Term
| The light-colored zone adjacent to the nucleus in a plasmacyte is the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The following are compounds formed in the synthesis of heme: |
|
Definition
1. porphobilinogen
2. uroporphyrinogen
3. coproporphyrinoge
4. protoporphyrinogen |
|
|
Term
| The majority of iron in an adult is found as a constituant of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The main function of the hexose monophosphate shunt in the erythrocyte is to |
|
Definition
| provide reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin. |
|
|
Term
[image]
Which curve represents the production of alpha polypeptide chains of hemoglobin
|
|
Definition
starts and peaks soon after fetal development persist throughout life
hemoglobinA |
|
|
Term
Which curve represents the production of beta polypeptide chains of hemoglobin?
[image] |
|
Definition
| stays low (<10) until birth, peaks at 6 months persist throughout life |
|
|
Term
Which curve represents the production of gamma polypeptide chains of hemoglobin
[image] |
|
Definition
| begins soon after conception peaks at birth, declines to <0 by three months |
|
|
Term
| Which curve represents the production of delta polypeptide chains of hemog[image] |
|
Definition
Delta begins at about 6-7 months gestation and is nonexistant by four months old
Delta never climbs above 1 or 2 % of total hemoglobin |
|
|
Term
Which curve represents the production of epsilon polypeptide chains of hemoglobin
[image] |
|
Definition
| Episolon is 100% at conception but declines swiftly until it is at% by 3 months gestation |
|
|
Term
| In order for hemoglobin to combine reversibly with oxygen, the iron must be: |
|
Definition
In the ferrous state
(reduced) |
|
|
Term
| In which of the following disease states are teardrop cells and abnormal platelets most characteristically seen? |
|
Definition
myeloid metaplasia
(myelofibrosis) |
|
|
Term
| The characteristic erythrocyte found in pernicous anemia is |
|
Definition
Macrocytic
impaired DNA synthesis, asyncrounous development |
|
|
Term
| In the normal adult, the spleen acts as a site for: |
|
Definition
| removal of imperfect and aging cells |
|
|
Term
| After the removal of red blood cells from the circulation hemoglobin is broken down into: |
|
Definition
| iron, protoporphyrin, and globin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen
Formed with oxidation of Fe and formation of methhemoglobin |
|
|
Term
| Hemolysis in paroxsmal nocternal hemoglobin (PNH) is: |
|
Definition
caused by a red cell membrane defect.
RBC mebrane defect (DAF) increases susceptibility to complement mediated lysis. |
|
|
Term
| Cells for the transport of O2 and CO2 are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| stimulate RNA synthesis of erytheroid cells |
|
|
Term
| What cell shape is most commonly associated with an increased MCHC |
|
Definition
spherocytes
May be referred to as hyperchromic becaused oof increased MCHC |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is most closley associated with idiopathic hemochromotosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient with polycythemia vera who is treated by phlebotomy is most likely to develop a deficiency of: |
|
Definition
iron
iron loss with loss od blood |
|
|
Term
| The direct antiglobulin test is often positive in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The anemia of chronic infection is characterized by: |
|
Definition
decreased serum iron levels
Serum Fe levels low due to sequestration in macrophages and hepatocytes. |
|
|
Term
| Factors commonly involved in producing anemia in patients with chronic renal disease include: |
|
Definition
| inadequate erythropoiesis |
|
|
Term
| A 20 year old woman with sickle cell anemia whose usual hemoglobin concentration is 8 g/dL, develops fever, increased weakness and malaise. The hemoglobin concentration is 4 g/dL and the reticulocyte count is 0.1%. The most likely explanaton for her clinical picture is: |
|
Definition
aplastic crisis
this is common in sickle cell disease |
|
|
Term
| The hypoproliferation red cell population in the bone marrow of uremic patients is caused by: |
|
Definition
| Decreased levels of erythropoietin |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following characteristics are common to hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary elliptocytosis, hereditary stomatocytosis, and paroxysmal hemoglobinuria. |
|
Definition
| red cell membrane defects |
|
|
Term
A 89 year old Caucasian female was transferred to the hospital from a nursing facility for treatment of chronic urinay tract infection with proteinuria. The patient presented with the following laboratory data:
WBC: 10.0, RBC 3.1, Hgb 7.2, Hct 24%, MCV, 78, MCH 23, MCHC 31%, serum iron 29ug/dL, TIBC 160 serum ferritin 100
These data are most consistant with which of the following conditions? |
|
Definition
| anemia of chronic infection. |
|
|
Term
A patient is admitted with a history of chronic bleeding secondary to peptic uncer. Hemotology workup reveals a severe microcytic, hypochromic anemia,. Iron studies were requested. Which of the following would be expected in this case?
Serum iron TIBC Storage iron
result A decreased increased increased
result B increased decreased increased
result C decreased increased decreased
result D increased normal decreased |
|
Definition
C
Iron studies: microcytic hypocromic anemia results in a decrease in serum and storage iron, but an increase in TIBC. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is most closley associated with iron deficicency anemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following hypochromic anemias is usually associated with a normal free erythrocte protoporphyrin level? |
|
Definition
thalassemia minor
FEP thalassemia |
|
|
Term
| Evidence indicates that the genetic defect in thalassemia usually results in |
|
Definition
| A quantitative deficency in RNA resulting in decreased globin chain production |
|
|
Term
| A 20 year old African american man has peripheral blood changes suggesting thalesemia minor. The quantitative hemoglobin A2 level is normal, but hemoglobin F level is 5% (normal is <2%). This is most consistant with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anemia secondary to uremia characteristically is: |
|
Definition
normocytic, normochromic
it is the number of RBC that is decreased |
|
|
Term
Which of the following sets of laboratory findings is consistant with hemolytic anemia?
