Term
| First site of hematopoiesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Second site of hematopoiesis |
|
Definition
| Liver & spleen (6 weeks to 7 months) |
|
|
Term
| Third site of hematopoiesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sites of hematopoiesis in infants |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What replaces hematopoiesis in bones with age |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bones lose hematopoiesis with age |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Extramedullary hematopoiesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sites of extramedullary hematopoiesis (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Yolk sac [I think this counts], 2) liver, 3) spleen |
|
|
Term
| Compartments of bone [for hematopoiesis] (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Vascular, 2) Extravascular |
|
|
Term
| Name of the smallest blood vessels in bone marrow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| General direction of drainage of sinusoids |
|
Definition
| Pierpheral to central vein |
|
|
Term
| Components/elements in extravascular compartment (5) |
|
Definition
| 1) Hematopietic cells, 2) stroma, 3) lymphoid tissue, 4) nerves, 5) trabecular bone |
|
|
Term
| Cells of the stroma of bone marrow (4) |
|
Definition
| 1) Adipocytes, 2) macrophages, 3) reticular cells, 4) fibroblasts |
|
|
Term
| Pluripotent stem cells express CD__ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pluripotent stem cells produce what cells [yes, blood cells, but what's the step after pluripotent SC] |
|
Definition
| Committed progenitor cells |
|
|
Term
| Types of committed progenitor cells (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hematopoietic cell "classes" found in bone marrow (4) |
|
Definition
| 1) Pluripotent stem, 2) committed progenitor, 3) differentiating cell lines, 4) mater blood cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What growth factors act on pluripotent stem cells (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) c-kit ligand, 2) FLT-3 |
|
|
Term
| What growth factors act on progenitor cells (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) IL-3, 2) GM-CSF, 3) IL-6 |
|
|
Term
| What signaling pathways in hematopoietic cells (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) JAK/STAT, 2) MAP, 3) PI3 |
|
|
Term
| Committed myeloid cells → ___ → ___ |
|
Definition
| Common myeloid → BFU-e → CFU-e |
|
|
Term
| EPO is produced by the ___ in response to ___ |
|
Definition
| Kidneys in response to hypoxia |
|
|
Term
| What balances an increase in EPO production |
|
Definition
| RBC production that increases O2 delivery |
|
|
Term
| Anucleated, pre-erythrocytes that can be found in circulating blood |
|
Definition
| Reticulocytes [aka polychromatophilic red cell] |
|
|
Term
| Throughout the maturation of erythrocytes, what causes the change in color of the cytoplasm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reticulocytes make up about __% of circulating RBC's |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What puts BFU's into the RBC differentiation pathway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What puts BFU's into the platelet differentiation pathway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What puts BFU's into the monocyte differentiation pathway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What puts BFU's into the neutrophil differentiation pathway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What puts BFU's into the eosinophil differentiation pathway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name of the process of making granulocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Derived cells from monocytes (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Dendritic cells, 2) osteoclasts, 3) macrophages |
|
|
Term
| Name of the process of making platelets |
|
Definition
| Megakarypoiesis or thrombopoiesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cell progression to platelets (6) |
|
Definition
| BFU-MK → CFU-MK → promegakaryoblast → megakaryoblast → megakaryocyte → platelets |
|
|
Term
| Growth factors for megakaryopoiesis (6) |
|
Definition
| 1) IL-3, 2) SCF, 3) IL-6, 4) IL-11, 5) TPO, 6) GM-CSF |
|
|
Term
| Growth factors for granulopoiesis (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) IL-3, 2) GM-CSF, 3) G-CSF or M-CSF |
|
|
Term
| What mitotic process to megakaryocytes undergo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Mitosis without cytokinesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Poietic treatment options for post-chemotherapy (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Autologous/allogenic transplant of pre-chemotherapy cells, 2) recombinant growth factors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 40% [just getting general idea] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 14 [just getting general idea] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 4.0 [just getting general idea] |
|
|
Term
| Cytoskeleton proteins (4) |
|
Definition
| 1) Spectrin, 2) ankyrin, 3) band 3, 4) protein 4.1 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Attach to actin through protein 4.1 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Binds cytoskeleton to membrane through band 3 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Anion transport and binds to ankyrin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Binds to tail of spectrin to actin |
|
|
Term
| Nutritional factors important for erythropoiesis (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Iron, 2) cobalamin (B12), 3) folate (B9) |
|
|
Term
| __ [Fe2+ or Fe3+] is transported from GI lumen into epithelium by ___ |
|
Definition
| Fe2+ by DMT-1 [Divalent Metal Transporter so 2+] |
|
|
Term
| Iron transporter in apical surface |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Iron transporter in basal surface |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __ [Fe2+ or Fe3+] is transported through the blood by ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What changes the redox state of iron so transferrin can transport it |
|
Definition
| Ferrioxidase [sorry to be obtuse with the qustion but the enzyme name gives itself away] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is excess iron stored |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __% of body's iron is found in RBC's |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is analyzed in the lab to determine iron level (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Serum iron level, 2) transferrn, 3) ferritin |
|
|
Term
| Vitamins B9 & B12 are needed for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vitamin B12 is needed to regenerate |
|
Definition
| Vitamin B9 [demethylation of N5-methyl FH4 to FH4] |
|
|
Term
