Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Hemotology
For the Heme/Onc quiz, 11/9/09
29
Medical
Graduate
11/08/2009

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
What are the early acting growth factors that stimulate progenitor stem cells?
Definition
Steel factor, IL-3 and 6, G-CSF
Term
How is the CFU-S assay performed and what does it demonstrate?
Definition

Cells taken from blood, marrow and spleen are injected into a lethally irradiated mouse. The spleen is harvested after 8-14 days, with appreciable colonies on spleen (although the most are in the bone marrow).

 

Chromosome markes demonstrate monoclonalism of colonies.

Term
What's the difference between the stochastic and deterministic models of hematopoiesis
Definition

Stochastic= permissive; stem cells randomly differentiate or mitose, which is supported by environmental chemokines

 

Deterministic= directive; stem cell fate is determined by cytokines and ECM in micro-environment

Term
What is long term bone marrow culture, and what does it assay for?
Definition
An adherent stromal cell layer neccessary for hematopoeisis is supplied in vitro. It assays for the most primitive cells necessary for hematopoeisis.
Term
What are the markers for progenitor cells?
Definition

Most discernible, CD34+ CD38-

 

Also, Thy1+, Lin-, CD45RA-

Term
What are the steps for erythroid differentiation?
Definition

[image]

 

Note, only CFU-E responds to EPO

Term
What are some of the factors that can affect Epo secretion?
Definition
  • Increase of epo...
    • Anemia
      • Poor oxygenation of blood
      • Altitude sickness
      • Lung disease
      • Abnormal HgB
  • Decrease of epo...
    • End stage renal disease
Term
What are the steps in myeloid differentiation?
Definition

[image]

 

Note: IL-3 and G-CSF are used both in early and late differentiation.

 

Mouse studies suggest that GM-CSF is not essential for hematopoesis, but could have affect on pulmonary macrophage production.

Term
What is the life cycle of granulocytes?
Definition
  • 12-13 days to go from myeloblast to peripheral blood.
  • 6-12 hour half-life in circulation
  • Generally half are freely circulating and half are adhered to endothelium (marginal pool). Physical stress causes shift to circulating pool (transient leukocytosis)
Term
What are the steps of megakaryopoeisis?
Definition

[image]

 

Megakaryocytes mature by increasing nuclear size by factors of 2 (eg 2n, 4n, 8n, 16n), and "blebbing" off platelets.

 

TPO is manufactured in the liver.

Term
[image]
Definition

Macrocytes

 

Typically oval, too thick to display central pallor.

Term
[image]
Definition

Spherocyte

 

Lack central pallor, with more intense color. Can be seen in autoimmune hemolytic anemia (RE cells take a chomp out the RBC cytoskeleton), hereditary cytoskeleton defect, or HbC

Term
[image]
Definition

Elliptocyte

 

Can be due to iron deficiency or myelofibrosis

Term
[image]
Definition

Teardrop RBC

 

Pointed tail, characteristic of myelofibrosis

Term
What are some pathologies that can lead to an MCV <80?
Definition
  1. Iron deficiency
  2. Thalassemia (failure in hemoglobin production)
  3. Anemia of chronic disease
Term
What are some pathologies that could lead to a high MCV but normal MCH?
Definition
  1. Increased reticulocytosis
  2. Liver disease
  3. Agglutinin disease
  4. Hypothyroidism
Term
What are some pathologies indicated by high MCHC? What is considered a high MCHC?
Definition

Indicates dehydrated RBC; >32-36 g/dL

  1. Heriditary spherocytosis
  2. Sickle cell anemia
  3. Homozygous HbC

 

 

Term
An anemic patient comes in with a high RDW and low MCH. What is the most likely cause of their anemia? What are the normal ranges for these values? What would a low MCH but normal RDW indicate?
Definition
  1. Iron defficiency
  2. MCH = 27-33, RDW = 11.5-14.5%
  3. Thalassemia (hemoglobin deficiency)
Term
What pathologies does a high RDW indicate
Definition