A. normal or slightly increased erythrocyte survival; normal osmotic fragility.
B. decreased erythrocyte survival; increased catabolism of heme.
C. decreased serum lactate dehydrogenase activity; normal catabolism of heme
D. normal concentration of haptoglobin; marked hemoglobinemia: |
|
Definition
| B. decreased erythrocyte survival; increased catabolism of heme. |
|
|
Term
| An enzyme deficency associate with a moderate to severe hemolytic anemia after the patient is exposed to certian drugs and characterized by red cell inclusions formed by denatured hemoglobin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients with A(-) type G-6-PD deficicency are least likely to have hemolytic episodes in which of the following situations? |
|
Definition
spontaneously
G6PD deficency - hemolytic stimulus |
|
|
Term
| A patient has a congenital nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia . After exposure to anti-malarial drugs the patient experiances a severe hemolytic episode. This exposure is characterized by red cell inclusions caused by hemoglobin denaturation. Which of the following conditions is most consistant with these findings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All of the findings listed below may be seen in aquired hemolytic anemias of the autoimmune variety. The one considered to be the most characteristic is: |
|
Definition
| positive direct antiglobulin test |
|
|
Term
| Peripheral blood smears from patients with untreated pernicious anemia are characterized by: |
|
Definition
| pancytopenia and macrocytosis |
|
|
Term
| Laboratory test performed on a patient indicate macrocytosis, anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Which of the following disorders is the patient most likely to have? |
|
Definition
Vitimine B12 deficency
(pancytopenia, macrocytosis) |
|
|
Term
A patient has the following laboratory data
RBC: 2.35
WBC 3.0
Plt: 95.0
Hgb: 9.5
Hct: 27%
MCV: 115 (high)
MCHC: 35%(high)
MCH: 40
Which of the following test would contribute to this diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The characteristic morphology feature in folic acid deficency is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 50 year old patient was found to have the following Lab results:
Hgb: 7.0
Hct: 20%
RBC: 2.0
It was determined that the patient was suffering from pernicious anemia. Which of the following sets of results most likely was obtained from the same patient:
WBCs Platelets Reticulocytes
result A 17,500 350,000 5.2%
result B 7,500 80,000 4.1%
result C 5,000 425,000 2.9%
result D 3,500 80,000 0.8% |
|
Definition
Result D
Macrocytosis and Pancytopenia
are the classic findings for pernicious anemia |
|
|
Term
| The most likely cause of macrocytosis that often accompanies anemia of myleofibrosis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Megaloblastic asynchronous development in the bone marrow indicates which of the following? |
|
Definition
| Impaired synthesis of DNA |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following are found in association with megaloblastic anemia? |
|
Definition
neutropenia and thrombocytopenia.
Pancytopenia |
|
|
Term
Which of the following represents characteristic features of iron metabolism in patients with anemia of chronic disease
Serun iron Transferrin saturation TIBC
result A normal normal normal
result B increased increased nor/sl inc
result C normal marked inc normal
result D decreased decreased nor/decre |
|
Definition
result D
Iron studies in anemia of chronic disease show decreased serum iron and transferrin saturation; TIBC may be decreased as well. |
|
|
Term
| A characteristic morphology feature in hemoglobin C disease is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thalassemias are characterized by: |
|
Definition
| decreased rate of globin synthesis |
|
|
Term
A patient has the following blood values:
RBC 6.5
Hgb: 13.0
Hct: 39.0%
MCV: 65
MCH: 21.5
MCHC: 33%
these results are compatible with: |
|
Definition
Thalassemia minor
normochromic, noromocytic |
|
|
Term
| Laboratory findings in hereditary spherocytosis do not include: |
|
Definition
decreased osmotic fragility
They do include:
increased auto-hemolysis corrected by glucose
reticulocytosis
shortend erythrocyte survival
|
|
|
Term
| Which of the following types of polycythemia is a severly burned patient most likely to have? |
|
Definition
| relative polycythemia associated with dehydration |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is most likely to be seen in lead poisioning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Giant, vaculated, multinucleated erythroid precursers are present in which of the following? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a significant feature of erythroleukemia/acute erythroid leukemia (DiGuglielmo syndrome) |
|
Definition
| megaloblastoid erythropoiesis |
|
|
Term
| The M:E ratio in erythroleukemia is usually: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The characteristic morphology feature in lead poisoning is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is increased in erythrocytosis secondary to a congenital heart defect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A 40 year old man had an erythrocyte count of 2.5 hematocrit of 22%, and a reticulocyte count of 2%. Which of the following statements best describes his condition? |
|
Definition
| The absolute reticulocyte, count is 50 indicting that the bone marrow is not adequately compensating for the anemia. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is characteristic of polycythemia vera? |
|
Definition
| decreased or absent bone marrow iron stores |
|
|
Term
A 14 year old boy is seen in the ER complaining of a sore throat, swollen glands and fatigue. The CBC results are:
WBC 16.0
RBC: 4.37
Hgb: 12.8
Hct: 38%
Plt: 180
Differential:
absulote neutrophils: 3.9
absolute lymphs: 6.0
absolute monos: 0.5
absolute atypical lymphs: 3.2
What is the most likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
infectious mononucleosis
In infectiuos mononucleosis, the leukocyte count is usually increased due to an absolute lymphocytosis. The platelet count is often mildy decreased. |
|
|
Term
| Which of following technical factors will cause a decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate? |
|
Definition
small fibrin clots in the sample
Also when the shape or size of the red blood cells prevents rouleaux formation a decreased or low ESR is expected. This is observed with sickle cells, acanthocytes and shherocytes. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the RBC indices is a measure of the amount of hemoglobin in individual red blood cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The RDW-CV and RDW-SD performed by automated cell counters are calculations that provide: |
|
Definition
| an index of the distribution of the RBC values |
|
|
Term
| The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can be falsley elevated by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A wright stained peripheral smear reveals the following:
Erythrocytes enlarged 1 1/2 to 2 X normal size
Schuffner dots
Parasites with irregular "spreadout" trophozoites, golden brown pigment.
12-24 merozoites
Wide range of stages.