| Lack of either vitamin B9 or B12 leads to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemoglobin consists of what subunits in adults |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Porphyrias are diseases of what pathway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is adult hemoglobin: HbA, HbA2, HbF |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemoglobin that dominates at birth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemoglobin that is first created in the yolk sac |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the oxygen dissociation curve sigmoidal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes of right shift of the oxygen dissociation curve (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Acidosis, 2) increased DPG, 3) increased temperature |
|
|
Term
| Causes of left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve (3) |
|
Definition
| 2) Alkalosis, 2) decreased DPG, 3) decreased temperature |
|
|
Term
| Major energy pathway of RBC's |
|
Definition
| Embden-Meyerhof pathway [the version of glycolysis that we know] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1 Glc → 2 ATP + 2 NADH + 2 Pyr |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Defects in glycolysis & pentose phosphate pathway |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Leubering-Rappaport pathway |
|
|
Term
| RBC blood group antigens have what chemical basis (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Glycospingolipids, 2) glycophorins, 3) lipoproteins |
|
|
Term
| ABO blood group: anti-A and anti-B are what immunoglobins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ABO blood group: put A, B, AB, O into order of most common to least |
|
Definition
| O (50%) > A (40%) > B (10%) > AB (3%) |
|
|
Term
| ABO blood group: someone who is AB can receive RBC's from whom |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ABO blood group: someone who is AB can receive plasma from whom |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ABO blood group: someone who is AB can donate RBC's to whom |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ABO blood group: someone who is AB can donate plasma to whom |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rh blood group: anti-Rh is what immunoglobin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which has antigens that are IgG: ABO or Rh |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which has antigens that are IgM: ABO or Rh |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rh blood group: which is more common: Rh+ or Rh- |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rh blood group: would an Rh- individual naturally generate anti-Rh antibodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ABO blood group: would an O individual naturally generate anti-A and anti-B antibodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rh blood group: when is Rh+ an issue in pregnancy |
|
Definition
| An Rh- mother who is on baby #2 (or more) whom is Rh+ |
|
|
Term
| Arrange these WBC's in order of concentration (highest to lowest): basophil, eosinophil, lymphocyte, monocyte, neutrophil |
|
Definition
| Neutrophil > lymphocyte > monocyte > eosinophil > basophil |
|
|
Term
| Stress __ [increases or decreases] production time of a neutrophil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pools of granulocytes (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Mitotic, 2) post-mitotic |
|
|
Term
| Mitotic or post-mitotic: blasts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mitotic or post-mitotic: promyelocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mitotic or post-mitotic: myelocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mitotic or post-mitotic: Metamyelocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mitotic or post-mitotic: bands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are there more neutrophils in bone marrow or in circulation |
|
Definition
| Bone marrow (7x more than circulation) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1) Marginal, 2) circulating |
|
|
Term
| Where are marginal pool neutrophils found |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are there more neutrophils in marginal or circulation pool |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long do neutrophils normally circulate before extravasating and die |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| High nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio, immature nucleus, nucleoli, few granules |
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell: high nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio, immature nucleus, nucleoli, few granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Immature nucleus, slightly more cytoplasm than previous cell step, prominent primary granules |
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell: immature nucleus, slightly more cytoplasm than previous cell step, prominent primary granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Eccentric nucleus, perinuclear clear zone, 1° and 2° granules |
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell: eccentric nucleus, perinuclear clear zone, 1° and 2° granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Metamyelocyte description |
|
Definition
| Nucleus begins to indent, more condensation of the chromatin, cell division stops |
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell: nucleus begins to indent, more condensation of the chromatin, cell division stops |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Horseshoe shaped nucleus, prominent granules |
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell: horseshoe shaped nucleus, prominent granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Segmented nucleus, less prominent granules |
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell: segmented nucleus, less prominent granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage is last to have mitosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage has a high nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage has few granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage have an immature nucleus (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Myeloblast, 2) promyelocyte |
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage has 1° and 2° granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage has an eccentric nucleus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage has a horseshoe nucleus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage has a segmented nucleus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell: segmented nucleus, less prominent granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| First recognizable at the myelocyte stage, have intensely pink granules, bi-lobed nucleus |
