area further.
4) Goblet cells secrete mucus - provides lubrication and a moist environment which aids the diffusion of substances.
5) Columnar epithelial cells are tightly packed - prevents leakage of absorbed molecules.
6)Smooth muscle - permits movement of villi towards food molecules.
7) Circular/longitudinal muscles - enables peristalsis which moves food molecules along.
8) Many blood capillaries and lymph vessels (e.g. lacteals, which transport fatty acids and glycerol) - enables efficient transport of absorbed molecules. |
|
|
Term
| Distinguish between absorption and assimilation. |
|
Definition
In absorption, the soluble products of digestion are first taken up by various mechanisms into the epithelial cells that line the small intestine. These epithelial cells then transport the absorbed molecules into the blood stream.
Assimilation occurs when the molecules have been transported to various tissues by the bloodstream, and are then absorbed by the cells of these tissues fro their own use e.g. the synthesis of new molecules such as proteins from the absorbed amino acids. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the events of the cardiac cycle. |
|
Definition
1) Oxygenated blood from the lungs enters the left atrium via the pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body enters the right atrium via the vena cava.
2) The atria fill with blood and contract simultaneous, squeezing blood into the ventricles as the atrioventicular (AV) valves open.
3) The ventricles fill with blood and contract simultaneously, squeezing blood into the aorta (via the left venticle) and the pulmonary artery (via the right ventricle) as the semilunar valves open. |
|
|
Term
| Why is the heart said to be myogenic? |
|
Definition
| It beats of its own accord, without any external nerve input. |
|
|
Term
| Why is the cardiac muscle thicker on the left side of the heart? |
|
Definition
| The left side of the heart must pump blood throughout the body to a considerable distance away from the heart. Therefore, a greater force (which equates to a greater pressure) must be generated by the cardiac muscle. |
|
|
Term
| How is the heart rate altered? |
|
Definition
| Via involuntary control. The sinoatrial node (SAN), found in the right atrium, has nerve connections from the medulla in the brain which can speed up or slow down the heart beat. |
|
|
Term
| What is the average heart rate? |
|
Definition
| 70 beats per minute (i.e. 70 cardiac cyles per minute). |
|
|
Term
| Define systole and diastole. |
|
Definition
Systole: when cardiac muscle is contracting.
Diastole: when cardiac muscle is relaxing. |
|
|
Term
| Why does blood flow to different areas of the heart? |
|
Definition
| As chambers contract, their volume decreases and their pressure increases (volume is inversely proportional to pressure). Blood is forced from a region of high pressure to a region of lower pressure. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the atrioventricular (AV) valves and semilunar valves? |
|
Definition
Atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent the backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria.
Semilunar valves prevent the backflow of blood from the arteries into the ventricles. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the atrioventricular (AV) valves and semilunar valves? |
|
Definition
Atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent the backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria.
Semilunar valves prevent the backflow of blood from the arteries into the ventricles. |
|
|
Term
| Explain how the electrical impulse spreads through the heart, causing cardiac muscle to contract. |
|
Definition
1) An electrical impulse originates in the SAN, the pacemaker.
2) The impulse spreads rapidly though the walls of both atria, causing them to contract. This impulse cannot spread directly to the ventricles as there is a band of non-conducting tissue between the atria and the ventricles.
3) The AVN in the lower part of the right atrium wall is stimulated.
4) The impulse passes from this node into the venticles along conducting fibres called Purkinje fibres. The point where these fibres are found in the septum of the heart is known as the bundle of His.
5)The impulse spreads through the ventricles, causing them to contract. |
|
|
Term
| Why does a time delay of 0.12-0.20 seconds occur at the AVN before the wave passes along the bundle of His? |
|
Definition
| To give time for the atria to completely empty and the venticles to completely full before ventricular systole. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the events of atrial diastole. |
|
Definition
- The atria are relaxed. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins as the right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body via the vena cava.
- The AV valves are shut.