This is consistant with Plasmodium: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the formula for absolute cell count: |
|
Definition
| % of cells counted X total count. |
|
|
Term
Using a supra vital stain, the polychromatic red cell below would probably be :
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Laboratory test performed on a patient indicate macrocytosis, anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Which of the following disorders is the patient most likely to have: |
|
Definition
Vitamine B12 deficiency
pancytopenia and macrocytes |
|
|
Term
| The mean value of the reticulocyte count on specimens of cord blood from a healthy full term newborn is approximately: |
|
Definition
5.0%
Newborn infants have elevated reticulocyte counts. |
|
|
Term
| A red blood cell count about 5 um in diameter that staiins bright red and shows no central pallor is a: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following results were obtained on a patients blood;
Hgb: 11.5
Hct: 40%
MCV: 26
MCH: 89
MCH: 26
MCHC: 29%
Examination of a wrights stained smear of the sampe same sample would most likely show:
|
|
Definition
| normocytic, hypochromic erythrocytes |
|
|
Term
| Evidence of active red cell regeneration may be indicated on a blood smear by: |
|
Definition
basophillic stippling, nuecleated red blood cells and polychromasia
Polychromatic red blood cells and basophillic stippling can be associated with accelerated heme synthesis. |
|
|
Term
The smear below displays:
[image]
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The persence of excessive rouleaux formation on a blood smear is often accompanied by an increased: |
|
Definition
sedimentation rate
Rouleaux and an increased sedimentation rate are caused by increased fibrinogen and/or with increased immunoglobulin. |
|
|
Term
| The characteristic peripheral blood morphology features in multiple myloma is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In polycythemia vera, the heoglobin , hematocrit, red blood cell count and red cell mass are: |
|
Definition
elevated
The national Polycythemia Vera study group criteria for the diagnosis of polycythemia vera include increased red cell mass, increased platelet count, increased LAP score. |
|
|
Term
| The M:E ratio in polycythemia vera is usually: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Many microspherocytes, schistocytes and budding off of spherocytes can be seen on peripheral blood smears of patients with: |
|
Definition
extensive burns
Patients who have suffered severe burns to more than 15% of their body generally show evidence of intervascular hemolysis, RBCs show changes including fragmentation, budding and microspherocytes formation. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is most closley assiciated with erythroleukemia? |
|
Definition
| ringed sideroblast, nuclear budding and Howell-jolly bodies |
|
|
Term
| The most characteristic peripheral blood smear finding in multiple myeloma is |
|
Definition
| rouleaux formation of the red cells |
|
|
Term
The values below were obtained on a aautomated blood count system performed on a blood sample from a 25 year old man:
Patient Normal
WBC 5.1 5.0 -10.0
RBC 2.94 4.6-6.2
Hgb: 13.8 14-18
Hct: 35.4 40-50%
MCV 128 80-90
MCH 46.7 27-31
MCHC: 40% 32-36
These results are most consistant with which of the following? |
|
Definition
a high titer of cold agglutinins
erroneously elevated MCV and erronously decreased RBC count(due to clumping of cells) |
|
|
Term
A 56 year old man was admitted to the hospital for treatment of a bleeding ulcer. The following laboratory data was obtained.
RBC 4.2
WBC: 5.0
Hct: 30%
serum iron : 40ug/dL
TIBC: 460
serum ferritin 12
Examination of the bone marrow revealed the absence of iron stores. This data is most consistant with wich of the following conditions? |
|
Definition
iron deficiency anemia
Laboratory findings in iron deficiency anemia include decreased serum iron, serum ferritin, % saturation, and increased TIBC, FEP, and serum soluble transferrin receptor levels. |
|
|
Term
A fourty year old caucasian male was admitted to the hospital fro treatment of anemia, lassitude, weight loss, and loss of llibido. The patient presented with the folllowing laboratory data:
WBC: 5.8
RBC: 3.7
Hgb: 32%
MCV: 86
MCHC: 32%
serum iron: 220
TIBC: 300
serum ferritin: 2,800
Examination of the bone arrow revealed erythroid hyperplasia with a shift to the left of erythroid precursers. Prussian blue staining revealed markedly elevated iron stores noted with occasional sideroblast seen. This is most consistant with which of the following conditions. |
|
Definition
hemochromotosis
Secondary hemochromotosis is associated with anemia with abnormaly high serum iron levels. |
|
|
Term
| A common source of interference in the cyanmethemoglobin method is: |
|
Definition
very high WBC count
Turbidity in cyanmethemoglobin reagent- patient specimen will result in falsely elevated hemoglobin values. |
|
|
Term
| A patient with beta thalasemia characteristically has an |
|
Definition
elevated A2 hemoglobin
Hemoblobin A2 is increased in beta thalassemia, but decreased in alpha thal |
|
|
Term
With this blood picture, an additional test indicated is:
[image] |
|
Definition
hemoglobin electrophoresis
Hgb C crystals can be seen in patients with Hgb C disease, more often in individuals more often in individuals who have undergone splenectomy. |
|
|
Term
| The most appropriate screening test for detecting hemoglobin F is: |
|
Definition
Kleihauer-Betke
The Kleihauer-Betke procedure is commonly used as a screening test to determine the amount of fetal blood that has mixed with maternal blood. |
|
|
Term
| The most appropriate screening test for hemoglobin S is: |
|
Definition
dithionite soluability
The soluability test is a rapid test for Hgb S, This should not be used for screening newborns, needs to be corrected in severe anemia and is not specific for Hgb S as there are other hemoglobins that will sickle. The presence of Hgb S is confirmed by hemoglobin electrophoresis. |
|
|
Term
| Hemotology standards include: |
|
Definition
| Certified cyanmethemoglobin solution. |
|
|
Term
| In an adult with rare homozygous delta-beta thalassemia, the hemoglobin produced is: |
|
Definition
Hgb F.