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell: first recognizable at the myelocyte stage, have intensely pink granules, bi-lobed nucleus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| First recognized at the myelocyte stage, prominent blue granules that may obscure nucleus, bi-lobed nucleus |
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell: first recognized at the myelocyte stage, prominent blue granules that may obscure nucleus, bi-lobed nucleus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Folded nuclei, grayblue cytoplasm with vacuoles, granules are rare |
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell: folded nuclei, grayblue cytoplasm with vacuoles, granules are rare |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage have a bi-lobed nucleus (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Eosinophil, 2) basophil |
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage has intensily pink granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage has prominent blue granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage has folded nuclei |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which myeloid cell stage has a gray-blue cytoplasm with vacuoles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Contents of neutrophil granules (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Enzymes (elastase, definsins, cathelicidins), 2) lysozymes, 3) bactericidal proteins |
|
|
Term
| What mediates extravasation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chemotaxic chemicals mentioned in lecture (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) C5a, 2) IL-8, 3) N-formyl-methyl-leucyl-phenylalanine (bacterial) |
|
|
Term
| How do phagocytes recognize foreign |
|
Definition
| Opsonization by complement (C3b) and IgG |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ROS production into phagolysosome making superoxide, peroxide, hydroxyl radical, & hypochlorous acid |
|
|
Term
| Deficiency of neutrophils leads to susceptibility of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Deficiency of eosinophils leads to susceptibility of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Control of bleeding after an injury |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Formation of platelet plug |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Stabilization by a fibrin clot |
|
|
Term
| How long do platelets circulate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Purpose of open canuliculi system |
|
Definition
| Secrete granular contents without disrupting membrane |
|
|
Term
| Contents of dense bodies (4) |
|
Definition
| 1) ADP, 2) ATP, 3) serotonin, 4) calcium |
|
|
Term
| Contents of α-granules (3; broad categories) |
|
Definition
| 1) Adhesive proteins, 2) growth modulators, 3) coagulation factors |
|
|
Term
| Which contains serotonin: dense bodies or α-granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which contains vWF: dense bodies or α-granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which contains ATP: dense bodies or α-granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which contains fibrinogen: dense bodies or α-granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which contains PDGF: dense bodies or α-granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Platelet reaction steps (5) |
|
Definition
| Adhesion → aggregation → release → cloth formation & retraction → support of plasma coagulation |
|
|
Term
| What binds platelets to endothelium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What binds platelets to each other |
|
Definition
| GP IIb/IIIa through fibrinogen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1) Bind to GP Ib, 2) bind to collagen, 3) bind/stabilize factor VIII |
|
|
Term
| Factor VIII bound & stabilized by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Shape change of platelets is mediate by a factor in: dense bodies or α-granules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When activated, platelets secrete (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Granular contents, 2) prostaglandin metabolites (e.g., thromboxane A2) |
|
|
Term
| Why would platelets secrete serotonin [seems odd to me that they would secrete a neurotransmitter] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do activated platelets secrete that causes vasoconstriction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do activated platelets secrete that causes growth of vessel walls |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do activated platelets secrete that causes fluid phase coagulation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aspirin inhibits production of what platelet agonist |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If cAMP decreases in platelets, what happens |
|
Definition
| Granular release through increased [Ca2+] |
|
|
Term
| Thromboxane A2 increases or decreases cAMP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prostacyclin increases or decreases cAMP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Platelets have a negatively charged outer surface when: inactivate/resting or active |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the contraction on fibrin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| NO: inhibitor or activator of platelet aggregation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Measures clotting time at the end of a small tube |
|
|
Term
| Which factor was never assigned and so doesn't exist |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are most coagulation factors made |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most coagulation factors are what kind of enzymes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Final product of the coagulation cascade |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Initiation phase of coagulation |
|
Definition
| TF + VIIa → makes IXa and Xa → small amounts of thrombin made |
|
|
Term
| Amplification phase of coagulation |
|
Definition
| Small amounts of thrombin made in initiation phase makes Va, VIIIa, and XIa → more thrombin |
|
|
Term
| Amplification phase of coagulation has a thrombin production rate of ___ vs. initiation phase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Coagulation cascade takes place where |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fibrin to cross-linked fibrin by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Division of coagulation cascade in vitro (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Intrinsic pathway, 2) extrinsic pathway |
|
|
Term
| Where do the initrinsic & extrinsic pathways converge |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which factor is involved in the in vitro, but not in vivo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which factor, if absent, produces no known increased risk of bleeding |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Specifically, where is Factor VIII thought to be produced |