- The semilunar valves are shut.
|
|
|
Term
Describe the events of atrial systole. |
|
Definition
- The atria contract simultaneously. As the pressure in the atria is greater than that in the venticles, the AV valves open.
- Blood enters the ventricles.
- Semilunar valves remain shut.
|
|
|
Term
| Describe the events of venticle systole. |
|
Definition
- The venticles contract simulteneously. As the pressure in the ventricles is greater than that in the atria, the AV valves close.
- The venticles continue to contract and the pressure in the ventricles surpasses that in the arteries.
- The semilunar valves open and blood enters the aorta from the left ventricle and the pulmonary artery from the right venticle.
|
|
|
Term
| Why do arteries have thick walls? |
|
Definition
| To withstand the pressure generated inside them. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the blood flow in arteries. |
|
Definition
| It is pulsatile (occurs in pulses) and under high pressure. |
|
|
Term
| What happens when a surge of blood enters a region of an artery? |
|
Definition
| The artery wall dilates via its thick muscle and elastic layer. |
|
|
Term
| What follows the dilation of an artery? |
|
Definition
| A recoil which squeezes the blood and keeps it flowing between venticular contractions. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of arterioles? |
|
Definition
| They join small arteries to capillaries. |
|
|
Term
| How do arterioles regulate and alter blood flow to certain tissues? |
|
Definition
| They have a middle layer of muscle which can be used to change the diameter of the lumen. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the blood flow in veins. |
|
Definition
| It is non-pulsatile and under low pressure. |
|
|
Term
| Why do veins need semilunar (one-way) valves? |
|
Definition
| To prevent the backflow of blood due to the low pressure in the veins. |
|
|
Term
| How is blood helped to flow 'uphill' to the heart in veins? |
|
Definition
| Contractions of large body muscles, such as those in legs, squeeze the veins. |
|
|
Term
| What is the one layer of flattened cells in the capillaries known as? |
|
Definition
| The squamous endothelium. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of capillaries? |
|
Definition
| The exchange of substances such as nutrients, dissolved gases and waste products with tissues. |
|
|
Term
| Why do capillary walls consist of a single layer of cells? |
|
Definition
| To provide a short diffusion distance for the exchange of substances. |
|
|
Term
| What is blood composed of? |
|
Definition
- Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
- White blood cells (leucocytes): phagocytes and lymphocytes
- Platelets (thrombocytes)
- Plasma
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A molecule which is said to be 'foreign' or not belonging to the normal organism (non-self) and is therefore capable of triggering an immune response by the organism's lymphocytes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Otherwise known as 'immunoglobins', they are globular proteins found in the blood which are secreted by specific types of lymphocytes (B-lymphocyte plasma cells). They are produced in response to a non-self antigen. |
|
|
Term
| How is the antigen-antibody complex formed? |
|
Definition
| Antibodies are Y-shaped and bind to antigens at specific attachment sites to produce antigen-antibody complexes due to the complimentary shapes between the antibody molecule and the specific antigen or part of the antigen. This neutralises the antigen or the microorganism to which the antigen is attached. It can also lead to phagocytosis of the antigen-antibody complex by other types of white blood cell e.g. macrophages. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An organism or virus that causes disease. |
|
|
Term
| How do antibiotics treat bacterial diseases? |
|
Definition
| They block specific metabolic pathways found in prokaryotic cells (the bacteria) but not eukaryotic cells (those of the human patient). |
|
|
Term
| Why are antibiotics ineffective against viruses? |
|
Definition
| Viruses are non-cellular. They are intracellular parasites whic huse the host cell's metabolic pathways. Thus, antibiotics cannot target a virus without damaging the host cells. |
|
|
Term
| Explain how surface barriers protect the body from pathogens. |
|
Definition
The skin acts as a barrier - it is a dead, waterproof layer. Glands in hair follicles produce an oily secretion which controls bacterial and fungal growth. The enzyme lysozyme is present on the skin's surface to break down pathogens.