In delta-betthalassemia, one or both of the gamma genes remain, resulting in 100%F. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of hemoglobin H |
|
Definition
its oxygen affinity is lower than that of hemoglobin A
Hemoglobin H does show increased oxygen affinity. |
|
|
Term
| In most cases of hereditary persistance of fetal hemoglobin (HPFH) : |
|
Definition
gamma chain production equals alpha chain production
In the black and swiss types of HPFH, both gamma and alpha chains are produced in approximately equal amounts. |
|
|
Term
| Hemoglobin H disease results from: |
|
Definition
| Absence of 3 of 4 alpha genes |
|
|
Term
| When using the turbidity (solubility) method for detecting the presence of hemoglobin S, an incorrect interpretation may be made when there is an: |
|
Definition
increased hemoglobin
The low hemoglobin can result in a false negative result. |
|
|
Term
| What hemoglobin electrophoresis pattern is consistant with beta thalassemia Major |
|
Definition
| in beta thalassemia mojor, reduced synthesis of beta chains affects the production of Hgb A. Hgb A2, and HgbF are increased and Hgb A decreased |
|
|
Term
| Which electrophoresis pattern is consistant with sickle cell trait? |
|
Definition
| decreased A2, increased Hgb S, no A |
|
|
Term
A native of thiland has a normal hemoglobin lavel. Hemoglobin electrophoresis on cellulose acetate shows 70% hemoglobin A and approximately 30% of a hemoglobin(E+A2) with the mobility of hemoglobin A2 . This is most consistant with hemoglobin: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Laboratory findings on a patient are as follows :
MCV: 55
MCHC: 25%
MCH: 17:
A stained blood film of this patient would most likely reveal a red cell picture that is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient has the following laboratory results:
RBC: 2.00
Hct: 24%
Hgb: 6.8
Reticulocyte count: 0.8%
The mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of the patient is:
|
|
Definition
24 x 10/2.00 = 120
MCV = 120 |
|
|
Term
The following results were obtained from a post surgical patient recieving total paranteral nutrition:
Hospital day 17 18 19
Hgb 12.1 11.6 9.4
Hct 29.2 29.4 28.8
The most consistant explaination for the above data is: |
|
Definition
| lipid interference on days 17 and 18 |
|
|
Term
| A patient has a high cold agglutinin titer. Automated cell counter results reveal an elevated MCV, MCH and MCHC. Individual erythrocytes appear normal on a stained smear, but agglutinates are noted. the appropriate course of action would be to: |
|
Definition
| Repeat the determinations using a prewarmed microsamples of diluted blood |
|
|
Term
| A blood sample from a patient with a high-titer cold agglutinin, analyzed at room temperture with an electronic particle counter would cause an error in the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When using an electronic cell counter, which of the following results can occur in the presence of a cold agglutinin |
|
Definition
| increased MCV and decreased RBC |
|
|
Term
| In polycythemia vera, the leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the formula for mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MCH if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 and the Hgb is 5 g/dL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MCH if the Hct is 20% RBC is 1.5 and the Hgb is 6g/dL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the formula for MCHC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MCHC if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 1.5 and the Hgb is 6 g/dL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MCHC if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 1.5 and the Hgb is 6 g/dL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the formula for mean corpuscular volume (MCV)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Given the following data
Hgb: 8
Hct: 28%
RBC: 3.6
The MCV is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MCV if the hematocrit is 20%, the RBC 1.5 and the hemoglobin is 6. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The principle confirmatory test for hereditary spherocytosis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A screening test for paroxsmal nocternal hemoglobinuria is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The prussian blue staining of peripheral blood identifies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Supravital staining is important for reticulocytes since the cells must be living in order to stain the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is used for staining reticulocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following stains is used to demonstrate iron, ferritin and hemosiderin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following stains can be used to differentiate siderotic graunles (Pappenheimer bodies) from basophillic stippling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A Patient has pancytopenia, decreased total serum iron binding, capacity, and shows a homogeneous fluorescence anti-nuclear antibody test. This is suggestive of: |
|
Definition
| systemic lupus erythematosis |
|
|
Term
| In an uncomplicated case of severe iron deficency anemia, which of the following sets represents the typical pattern of results? |
|
Definition
Serum iron decreased
Serum TIBC increased
% saturation decreased
Marrow % sideroblast decreased
marrow iron stores decreased
Serum ferritin decreased
Hgb A2 decreased |
|
|
Term
Inclusions in the cytoplasm of neutrophils as shown in the figure below are known as:
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An increased amount of cytoplasm basophilia in a blood cell indicates: |
|
Definition
| decreased cytoplasmic maturation |
|
|
Term
| The term shift to the left refers to: |
|
Definition
| Immature cell forms in the peripheral blood |
|
|
Term
| A term that means varying degrees of leukocytosis with a shift to the left and occasional nucleated red cells in the peripheral blood is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cells that produce antibodies and lymphokines are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The peripheral blood monocyte is an intermediate stage in the formation of the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Specific (secondary) granules of the neutrophilic granulocyte: |
|
Definition
| appear first at the myelocyte stage |
|
|
Term
| In normal adult bone marrow, The most common granulocyte is the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Elevation of the total granulocyte count above 7.7 is termed |
|
Definition
| relative nutrophilic leukocytosis |
|
|
Term
| Elevation of the lymphocyte percentage above 47% is termed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Terminal deoxynucleotydyl (TdT) is a marker found on: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Multipotent stem cells are capable of producing: |
|
Definition
| lymphoid and myeloid stem cells |
|
|
Term
| The philadelphia chromosome is formed by a translocation between the: |