|
Definition
| Endothelial cells of the liver |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1) Endothelial cells, 2) megakaryocytes |
|
|
Term
| Which factors rely on vitamin K (6) |
|
Definition
| 1-4) Factors II, VII, IX, X, 5) protein C, 6) protein S |
|
|
Term
| What synthesizes vitamin K (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Green leafy vegetables, 2) GI tract bacteria |
|
|
Term
| What is vitamin K used for (biochemically) |
|
Definition
| Cofactor for γ-carboxylation of glutamic residues |
|
|
Term
| Reactions thrombin is involved in (8; 5 are factor activation) |
|
Definition
| 1-5) I → Ia, V → Va, VIII → VIIIa, XI → XIa, XIII → XIIIa, 6) activation of platelets, 7) activation of endothelial cells, 8) binds thrombomodulin & activates protein C |
|
|
Term
| Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) |
|
Definition
| Clotting time of citratedplasma, phospholipid, & calcium |
|
|
Term
| Prolonged APTT due to any factor deficiency except (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Factor VII, 2) factor XIII |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Clotting time of citratedplasma, tissue thromboplastim, & calcium |
|
|
Term
| Prolonged PT due to factor deficiencies of (5) |
|
Definition
| 1) VII, 2) X, 3) V, 4) II, 5) I |
|
|
Term
| What process removes a clot |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Control mechanisms of clotting in normal blood (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Blood flow, 2) hepatic clearance of activated factors, 3) plasma inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| Plasma inhibitors of clotting (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Antithrombin, 2) protein C, 3) protein S |
|
|
Term
| Antithrombin reaction is greatly enhanced by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antithrombin inhibits (4) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is enzymatically active (the other is a cofactor): protein C or protein S |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Activated protein C + protein S degrade which factors (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Activated protein C + protein S degrade which inhibitor |
|
Definition
| Plasminogen activator inhibitor |
|
|
Term
| Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) inhibits |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Key enzyme in fibrinolysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cleavage of fibrin by plasmin creates what diagnostic molecule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Plasminogen activator inhibitor inhibits [was that too confusing?] what |
|
Definition
| Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) |
|
|
Term
| Inhibitor of plasmin [plasmin itself, not its formation] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is tissue factor found |
|
Definition
| Basal layer of the endothelium [normally, not in contact with blood] |
|
|
Term
| Normal unperturbed endothelium supports (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Antithrombin inactivation thrombin, 2) APC formation |
|
|
Term
| How does normal unperturbed endothelium inhibit platelet adherence & aggregation |
|
Definition
| Secretion of prostacyclin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Factor VIII or IX deficiency |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Large granular lymphocytes (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mononuclear phogocytic cells (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Macrophages, 2) Langerhans, 3) dendritic cells |
|
|
Term
| Primary lymphoid tissues (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Bone marrow, 2) thymus |
|
|
Term
| Secondary lymphoid tissues (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Lymph nodes, 2) spleen, 3) GALT/MALT/BALT/NALT |
|
|
Term
| What is immediately deep to the lymph node capsule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lymph node hilum contains (4) |
|
Definition
| 1) Artery, 2) vein, 3) nerve, 4) efferent lymphatics |
|
|
Term
| Which are in the paracortex of the lymph node: T or B cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Components of the medulla (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Locations of B cells in a lymph node (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Cortex, 2) medullary cords |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1) Subcapsular, 2) intermediate, 3) medullary |
|
|
Term
| Proliferating centroblasts: dark or light region |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Circulations of the red pulp in spleen (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which circulation of the splenic red pulp is rapid flow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which circulation of the splenic red pulp is most of the flow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which circulation of the splenic red pulp is to the cords |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which circulation of the splenic red pulp is sinusoids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which circulation of the splenic red pulp is sinuses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you tell that someone is asplenic by looking at blood smears |
|
Definition
| Howell Jolly bodies in RBC's |
|
|
Term
| Embryonic origin of the tymus |
|
Definition
| 3rd & 4th pharnygeal pouches |
|
|
Term
| Histological tell-tale sign of the thymus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why so many macrophages in the thymus |
|
Definition
| Lots of apoptotic thymocytes |
|
|
Term
| T cells make up __% to __% of circulating lymphocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| B cells make up __% to __% of circulating lymphocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| FYI: I left out a bit of the detail because of the significant overlap with immnology, refer to those flash cards |
|
Definition
| FYI: I left out a bit of the detail because of the significant overlap with immnology, refer to those flash cards |
|
|
Term
| Epithelia type of conjuctiva |
|
Definition
| Stratified columnar with goblet cells |
|
|
Term
| Eyelid conjunctiva: palpebral or bulbar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Eye conjunctiva: palpebral or bulbar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Oily secretion to seal lid margins |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibacterial is found in tears |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Superior and inferior canaliculi → common canaliculus → lacrimal sac → nasolacrimal duct → inferior nasal meatus |
|
|
Term
| Refractive layers of the eye (4) |