Membranes in the air passages produce mucus which traps pathogens (and other particles). Cilia move the mucus upwards towards the back of the throat where it is swallowed. |
|
|
Term
| Explain how phagocytes protect the body from infection. |
|
Definition
They destroy pathogens by ingesting and digesting them. The phagocyte flows aroung the pathogen, enclosing it in a vacuole inside the cell. Lysosomes then fuse with the vacuole and release digestive enzymes into it.
Phagocytes can ingest pathogens in the blood itself or pass through capillary walls to ingest them in body tissues. |
|
|
Term
| Name the seven substances transported in the blood. |
|
Definition
Oxygen, carbon dioxide, urea, nutrients, hormones, antibodies and heat. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome)? |
|
Definition
| HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Unprotected vaginal or anal sexual intercouse
- Breast feeding
- Via the placenta
- Blood transfusion
- Contaminated needles
|
|
|
Term
| What are the social implications of AIDS? |
|
Definition
- Breakdown of family structure
- Huge drain on medical resources due to the expense of the drugs available to control HIV
- Loss of workforce, which can negatively effect a country's economy
|
|
|
Term
| Explain how HIV damages the immune system. |
|
Definition
| The virus attaches and enters host lymphocytes. It disables the lymphocytes, rendering them unable to produce antibodies in response to antigens. Consequently, antigens are able to proliferate and infections cannot be curbed. |
|
|
Term
| Define 'opportunistic infection'. |
|
Definition
| An AIDS-related infection that has taken advantage of the opportunity offered by an AIDS sufferer's weakened immune system. |
|
|
Term
| How can antiretroviral treatment benefit people infected with HIV? |
|
Definition
| It prolongs the time between HIV infection and the development of AIDS. |
|
|
Term
| State the groups in the population considered to be 'high-risk' in terms of AIDS. |
|
Definition
- Promiscuous people (e.g. prostitutes)
- Intravenous drug users
- Those with poor access to education or contraception
|
|
|
Term
| What precautions can be taken to reduce the spread of AIDS? |
|
Definition
- Abstinence/use of condoms
- Better education of transmission routes and risks
- Not sharing of needles
|
|
|
Term
| Why is it difficult to create a vaccination against HIV? |
|
Definition
- The virus frequently mutates, so antigens continuously change
- There is a very long incubation period
- There are different strains in Europe, America, Asia and Africa
|
|
|
Term
| What does the nervous system consist of |
|
Definition
- The central nervous system (CNS)
- The peripheral nervous system, which consists of nerves lying outside the CNS
- The autonomic nervous system
|
|
|
Term
| Name the three types of neurons (nerve cells) and state their roles. |
|
Definition
- Sensory neurons - conduct impulses from the receptor to the CNS
- Relay neurons - conduct impulses between other neurons
- Motor neurons - conduct impulses from the CNS to the effector
|
|
|
Term
| Explain the role of the myelin sheath in neurons. |
|
Definition
| It insulates the axon, enabling action potentials to travel via saltatory conduction at a higher speed than would otherwise be possible. |
|
|
Term
| Explain what occurs at resting potential in a neuron. |
|
Definition
The cell membrane of a resting nerve fibre (axon) is electrically polarised - the inside of the axon membrane is negatively charge with respect to the outside to a value of around
-70 millivolts (mV). This electrical difference is known as the resting potential. |
|
|
Term
| Explain what occurs at action potential (depolarisation) in a neuron. |
|
Definition
| If a nerve fibre is stimulated sufficiently, the membrane becomes depolarised. The inside of the axon membrane becomes positively charged with respect to the outside to a value of around +40 millivolts (mV). This new electrical difference is the action potential. |
|
|
Term
| Explain what occurs at repolarisation in a neuron. |
|
Definition
| The action potential is followed by repolarisation of the mebrane which restores the resting potential of the neuron. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of the resting potential of a neuron? |
|
Definition