|
Definition
| Long arm of chromosome 22 and long arm of chromosome 9 |
|
|
Term
Phagcytosis is a function of:
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mechanism of cortisol induced neutrophilia includes: |
|
Definition
a shift in granulocytes from the marginating pool to the circulation pool
Glucorticoid induced granulocytosis. |
|
|
Term
| Which cells are involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The white cell feature most characteristic of pernicoius anemia is" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following conditions is not asociated with a high incidence of leukemia? |
|
Definition
megaloblastic anemia
Differentiates anemia due to conditioned nutritional deficiency from those of bone marrow dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| The M:E ratio in chronic myelocytic leukemia is usually: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the French- American - British (FAB) classification, mylelomonocytic leukemia would be |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abnormalities found in erythroleukemia include |
|
Definition
| megaloblastoid development |
|
|
Term
| Neutropenia is not usually asssociated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Auer rods are most likely present in which of the following? |
|
Definition
| acute mylelocytic leukemia |
|
|
Term
The following results were obtained on a 45 year old man complaining of chills and fever:
WBC: 23.0
LAP: 200
differential
Segs 60%
bands 21%
lymphs 11%
monos 3%
metas 2%
myelos 3%
Toxic granulation, Dohle bodies and vacuoles
These e=results are consistant with |
|
Definition
neutrophilic leukemoid reacton
Lab findings , increased WBC but with increased LAP; negative philadelphia chromosome differentiates leukamoid response from leukemia. |
|
|
Term
| In an uncomplicated case of infectious mononucleosis, which of the following cells are affected? |
|
Definition
lymphocytes
predominant cell line in viral response is lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| The atypical lymphocytes seen on the peripheral smear of patients with infectious mono is probably derived from which of the following? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following cells is the atypical lymphocyte seen on the peripheral blood smear of patients with infectious mono-nucleosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The disease most frequently present in patients with atypical lymphocytosis and persistently negative test is: |
|
Definition
cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
differentiates CMV as most common of viral diseases that lack serological evidence of infection. |
|
|
Term
| Dwarf or micro megalokaryocytes may be found in the peripheral blood of patients with: |
|
Definition
| myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is associated with pseudo- pelgar-Huet anomaly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| predominately found in acute myelogenous leukemia |
|
|
Term
| The absence of the Philadelphia chromosome in granulocytic leukemia suggest |
|
Definition
| Rapid progression of the disease. |
|
|
Term
| Increased numbers of basophils are often seen in: |
|
Definition
| Chronic myelocytic leukemia |
|
|
Term
| A hypercellular marrow with an M:E ratio of 6:1 is most commonly due to: |
|
Definition
granulocytic hyperplasia
(normal is 3:1 or 4:1) |
|
|
Term
The following results were obtained:
WBC: 5.0
RBC: 1.7
MCV: 84
Plt: 89
LAP: 142
Philadelphia chromosome: negative
Differential :
Segs 16%
Bands: 22%
lymphs: 28%
Monos: 16%
Eos: 1%
Basos: 1%
Metamyelocytes: 4%
Myelos: 31%
Promyelos: 4%
Blasts: 5%
1 megakaryoblast; 30 nucleated erythrocytes; teardrops; schistocytes; polychromasia.
This is consistant with |
|
Definition
Leukoerythroblastosis in mylofibrosis.
Peripheral findings demonstrate condition as mutliplasia, and exclude single cell line disease. |
|
|
Term
A 50 year old man was admitted into the hospital with acute leukemia. Laboratory findings included the following:
Myeloperoxidase stain: blast cells negative
PAS stain: blast cells demonstrate a blocking pattern
TdT: blast cells positive
Surface immunoglobulin: blast cells negative
CD2: blast cells negative
Philadelphia chromosome: Positive
These results are consistant with:
|
|
Definition
Chronic myelogenous leukemia in lymphoblastic transformation.
results demonstrate a lymphoblastic cell line and 1/3 of cases od CGL in blast phase are consistant with ALL. |
|
|
Term
A 30 year old man who had been diagnosed as having leukemia 2 years perviously was readmitted because of cervical lymphadenopathy. Laboratory findings included the following:
WBC: 39.6
RBC: 3.25
Hgb: 9.4
Hct: 28.2%
MCV: 29.0
MCH: 29
MCHC: 33.4%
Plt: 53
LAP: 11
Philadelphia chromosime: positive
Differential:
Polys: 7%
Lymphs: 4%
Monos: 2%
Eos: 3%
Basos: 48%
Myelos: 13%
Promyelos 2%
metamyelos: 8%
Blasts: 13%
NRBCs : 11
Bone Marrow: 95% cellularity, 50% blast cells (some with peroxidase and SBB positivity)
These results are most consistant with:
|
|
Definition
CML in blast transmation.
>20% Blast in peripheral or marrow defines blast conversion. Lab results with % precursor and blast identify progression of this patient from chronic to acute phase.
|
|
|
Term
The following results were obtained on a 35 year old woman complaining of fatigue and weight loss:
WBC: 1.8
RBC: 4.6
Plt: 903
Uric acid 6.4
LAP 0
Philadelphia chromosome: Positive
Differential:
Segs: 30%
Bands: 17%
Lymphs: 13%
Monos: 3%
Eos: 4%
Basos: 6%
Metamyelocytes: 3%
Myelos: 20%
Promyelos: 3%
Blasts: 1%
These tesults are consistant with: |
|
Definition
chronic myelocytic leukemia:
Leukopenia with immature granulocytes in all stages, including blast with markedly decreased LAP and Philadelphia Chromosome, positively identify CML. Leukopenia is consistant with engorged marrow space. |
|
|
Term
| Which is the most predominant form of secondary hematologic malignancy seen in patients with multiple myeloma? |
|
Definition
Acute myelomonocytic leukemia.
Demonstrates the progression of multiple myeloma |
|
|
Term
| In chronic myelocytic leukemia, Blood histamine concentration tend to reflect the |
|
Definition
| number of basophils present |
|
|
Term
| Biochemical abnormalities characteristic of polycythemia vera include: |
|
Definition
increased serum B12 binding capacity
Lab findings are reflective of erythroid rather than myeloid metaplasia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| are lysosome and acid phosphatase positive |
|
|
Term
| 50-90% myeloblast in a peripheral blood is typical of which of the following? |
|
Definition
acute myelocytic leukemia
>20% of myeloblast without other immature stages differentiates AML from CML amd myeloid metaplasia; erythroleukemia requires at least 50% erythroid precursors in the marrow. |
|
|
Term
| The M:E ratio in acute myelocytic leukemia is usually: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whch of the following is most closely associated with acute promyelocytic leukemia? |
|
Definition
Disseminated intervascular coagulation.