|
Definition
| Cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous humor |
|
|
Term
| Which refractive layer does the majority of refraction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Layers of the eye (3; deep to superficial) |
|
Definition
| Retina → uvea → fibrous coat |
|
|
Term
| Parts of the fibrous coat (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Choroid, ciliary body, iris |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Visual, nonvisual (ciliary & iridial) |
|
|
Term
| What layers of the eye are found in the iris |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Virtreous humor contains (4) |
|
Definition
| 1) Fine collagen fibrils, 2) hydrophilic GAG's, 3) fibroblasts, 4) macrophages |
|
|
Term
| Farsightedness: hyperopia or myopia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nearsightedness: hyperopia or myopia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Focuses behind retina: hyperopia or myopia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Focuses in front of retina: hyperopia or myopia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Convex lens for correction: hyperopia or myopia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Concave lens for correction: hyperopia or myopia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sclera has what connective tissue type |
|
Definition
| Dense irregular with GAG's |
|
|
Term
| Lamina cribosa (significance & what layer of the eye) |
|
Definition
| Where optic nerve fibers penetrate sclera |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Connective tissue capsule in which eye rotates |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Stroma sandwich by epi- & endothelium (each with a basement membrane) |
|
|
Term
| Basement membrane of epithelium of the eye |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Basement membrane of endothelium of the eye |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cells in the stroma of the cornea (2) |
|
Definition
| Keratocytes [NOT KERATINOCYTES] & phagocytic cells |
|
|
Term
| Keratocytes have what embryonic origin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which has GAG's: Bowman's or Descement's membrane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which has elastic properties: Bowman's or Descement's membrane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Trabecular meshwork + Schlemm's canal = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anterior chamber bounded by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Posterior chamber bounded by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Optic nerve damage resulting from ocular hypertension |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1) Closed angle, 2) open angle, 3) developmental |
|
|
Term
| Which type of glaucoma from a block of flow into the angle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of glaucoma has a quick onset |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of glaucoma is due to a microobstruction or increased venous pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of glaucoma has a slow onset |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Layers of the retina in the cell body: what is special about each (2) |
|
Definition
| Only 2 cell layers: 1) Superficial is pigmented, 2) deep layer secretes aqueous humor |
|
|
Term
| Activation of PSNS leads to __ [increased or decreased] tension in zonule fibers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Activation of PSNS leads to __ [increased or decreased] roundness of the lens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Thickening of the lens to facilitate near vision |
|
|
Term
| Activation of SNS leads to __ [increased or decreased] roundness of the lens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Layers of the choroid (3; deep to superficial) |
|
Definition
| Bruch's membrane → choriocapillary layer → vessel layer (melanocytes) |
|
|
Term
| Which sublayer of what layer perfuses the RPE and photoreceptors |
|
Definition
| Vessel layer of the choroid |
|
|
Term
| Components of the lens (4) |
|
Definition
| 1) Capsule, 2) subscapular epithelium, 3) lens fibers, 4) germinal zone |
|
|
Term
| Which component of the lens is the source of lens fibers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Loss of transparency of the lens |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Junction between visual and non-visual retina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many layers are in the retina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Layers of the retina (10; deep to superficial = path of light travel) |
|
Definition
| Internal limiting mem → nerve fiber → ganglion cell → inner plexiform → inner nuclear → outer plexiform → outer nuclear → external limiting mem. → photoreceptors → RPE |
|
|
Term
| Which retinal layer: rods & cones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which retinal layer: photoreceptor cell bodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which retinal layer: photoreceptor-biopolar junction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which retinal layer: bipolar cell bodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which retinal layer: horizontal cell bodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which retinal layer: bipolar-ganglion junction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which retinal layer: ganglion cell body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the retinal layers, what are found in the "plexiform" layers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the retinal layers, what are found in the "nuclear" layers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which retinal layers: Müller cells span from __ to __ |
|
Definition
| External limiting membrane to nerve fiber layer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Retinaldehyde not exposed to a photon: 11-cis or all-trans conformation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is more photoabsorptive: rhodopsin or iodopsin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Greater in number: rods or cones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Morphology of rods & cones |
|
Definition
| Lamellar plates: shed distally and regenerated proximally |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Progressive loss of photoreceptor cells leading to blindness |
|
|
Term
| Common cause of retinitis pigmentosa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Glial cells of the retina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which retinal layer: amacrine cell bodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1) Horizontal, 2) amacrine |
|
|
Term