>20%

  1. Combined vitamin deficiencies (B12/folate for macrocyte, iron for micro)
  2. MDS
  3. Micoangiopathic hemolysis (reticulocytes observed)
Term
Patient presents with pallor, jaundice, and dark urine. Labs confirm the anemia, as well as reticulocytosis, indirect bilirubin the blood, brown plasma (methemalbuminemia). Histology shows fragmented RBCs (shistocytes). What is the most likely diagnosis? What additional tests would confirm this diagnosis? What are some of the pre-disposing factors?
Definition
  1. Traumatic hemolysis (intravascular hemolysis)
  2. Absent haptoglobin, urobilinogen in urine, hemosiderinurea (present several weeks after trauma)
  3. Can be due to turbulent flow (heart disease, stent), coagulation, or vigorous exercise.
Term
You see an anemic patient who presents with all the symptoms of intravascular hemolysis, with the additional symptoms of pancytopenia and venous thrombosis. What is the mechanism of this disorder and how would you treat?
Definition
RBCs lack MIRL and DAF membrane proteins, leading to complement-mediated hemolysis. Generally treat with corticosteroids, although sometimes requires transfusion or anti-C5' antibodies.
Term
Anemic patient presents with enlarged spleen and signs of extravascular hemolysis (reticulocytosis, indirect bilirubin in blood, low haptoglobin). On examination, you notehyperchromatic, spherical cells. A direct Coombs test comes back negative. What's the diagnosis?
Definition

Hereditary spherocytosis

 

Lack of ankryn leads to decreased structural RBC integrity unable to form biconcave shape. The porous membrane leads to ion leakage and consequent ATP depletion. This results in a sphere-like cell that is prone to RE destruction (hence, splenomegaly).

Term

African-American male comes into clinic with signs of anemia. Histology shows cells with "bite-marks" taken out of them, while special staining for Heinz bodies show up positive. What is the most likely diagnosis and the mechanism of cell destruction?

 

[image] [image]

Definition

G6PD deficiency

 

An X-linked recessive trait seen in 10% of AA males. Failure in the HMP shunt prevents glutathione from returning to its reduced form. This makes the RBC more prone to oxidative stress and the formation of Heinz bodies. When navigating through meshwork of spleen or bone marrow, these bodies can get caught up and removed, leading to the appearance of "bite marks" typical of the disease.

Term
Patient comes in with symptoms mimicking hereditary spherocytosis. You order a specific test, and when the results come back, you change your diagnosis. What test did you order and what is the new diagnosis?
Definition

Direct Coombs; autoimmune hemolysis.

 

Presence of antibodies initiates RE cell endocytosis. Cells that can escape complete endocytosis typically become spherocytes similar to those seen in hereditary spherocytosis.

 

Lymphoproliferative disease and SLE would also suggest warm autoimmune response.

Term
What are some of the diseases that can induce cold-reacting antibodies, and what type of immunoglobulins are involved?
Definition
EBV and mycoplasma; IgM
Term
What are some of the peripheral blood findings associated with megaloblastic anemia?
Definition
  1. Oval macrocytosis [image]
  2. Variation in RBC size (anisocytosis) with RDW >20% possible
  3. Hypersegmentation (some neutrophils with 6-10 lobes, or significant number of neutrophils with 4-6 segments)
  4. Howell-Jolly bodies (nuclear fragments from lysed RBCs)
Term
What are some of the physical exam findings of megaloblastic anemia? What would distinguish folate deficiency from B12?
Definition

Pallor, scleral icterus (jaundice) from indirect bilirubin released from lysing cells, glossitis (smooth, red tongue)

 

[image]

 

Only B12 deficiency will have neurological deficiencies (e.g wide gait, loss of proprioception, spasticity)

Term
You suspect a patient has megaloblastic anemia. What lab result would suggest a B12 deficiency as opposed to folate?
Definition
High methylmalonic acid
Term
What's the most common cause of B12 defiency?
Definition

Intrinsic factor not produced (pernicious anemia / Addisonian). Antibodies typically directed against parietal cells (85% of cases, but not specific for PA) or IF itself (65% of cases, but 100% specific for PA)

 

Dietary problems are rare, since a person would have to avoid B12 for at least 3 years to deplete stores. Other possibilities include terminal ileum malaborption due to Crohn's, fish tapeworm or bacterial overgrowth.

Supporting users have an ad free experience!