These findings differentiate PML from sideroblasitc anemia, mylefibrosis and CGL |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is most closely associated with chronic myelomonocytic leukemia? |
|
Definition
lysozymuria
urinary excretion of elevated levels of lysozyme.
|
|
|
Term
| The absence of intermediate maturing cells between the blast and mature neutrophil commonly seen in acute mlelocytic leukemia and myelodysplactic syndrome is called |
|
Definition
leukemic hiatus
definition of haitus as opening or breaks demonstrates the absence of intermediate maturing cells |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is most closely associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia? |
|
Definition
Philadelphia chromosome
Classic decrimination between CGL vs other hematalogical conditions: sideroblastic anemia, PML, mylefibrosis. |
|
|
Term
| The bone marrow in the terminal stage of erythroleukemia is often indistinguishable from that seen in: |
|
Definition
Acute myelocytic leukemia.
|
|
|
Term
| A block in the differentation or maturation of, and an accretion of immature hematopoietic progenitors is a hallmark of: |
|
Definition
Acute myelogenous leukemia
Acute leukemia is characterized by a maturation defect, whereby immature hemetopoietic progenitors connot overcome a block in differentation, also known as the leukemic haiatus. |
|
|
Term
| All stages of neutorphils are most likely to be seen in the peripheral blood of a patient with: |
|
Definition
chronic myelocytic leukemia
Demonstrates difference between acute vs chronic leukemias; intermediate cell maturity seen in chronic myelogenous , but would not be predominate in erythroleukemia. |
|
|
Term
| All of the following conditions are myeloproliferative disorders except: |
|
Definition
polycythemia Vera:
tell the difference between granulocytic precursor, which would exclude lymphocytic leukemia |
|
|
Term
The following results were obtained on a 55 year old man complaining of headache and blurred vision:
WBC: 19.0
RBC: 7.2
Plt: 1,056
Uric acid: 13.0
O2 saturation: 93%
Red cel volume: 3,911
Differential
Segs: 84%
Bands: 10%
Lymphs: 3%
Monos: 2%
Eos: 1%
These results are consistant with
|
|
Definition
Polycythemia vera
results reflect polycythemia vera's excessive proliferation of multiphasic cell lines (megakaryocytes, erythroid and myelocytoid). |
|
|
Term
| A patient has a tumor that concentrates erythropoietin. He is most likely to have which of the following types of polycythemia? |
|
Definition
polycythemia associated with renal disease
erythopoitetin is made in the kidney. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following types of poltcythemia is most often assiciated with emphysema? |
|
Definition
| polycythemia secondary to Hypoxia |
|
|
Term
| Hemorrage in polycythemia vera is the result of: |
|
Definition
| abnormal platelet function |
|
|
Term
| A patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera 5 years ago now has anormal hematocrit , decreased hemoglobin and microcytic, hypochromic red cells. What is the most probable cause for the current blood situation? |
|
Definition
phlebotomy.
hypochromic, microcytic RBC is most commonly associated with iron deficency, which would most likely result from repeated theraputic phlebotomies |
|
|
Term
A patient has been treated for polycythemia vera for several years. His blood smear shows:
Oval macrocytes
Howell-jolly bodies
Hypersehmented neutrophils
Large, agranular platelets
The most probable cause of this blood picture is: |
|
Definition
chemotherapy
smear findings demonstrate drug impact: megalastic changes due to interference with DNA synthesis (Oval macrocytes) as well as other toxic nuclear effects (Howell-jolly ,hypersegmentation) |
|
|
Term
| In infectious mononucleosis, lymphocytes tend to be: |
|
Definition
| enlarged and indented by surrounding structures. |
|
|
Term
| In comparison to malignant lymphoma cells, reactive lymphocytes: |
|
Definition
| are morphologically more variable throughout the smear |
|
|
Term
| T-cell acute lymphocytic leukemia(ALL) is closely related to: |
|
Definition
Lymphoblastic lymphoma
T vs B origin |
|
|
Term
| In the French-American-British FAB classificaton, acute lymphocytic leukemia is divided into groups according to: |
|
Definition
morphology
WHO focuses on cytogenetic and molecular findings |
|
|
Term
| Increased levels of TdT activity are indicative of : |
|
Definition
acute lymphocytic leukemia
Differentiates ALL from othe acute nonlymphocytic leukemias and burkitt lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is true of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)? |
|
Definition
massive accumulation of primative lymphoid-appearing cells in a bone marrow occurs.
Characteristic of ALL; onset higest 1-5 years with a peak of 2-3 years of age; presents with lethargy, fever bone pain, with poor prognosis under 1 year of age. |
|
|
Term
A 50 year old woman who has been recieving busulfan for three years for chronic myelogenous leukemia becomes anemic. Laboratory test reveal:
Thrombocytopenia
Many peroxidase-negative blast cells in the peripheral blood
Bone marrow hypercellular in blast transformation
Markedly increased bone marrow TdT.
Which of the following complications is this patient most likely to have? |
|
Definition
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Recognize ALL as a possible progression for 1/3 of all CML cases.
Buslfan is an alkylating agent that is used as an antineoplastic drug in the treatment of chronic myelocytic leukemia. |
|
|
Term
| The most common form of childhood leukemia is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is defined as an: |
|
Definition
| accumulation of monoclonal B cells with a block in cell maturation. |
|
|
Term
| Hairy cell leukemia (leukemic reticuloendotheliosis) is: |
|
Definition
| a chronic leukemia of lymphocytic origin. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a characteristic usually assiciated with hairy cell leukemia. |
|
Definition
increased resistance to infection
what IS?
pancytopenia, mononuclear cells with ruffled edges, splenomegaly as well as
decreased resistance to infection |
|
|
Term
| Morphologic variants of plasma cells do not include: |
|
Definition
Goucher cells
They DO inculde:flame cell, morula cells and grape cells.