| Which integrates closer to the ganglion cells: horizontal or amacrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which retina cells have axons that that form the optic nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Direct pathway for impulse transmission (3) |
|
Definition
| Photoreceptor → bipolar → ganglion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Location in the retina with the greatest acuity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Loss of vision in the macula |
|
|
Term
| Types/Forms of macular degeneration |
|
Definition
| 1) Dry/nonexudative, 2) wet/exudative |
|
|
Term
| Dry or wet macular degeneration: atrophied RPE cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dry or wet macular degeneration: blood vessels grow up into retina |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dry or wet macular degeneration: which is more severe |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Retinal blood supply enters eye where |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Retinal blood supply perfuses up to and including which layer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Place in order of decreasing prevalence: age-related macular degeneration, cataract, diabetic retinopathy, glaucoma, presbyopia, refractive errors |
|
Definition
| Presbyopia > refractive > DM retinopathy > cataract > glaucoma > mac. degen. |
|
|
Term
| The eye is a window to what systems (4) |
|
Definition
| 1) CNS, 2) vascular, 3) endocrine, 4) immune system |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1) Pointing the eye, 2) focusing the image, 3) adjusting exposure, 4) transduction to neural impulses, 5) transmit image to brain |
|
|
Term
| __% of refraction of light is done by the cornea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| CN II damage resulting from ocular hypertension |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Opacification of the lens |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dilation of pupil by __ m. which is ___ [SNS or PSNS] controlled |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Constriction of pupil by __ m. which is ___ [SNS or PSNS] controlled |
|
Definition
| Sphincter pupillae by PSNS |
|
|
Term
| Pupil constriction: radial or circular muscle fiber arrangement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pupil dilation: radial or circular muscle fiber arrangement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For the eye clinically and physiologically, which is more important: SNS or PSNS |
|
Definition
| PSNS [according to Stone, the guy writing our exam questions] |
|
|
Term
| PSNS to eye originate in what nucleus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pathway used for pupillary light reflex (8; CN II to effector muscle) |
|
Definition
| CN II → optic tract → pretectal nucleus → EW nucleus → CN III → ciliary ganglion → short ciliary nn. → sphincter pupillae |
|
|
Term
| What nuclei/ganglia does the pupillary light reflex go through (3) |
|
Definition
| 1) Pretectal nucleus, 2) EW nucleus, 3) ciliary ganglion |
|
|
Term
| What is the relative afferent pupillary defect |
|
Definition
| Ligh reflex does not elicit constriction when shined in the affect eye |
|
|
Term
| Relative afferent pupillary defect is a defect in which structures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If an eye defect is purely unilateral afferent, are pupils: equal or unequal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If an eye defect is purely unilateral efferent, are pupils: equal or unequal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are pupil light responses affected by cataracts: yes or no |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Uncal herniation may affect eyes how |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Someone with blown pupils but is otherwise healthy: are you concerned |
|
Definition
| No, probably jimson weed or some other atropine-like compound and not increased ICP like in TV shows |
|
|
Term
| SNS to eyes originates in what ganglion |
|
Definition
| Superior cervical ganglion |
|
|
Term
| What synapses in the ciliary ganglion |
|
Definition
| PSNS [weak question, but he did make a point about SNS not synapsing there] |
|
|
Term
| Injury to SNS anywhere between hypothalamus & eyes results in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Horner syndrome effects (3; as discussed in class) |
|
Definition
| 1) Anisocoria, 2) ptosis, 3) anhidrosis |
|
|
Term
| Severing SNS at a superior cervical ganglion would affect the ___ [ipsilateral or contralateral] pupil |
|
Definition
| Ipsilateral [smaller pupil on affected side] |
|
|
Term
| Severing SNS at a superior cervical ganglion would affect the ___ [ipsilateral or contralateral] eye lid |
|
Definition
| Ipsilateral [ptosis on affected side] |
|
|
Term
| Severing SNS at a superior cervical ganglion would affect the ___ [ipsilateral or contralateral] sweating |
|
Definition
| Ipsilateral [anhidrosis on affected side] |
|
|
Term
| Phototransduction results in ___ [hyper- or depolarization] by ___ mV |
|
Definition
| Hyperpolarization by 1 mV [so more negative] |
|
|
Term
| Phototransduction results in ___ [closure or opening] of what channel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phototransduction involves converting retinal from ___ to ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After phototransduction, where is the retinal isomerized to be re-used |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The visual cycle does what |
|
Definition
| Recycles retinal for phototransduction |
|
|
Term
| Rhodopsin is what class/kind of receptor |
|
Definition
| G-protein-coupled receptor |
|
|
Term
| What G protein is used with rhodopsin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does tranducin target |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During phototransduction, does cGMP: increase or decrease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does [cGMP] change during phototransduction |
|
Definition
| Activation of cGMP phosphodiesterase by transducin |
|
|
Term
| Steps of phototransduction (7; starting with light) |
|
Definition
| Light → activated rhodopsin → activated transducin → activated cGMP PDE → cGMP hydrolysis → closure of Na channels → hyperpolarization |
|
|
Term
| Photoreceptor neurotransmitter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Lateral geniculate nucleus |
|
|
Term
| Possible result of buildup of lipofuscin in RPE |
|
Definition
| RPE death → photoreceptor death |
|
|
Term
| Age-related magular degeneration cause |
|
Definition
| Possible result of lipofuscin buildup in RPE that leads to RPE death and then photoreceptor death |
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of severe visual loss in the developed world |
|
Definition
| Age-related macular degeneration |
|
|
Term
| Internal carotid supplies which arteries to the retinas |
|
Definition