| An unequal distribution of ions on the two sides of the mebranes. This is due to differences in membrane permeability to different ions and to active transport. |
|
|
Term
| Why is there an excess of sodium ions outside the axon membrane at resting potential? |
|
Definition
| Sodium ions are actively transported out and the membrane is relatively impermeable to them, so few diffuse back in. |
|
|
Term
| What happens inside the axon membrane at resting potential? |
|
Definition
| There are organic anions (negative ions) which are too large to diffuse out. There is also an excess of potassium ions which are actively transported in. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of depolarisation? |
|
Definition
| A stimulus of sufficient intensity causes a sudden momentary increase in the permeability of the membrane to sodium ions as some voltage-gated sodium channels to open and, due to positive feedback, more open as a result. Sodium ions diffuse in, causing an action potential. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of repolarisation? |
|
Definition
| Sodium ion channels close and potassium ion channels open, allowing potassium ions to diffuse out. Active transport then restores the original distribution of ions, pumping sodium ions out and potassium ions in. |
|
|
Term
| What is the threshold in terms of action potential? |
|
Definition
| The minimum membrane potential, -55 mV, that must be reached for an action potential to be generated. When the threshold is reached, more voltage-gated sodium channels open as a result of positive feedback. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When an action potential across one part of a membrane triggers an action potential across the next part. A nerve impulse is a series of action potentials, each triggering the next, along the length of a nerve fibre. It is therefore said to be self-propagating. |
|
|
Term
| In what sense do action potentials obey the 'all or nothing' rule? |
|
Definition
| An action potential is always the same size, irrespective of the strength of the original stimulus. |
|
|
Term
| How can information about the stength of a stimulus be transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Via the freqeuncy of nerve impulses. |
|
|
Term
| What is the refractory period (hyperpolarisation)? |
|
Definition
| The time between an action potential and the restoration of the normal distribution of ions. During this time, the membrane cannot respond to a normal stimulus. The refractory period means that a nerve impulse can only travel in one direction. |
|
|
Term
| Outline the process that occur during the passage of an impulse along a neuron. |
|
Definition
- A stimulus reaches the threshold
- The voltage-gated sodium channels in the axon membrane open
- There is an influx of sodium ions, leading to depolarisation
- Sodium channels close and potassium channels open
- There is an eflux of potassium ions, leading to repolarisation
- The impulse is propagated along the axon
- The resting potential is re-established after hyperpolarisation
|
|
|
Term
| What effect does a thicker axon have on the rate of conduction of a nerve impulse along an axon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A junction between one or more neurons. |
|
|
Term
| Why is the synaptic button (the end of the presynaptic neuron) swollen? |
|
Definition
| To increase its surface area. |
|
|
Term
| What do the vesicles in the synaptic button contain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define 'neurotransmitter'. |
|
Definition
| A chemical susbtance released from the end of the presynaptic membrane on the arrival of a nerve impulse. This substance then diffuses across the synaptic cleft to the postsynaptic membrane(s), and may produce a nerve impulse here. |
|
|
Term
| Outline the processes that occur at the synapse. |
|
Definition
- A nerve impulse arrives agt the synapse, causing calcium ions to enter the synaptic button.
- The influx of calcium ions causes vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane, releasing neurotransmitter into the synpatic cleft.
- The neurotransmitter diffuses across the cleft and binds to receptors on the post-synaptic membrane.
- This causes depolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane (sodium channels open). If this depolarisation is sufficiently large, an action potential is generated.