Goucher cells are from a lipid storage disease. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following bone marrow findings favor the diagnosis of multiple myeloma? |
|
Definition
Sheaths of immature plasma cells
differentiation of most common MM feature from others seen less frequently (flame) or diagnostic of other disease (Reed-Sternberg-Hodgkin lymphoma) |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following have a B cell origin |
|
Definition
Wadenstrom macroglobulinemia
lymphoplasmic in origin |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following cells is moct likely identified in lesions of mycosis fungoides? |
|
Definition
T lymphocytes
neoplastic line (sezery cells) |
|
|
Term
| Of the following, the disease most closley associated with cytoplasmic granule fusion is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following anomalies is an auto dominant disorder characterized by irregulary-sized inclusions in polymorphonuclear neutrophils, abnormal giant platelets and often thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of the following, the disease most closely associated with granulocyte hyposegmentation is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following cell types is characteristic of Pelgar-Huet anomaly is the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is associated with Chediak-higashi syndrome? |
|
Definition
| membrane defect of lysosomes |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is associated with Alder-Reilly inclusions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is associated with May-Hegglin anomaly? |
|
Definition
| Dohle bodies and giant platelets |
|
|
Term
| A differential was performed on a symptomatic patient. The differential included 60% neutrophils: 55 of which had two lobes and 5 had 3 lobes. There were no other abnormalities. This is consistant with which of the following anomolies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cytoplasmic abnormality of the white blood cell of Alder-Reilly anomoly is found in the |
|
Definition
lysosomes
where accumulation of partially degraded mucopolysaccarides accumulate. |
|
|
Term
| Of the following, the disease most closley associated with mucopolysaccharideosis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of the following, the disease most closely associated with glucocerebrosidase deficency is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients with chronic granulomatous disease suffer from frequent pyogenic infections due to the inability of |
|
Definition
| neutriphils to kill phagocytized bacteria |
|
|
Term
| Of the following the disease most closley associated with pale blue inclusions in granulocytes and giant platelets is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An oncology patient has the following results.
DAY 1 DAY 3
WBC: 8.0 2.0
RBC: 3.50 3.45
Hgb: 10.0 9.9
Hct: 28.8% 29.5%
Plt: 180 150
The most propbble explanation is:
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A leukocyte and differential on a 40 year old Caucasian man revealed:
WBC: 5.4
Differential:
Segs: 20%
Lymphs: 58%
Monos: 20%
Eos: 2%
Thsi data represents: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A leukocyte count and differential on a 40 year old Caucasian man revealed:
WBC: 5.4
Differential:
Segs 20%
Lymphs: 58%
Monos: 20%
Eos: 2%
This represents: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In synovial fluid, the most characteristic microscopic finding is gout is: |
|
Definition
| monosodium urate crystals |
|
|
Term
Given the following data:
WBC: 8.5
Differential:
Segs 56%
Bands: 2%
Lymphs 30%
Monos: 6%
Eos: 6%
What is the absolute lymphocyte count? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Given the following data:
WBC: 8.5
differential:
Segs 5 6%
Bands: 2%
Lymphs: 30%
Monos : 6%
Eos: 6%
What is the absolute eosinophil count? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the formula for manual white cell count? |
|
Definition
(number of cells counted x dilution x10)
_______________________________
number of squares counted. |
|
|
Term
| If a WBC count is performed on a 1:10 dilution and the number of cells counted in 8 squares is 120, the total WBC count is: |
|
Definition
120 X 10 X 10
______________________________
8
12000
________
8
1,500
|
|
|
Term
| If a WBC count is performed on a 1:100 dilution and the number of cells counted in 8 squares is 50, the total WBC count is: |
|
Definition
50 x100x10=50,000
50,000/8 =6,250 |
|
|
Term
| An automated leukocyte count is 22.5. The differential reveals 200 normoblast /100 leukocytes. What is the actual leukocyte count per microliter? |
|
Definition
7500
Multiply the uncorrected WBC count by 100. The total in this scenario is 2250
Add 100 to the total number of nucleated red blood cells you observed per 100 WBCs. The total in this example is 300.
Use a calculator to divide the two totals. In this example, you divide 2250 by 300, so the corrected WBC count is approximately 7500. The corrected WBC count equals the uncorrected WBC count multiplied by 100, and this total divided by the number of nucleated red blood cells added to 100 |
|
|
Term
| The total leukocyte count is 10,000 and 25 NRBCs are seen per 100 leukocytes on the differential. What is the corrected leukocyte count? |
|
Definition
8000
10,000 x100 =1000000/ 125=8,000 |
|
|
Term
| If the total leukocyte count is 20.0 and 50 NRBCs are seen per 100 leukocytes on the differential, what is the corrected leukocyte count? |
|
Definition
13,333
20.0 x 100 = 2000
50+ 100=150
2000/150=13,333 |
|
|
Term
| A blood smear shows 80 nucleated red cells per 100 leukocytes. The total leukocyte count is 18. The true white cell count expressed in SI units is: |
|
Definition
10.0
18X100=1800
1800/180 =10.0 |
|
|
Term
A mean cellular hemoglobin concentration (MHCH) over 36g/dL is frquently found in:
|
|
Definition
Hereditary spherocytosis, lipemia (abnormally high plasma lipid)
active cold agglutinin disease |
|
|
Term
| In unexplained elevation of the prothrombin time (PT) in a 72 year old smoker who has been diagnosed with chronic pulmonary obstructive disease is most likely due to: |
|
Definition
an elevate hematocrit
An elevated hematocrit decreases the amount of plasma in the whole blood and causes an effective increase in the amount of citrate added to that plasma. Recalcification incompletly overcomes the additional citrate, and prolongations in clotting time test can be expected, unless the amount of citrate is adjusted for the abnormal hematocrit. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about this field is true?