| All/both of them: I.C. → ophthalmic → posterior long ciliary aa. & central retinal a. [yeah, "internal caroid" is a red herring] |
|
|
Term
| Retinal vasculature is clinically useful for what diseases (2) |
|
Definition
| 1) Diabetic retinopathy, 2) atherosclerosis |
|
|
Term
| The central retinal a. gives branches that respect a ___ [vertical or horizontal] meridian |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Altitudinal effects on vision are usually localized where |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Unilateral effects on vision are usually localized where |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bitemporal effects on vision are usually localized where |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Homonymous effects on vision are usually localized where |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| External → middle → inner |
|
|
Term
| Homonymous fields of vision |
|
Definition
| Loss of left or right sides (both eyes) of vision (i.e., loss of temporal in one eye and nasal in the other) |
|
|
Term
| External acoustic meatus is ___ cartilagenous and ___ bony [fractions and they better add up to one] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ceruminous glands: apocrine, holocrine, or merocrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type of epithelium in middle ear |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infection of the middle ear |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normal tympanic membrane: concave or convex [w.r.t. middle ear] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Labyrinths of the inner ear (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inner ear is in which bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lines bony labyrinth (superficial to membranous labyrinth) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inner ear is connected to which space of the brain via the ___ |
|
Definition
| Subarachnoid space via the perilymphatic duct |
|
|
Term
| Perilymph is similar in composition to what |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which has electrolyte composition similar to cytoplasm: endolymph or perilymph |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which has electrolyte composition more like extracellular fluid: endolymph or perilymph |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cochlea contains the organ of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Longest "hairs" of a hair cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Displacement of stereocilla toward kinocilium: hyper- or depolarizes membrane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Displacement of stereocilla away from kinocilium: hyper- or depolarizes membrane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ganglion of the cochlear system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ganglion of the vestibular system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is horizontal acceleration: utricle or saccule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is vertical acceleration: utricle or saccule |
|
Definition
| Saccule [my mnemonic: you have to squat vertically to pick up a sack] |
|
|
Term
| Which is joined with the semicircular ducts: utricle or saccule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Neuroepithelial areas of utricle & saccule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is linear acceleration: maculae or cristae ampullares |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is angular acceleration: maculae or cristae ampullares |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Calcium carbonate crystals of the maculae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anatomy to get straight: dilation at end of semicircular canals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anatomy to get straight: mound of hair cells within the ampulla |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anatomy to get straight: gelatenous structure on top of the hair cells within the ampulla |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anatomy to get straight: neuroepithelial areas in semicircular canals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cupola lacks otoliths, what then causes movement of the cupola in response to acceleration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fluid fills the semicircular canals: endolymph or perilymph |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fluid fills the saccule & utricle: endolymph or perilymph |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fluid fills the scala media: endolymph or perilymph |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the ganglion for hearing |
|
Definition
| Spiral ganglion is in the cochlea |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Spaces of the cochlea (4) |
|
Definition
| 1) Scala media, 2) scala vestibuli, 3) scala tympani, 4) inner tunnel |
|
|
Term
| Cells that make up the walls of the inner tunnel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Membrane between scala vestibuli & media |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Membrane between scala tympani & media |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Membrane between scala media & hair cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Auditory conduction pathway through sound transduction (8; stop at organ of Corti) |
|
Definition
| Pinna → ext. ac. meatus → tymp. mem. → ossicles → oval window → perilymph → scala vestibuli → organ of Corti |
|
|
Term
| Cochlea detects high frequecies at: base or helicotrema |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Otic placode from which embryological structure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| External acoustic meatus from which embryological structure |
|
Definition
| First pharyngeal cleft (ectoderm) |
|
|
Term
| Auditory tube is from which embryological structure |
|
Definition
| First pharyngeal pouch (endoderm) |
|
|
Term
| Ossicles are from which embryological structure |
|
Definition
| Neural crest cells (ectoderm) |
|
|
Term
| The ear is derived from the ___ [endo, ecto, mesoderm] layer, except the ___ which is from ___ |
|
Definition
| Ectoderm, except the auditory tube which is from endoderm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hearing loss due to bone growth in middle ear |
|
|
Term
| Hearing loss is possible from which antibiotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Endolymph production/absorption → severe vertigo |
|
|
Term
| Why is impedence matching in the ear matter |
|
Definition
| Because of the transduction from air to liquid |
|
|
Term
| How do the ossicles contribute to impedence matching |
|
Definition
| Lever arms of the malleus & incus give a 3:1 mechanical advantage (incus is shorter arm) |
|
|
Term