|
|
|
Term
| What happens to the neurotransmitter after it has bound to the receptor sites on the postsynaptic membrane? |
|
Definition
| It is hydrolysed by enzymes in the synaptic cleft. The products of hydrolysis are then actively reuptaken by the presynaptic membrane using energy from ATP produced by mitochondria. |
|
|
Term
| Why is neurotransmission unidirectional? |
|
Definition
| Only the presynaptic membrane has vesicles and only the postsynaptic membrane has receptors. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The maintenance of the body's internal environement at a constant level or between narrow limits. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of pilo-erector muscles in the regulation of body temperature? |
|
Definition
| In high temperatures, pilo-erector muscles relax so that hair shafts flatten, decreasing the insulation on the skin and allowing more free circulation of air molecules over the skin surface as moving air is a good convector of heat. Pilo-erector muscles contract in high temperatures so that hair shafts stand perpendicular to skin's surface, thus increasing the insulation on the skin. |
|
|
Term
| In homeostasis, what conditions must be maintained? |
|
Definition
- Blood pH
- Oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations
- Blood glucose concentration
- Body temperature
- Water balance (solute concentration)
|
|
|
Term
| How are inbalances countered in homeostasis? |
|
Definition
| Via negative feedback, the action taken to restore a variable to its correct level. |
|
|
Term
| What does a homeostatic system require? |
|
Definition
- A receptor to monitor the level of a variable
- A co-ordinating centre to regulate the level of said variable
- An effector/effectors to bring about the changes directed by the co-ordinating centre
|
|
|
Term
| What does the endocrine system consist of? |
|
Definition
| Glands which release hormones directly into the bloodstream. |
|
|
Term
| What is the hypothalamus? |
|
Definition
| A part of the brain which contains both the receptor and the co-ordinating centre for core body temperature. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of sweat glands in the regulation of body temperature? |
|
Definition
| Sweat glands secrete sweat. When this sweat evaporates, it removes the thermal energy that it has absorbed from the skin, thus decreasing body temperature. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of skin arterioles in the regulation of body temperature? |
|
Definition
| They supply blood to capillaries in the skin. Heat from the blood in these capillaries is radiation from the skin's surface and thus has a cooling effect. When the arterioles constrict (vasoconstriction), less blood flows through the capillaries to the epidermis, the top layer of skin (below which are the arterioles), and so less heat is lost, and vice versa when the arterioles dialte (vasodilation). |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of shivering in the regulation of body temperature? |
|
Definition
| Shivering is involuntary rhythmic muscle contracion. When muscles contract, they increase their rate of respiration to generate more ATP. Respiration produces heat, so shivering has a warming effect. |
|
|
Term
| Name the two receptors involved in the regulation of body temperature. |
|
Definition
- External themoreceptors in the skin
- The hypothalamus in the brain
|
|
|
Term
| Where are the detectors for blood glucose concentration located? |
|
Definition
| The Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the role of alpha cells and beta cells in the regulation of blood glucose concentration. |
|
Definition
Alpha cells are sensitive to a fall in blood glucose concentration and secrete glucagon.
Beta cells are sensitive to a rise in blood glucose concentration and secrete insulin. |
|
|
Term
| Explain the role of glucagon. |
|
Definition
It has two effects in the liver, both of which raise the blood glucose concentration:
- Activates enzymes responsible for the conversion of glycogen to glucose.
- Stimulates the formation of glucose from other molecules.
|
|
|
Term
| Explain the role of insulin. |
|
Definition
It has several effects, all of which lower the blood glucose concentration:
- Activates enzymes in the liver and muscle cells responsible for the conversion of glucose to glycogen.
- Increases the rate of cellular respiration.
- Increases the uptake of glucose by muscle and fat cells.
- Activates enzymes in fat cells responsible for converting glucose to fat.
|
|
|
Term
| What is the normal blood glucose concentration? |
|
Definition
100 mg/100 cm3 of blood
OR
4-7mmol/litre |
|
|
Term
| What condition is associated with diabetes? |
|
Definition
| Hperglycaemia - the presence of too much glucose in the blood. As a result, glucose appears in the urine. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It occurs when the pancreas does not produce enough insulin as a result of an autoimmune disease where the body's own immune system destroys beta cells. It can be controlled by the injection of insulin at appropriate times. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It occurs when the body cells become less sensitive to insulin due to a high blood glucose concentration. Consequently, the cells do not take in enough glucose so less is removed from the body. It is often associated with genetic history, obesity and lack of exercise, and can be controlled through diet. |
|
|
Term
| Why is overheating more likely to occur in humid conditions? |
|
Definition
| Humidity reduces the diffusion gradient, so there is less evaporation of sweat and therefore less cooling of the body due to the fact that thermal energy is removed from the body when sweat evaporates. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| In the testes inside hundreds of tubes called seminiferous tubules. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The epididymis, where they can remain for around a month before beginning to lose their fertility. |
|
|
Term
| What connects the epididymis to the urethra? |
|
Definition
| The vas deferens (sperm ducts). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Just before the vas deferens joins the urethra, ducts from the seminal vesicles enter each vas deferens. Ducts from the prostate gland also enter the urethra. Both the prostate gland and the seminal vesicles secrete fluids which mix with sperm to produce semen. |
|
|
Term
| State the functions of semen. |
|
Definition
- Energy source (sperm use fructose to produce energy for propulsion via the flagella).
- Protection for the sperm as urine is acidic.
|
|
|
Term
| Where does fertilisation occur? |
|
Definition
| In the top of the oviduct. |
|
|
Term
| Outline the key events of the menstrual cycle. |
|
Definition
- After menstruation the endometrium is thick and smooth.
- An immature follicle starts to mature and the endometrium begins to thicken again so that it will be ready for implantation if an ovum is fertilised.
- Around day 14, the middle of the cycle, ovulation occurs - an ovum is released from a mature follicle. The empty follicle becomes the corpus luteum.
- Eight to nine days later, the corpus luteum begins to degenerate. Several days later, the endometrium starts to break down, resulting in menstruation.
|
|
|
Term
| From where are the four hormones involved in the menstrual cycle secreted? |
|
Definition
- FSH and LH are secreted by the anterior part of the pituitary gland.
- Oestrogen is secreted by follicle cells in the ovary.
- Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum in the ovary.
|
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of FSH? |
|
Definition
- Stimulates follicle growth.
- Stimulates the ovary to secrete oestrogen (positive feedback).
|
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of oestrogen? |
|
Definition
- Stimulates growth and repair of the endometrium.
- Stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete LH in the middle of the cycle.
- Inhibits the secretion of FSH from the pituitary gland.
|
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of LH? |
|
Definition
- Stimulates ovulation.
- Stimulates the empty follicle to form the corpus luteum.
- Stimulates the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.
|
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of progesterone? |
|
Definition
- Stimulates the final growth of the endometrium ready for implantation.
- Inhibits FSH secretion so that no more follicles mature and less oestrogen is secreted.
- Inhibits LH secretion (when levels are sufficiently high)
|
|
|
Term
| What is the result of the drop in the level of LH? |
|
Definition
| The corpus luteum stops secreting progesterone and begins to degenerate. |
|
|
Term
| What is the result of the drop in the level of progesterone? |
|
Definition
| The endometrium lining breaks down, resulting in menstruation, and FSH secretion begins again. |
|
|
Term
| State the roles of testosterone in males. |
|
Definition
- Pre-natal development of male genitalia.
- Maintenance of sex drive.
- Secondary sexual chacteristics.
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Term
| What are secondary sexual characteristics? |
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Definition
| Characteristics which develop during puberty. |
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Term
| Outline the procedure of in vitro fertilisation (IVF). |
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Definition
- FSH is injected into the woman, causing several follicles to develop.
- Eggs are removed from mature follicles by a tube inserted via the vagina.
- Each egg is mixed with sperm in a shallow dish.
- After a few days of incubation, the embryos are examined for signs of abnormality.
- Two or three embryos are selected and placed in the uterus via a tube.
- A pregnancy test is taken to see if any embryos have implanted.
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Term
| Describe ethical arguments for IVF. |
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Definition
- Some governments cover costs on the NHS.
- May allow infertile couples to have children - it is fundamental human right to be able to have children.
- Screening and selection prevents genetic abnormalities being passed on.
- Unused embryos can be stored and implanted later, donated or used as a source of stem cells.
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Term
| Describe ethical arguments against IVF. |
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Definition
- Religious issues as more embryos are produced than are used, so some must be destroyed.
- Extreme costs of private treatment.
- Increased chance of multiple births, which put the mother and children at a higher risk.
- Embryos may be chosen for desirable features.
- Takes money away from other fields e.g. cancer research.
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