| How does the tympanic membrane contribute to impedence matching |
|
Definition
| Tympanic mem. (55 μm²) is 18x larger than oval window (3 μm²) |
|
|
Term
| Which is more important in impedence matching: ossicles or membranes |
|
Definition
| Membranes [tympanic mem. & oval window] |
|
|
Term
| Potential difference between endolymph & perilymph (the endocochlear potential) |
|
Definition
| 80 mV [sufficient to possibly be an energy source for implants] |
|
|
Term
| Where does the tonotopy of hearing start and end |
|
Definition
| Starts with the structure of the organ of Corti and continues throughout and into the brain [no idea where tonotopy ends] |
|
|
Term
| Structural anatomy of the ear does not explain our high sensitivity, what boosts it |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cochlear amplifer is what |
|
Definition
| Electromotility of the outer hair cells to amplify movement of the inner hair cells |
|
|
Term
| Major protein localized to the outer hair cells that accounts for electromotility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mutations in prestin leads to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many outer hair cells per inner hair cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are hair cells orderly or randomly arranged |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| Which type: outer or inner hair cells |
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Definition
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Term
| Which type: outer or inner hair cells |
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Definition
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Term
| Potassium enters the inner hair cell when the stereocilia bend ___ [toward or away from] kinocilium |
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Definition
| Toward kinocilium [KNOW THIS!] |
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Term
| What causes neurotransmitter to be released from the inner hair cell |
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Definition
| Ca2+ influx due to potassium influx |
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Term
| What neurotransmitter do inner hair cells release |
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Definition
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Term
| How & where does the potassium influx go from stereocillia bending leave the cell |
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Definition
| Ca-gated potassium channels |
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Term
| What proteins bind stereocilia tips together (2) |
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Definition
| 1) Cadherin 23, 2) protocadherin 15 [I think it's sufficient to know that there is binding between them] |
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Term
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Definition
| Mutations in cadherins that bind stereocilia tips together |
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Term
| Hypotheses as to where the potassium influx channels in stereocilia are located (2) |
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Definition
| 1) On the tips of stereocilia, 2) membrane sidewall at the membrane cup |
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Term
| How is adaptation achieved with tip links |
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Definition
| Tip link is attached to myosin that motors up and down actin filaments [KNOW THIS!] |
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Term
| What is special about the inner hair cell synapse |
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Definition
| Ribbon synapse: geared for precise and rapid conduction |
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Term
| Are inner hair cells spontaneously releasing glutamate or are they silent when inactive |
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Definition
| Spontaneously releasing glutamate |
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Term
| Type I spiral ganglion neurons to __ [inner or outer] hair cells |
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Definition
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Term
| Type II spiral ganglion neurons to __ [inner or outer] hair cells |
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Definition
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Term
| Do hair cells have efferents to them: if so, which ones |
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Definition
| Both, type I is axoaxonic [KNOW THIS!] |
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Term
| Ratio of ganglia cells to inner hair cells |
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Definition
| 1:1 to 20:1 so a lot of innervation to a single hair cell |
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Term
| Ratio of ganglia cells to outer hair cells |
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Definition
| 1:6 to 1:100 and in same row, so very few Type II ganglia neurons for all outer hair cells |
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Term
| Ways frequency is encoded in the auditory system (2) |
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Definition
| 1) Tonotopically ("place coding"), 2) rate of firing of neurons ("frequency coding") [KNOW THIS!] |
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Term
| How is sound localized (2) |
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Definition
| 1) Interaural timing differences, 2) interaural intensity differences |
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Term
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Definition
| Maintain eye gaze stability during head movements |
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Term
| Frequency limits of human hearing |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Mutation in ribbon synapse molecules that leads to hearing loss |
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Term
| What kind of neurons are the spiral ganglion neurons |
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Definition
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Term
| Vestibular-ocular reflex: turning your head left activates the __ [L or R] vestibular and leads to contraction of what muscles |
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Definition
| Activates left and activates L medial rectus m. and R lateral rectus m. |
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Term
| Vestibular-ocular reflex: turning your head left inhibits the __ [L or R] vestibular and leads to relaxation of what muscles |
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Definition
| Inhibits right and relaxes L lateral rectus m. and R medial rectus m. |
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