[image] |
|
Definition
| The large cell on the left is a monocyte |
|
|
Term
nucleated cell in the lower right hand side if the image below (B)is a:
[image] |
|
Definition
Myelocyte
this stage is where secondary granules first show up |
|
|
Term
| In the image below, the small nucleated cell seen[image] in the lower left side is a: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cells seen below are consistant with:
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cell description:
Size: 12 to 16 um
Nucleous: Oval, notched, folded over to horseshoe shape
Chromatin: fine lacy
Nucleoli: none present
Cytoplasm: abundant, slate gray, with many fine lilac granules.
This cell is a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The large cell in the center of this image [image]is a: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The large in the image below is:
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient is diagnosed as having bacterial septicemia. Which would best describe the expexted change in his peripheral blood smear? |
|
Definition
| granulocyte leukemoid reaction |
|
|
Term
| The most characteristic morphological features of atypical lymphocytes include: |
|
Definition
| coarse nuclear chromatin and basophilic cytoplasm |
|
|
Term
| A bone marrow shows foam cells ranging from 20-100 um in size, vacuolated cytoplasm containing sphingomyelin and is PAS+This cell type is most characteristic of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bone marrow examination reveals a hypercellular marrow consisting of probable lymphoblast. The cells stain positively with anti-TnT and anti-CD3 and CD7 antibodies, however, the lymphoblast are negative for SIgs, CD19, CD10 (CALLA), Fc, and complement receptors. The most likely diagnosis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In snovial fluid, the most characteristic finding in pseudogout is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following stains is most frquently used to differentiate acute myelocytic from acute lymphocutic leukemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cell series most readily identified by a positive Sudan black B is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cell type shows the most intense staining with peroxidase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following may be used to stain neutural fats , phospholipids and steroids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The stain that selectively identifies phopholipid in the membrane of primary and secondary granules within myeloid cells is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which substrate is used for the detection of specific esterase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A useful chemical test for the diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia is the: |
|
Definition
| Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase test |
|
|
Term
| Cytochemical stains were performed on bone marrow smears from an acute leukemia patient. All blast were periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) negative. The majority of the blast showed varying amounts of Sudan black B positively. Some of the blast stained positive for naphthol AS-D acetate esterase, some were positive for naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase, and some blast stained positive for both esterases. What type of leukemia is indicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following stains is closley associated with the lysosomal enzyme in primary (azurophilic) granules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What feature would not be expected in pseudo Pelgar -Huet cells |
|
Definition
normal peroxidase activity
they are hypogranular |
|
|
Term
A 30 year old woman was admitted to the hospital for easy brusing and menorrhagia. Laboratory findings included the following:
WBC: 3.5
RBC: 2.48
Plt: 30
Hgb: 8.6
Hct: 25%
MCV: 100.7
MCH: 34.7
MCHC: 34.3
PT: 34.0 sec
APTT: 62.5 sec
TT: 15.0 sec
FSP: >40
fibrinogen: 315
Differential:
Polys: 3%
Lymphs: %
Monos: 2%
Abnormal immature : 58%
Blasts: 31%
nRBC: 1
Auer bodies, 1+ macrocytes, 1+ polychromasia
The cells identified as "abnormal immature" were described as having lobulated nuclei with prominent nucleoli; the cytoplasm had intense azurophilic granulation over the nucleus, with some cells containing 1-20 Auer bobies, frequently grouped in bundles, A 15-17 chromosome translocation was noted. Cells were SBB, peroxidase and NAS-D Chloroacetate positive, PAS negative, Which of the following types of acute leukemia is most likely? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following leukemias is characterized by immature cells that are Sudan black B positive with discrete fine granules , peroxidase negative, PAS variable, strongly alpha naphthyl acetate esterase positive, and muranidase positive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic lymphocytic leukemia cells are most likely to express which of the following cell surface markers? |
|
Definition
CD19, CD20, CD21 and CD5
CLL lymphocytes express the pan-B cell markers as well as CD5, which is normally not expressed in normal B cells , but is on the surface of normal T-cells |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following markers, typically detected in normal myeloid cells, are expressed on the surface of hairy cell leukemia lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In flow cytometry analysis, low angle or forward scatter of a laser light beam provides information that pertains to a cells's |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In flow cytometric ananlysis, right angle (90 degrees) or side scatter of a laser
light beam provides information that pertains to a cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A cell surface marker that is expressed on neoplastic plasma cells and is helpful in the diagnosis of myeloma is |
|
Definition
CD138
CD138 or syndecan , is expressed on neoplastic plasma cells, and is useful in the diagnosis of myeloma |
|
|
Term
| The (8;14) chromosomal translocation brings which of the following 2 genes in close proximity? |
|
Definition
c-myc and the immunogloulin heavy chain
The (8;14) typically found in burkitt leukemia (ALL-L3) brings the master cell cycle control factor c-myc on chromosome 8 under the influence of the strong immunoglobulin heavy promoter on chromosome 14, driving a leukemogenic process |
|
|
Term
| Laboratory test that are designed to aid in the diagnosis of chronic granulomatous disease rely upon the detection of the activity of: |
|
Definition
| PHOX (phagocyte oxidase proteins) |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following laboratory results would be expected in a child with aryl sulfatase B deficency (mucopolysaccharidosis type IV or Maroteaux-Lamy syndrome) |
|
Definition
| increased urinary excreation of glycosaminoglycans (chondroitin sulfate) |
|
|
Term
| vWF antigen can be found in which of the following? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is characteristic of cellular changes as megakaryoblast mature into megakaryocytes within the bone marrow.? |
|
Definition
nuclear division without cytoplasmic division
nuclear maturation and diviosion occurs first, and is largly complete before cytoplasmic maturaton begins |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following cells contain hemosiderin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is the largets cell in the bone marrow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normal platelets have a circulating life-span of approximatly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Asprin affects platelet function by interfering with platelet's metabolism of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The combination of increased capillary fragility and prolonged bleeding time suggest a deficency in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Platelet activity is affected by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cells involved in hemostasis are |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| alpha granules are found on the platelet in the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a true statement about acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) |
|
Definition
| spontaneous remission usually occurs within several weeks |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the most common cause of an abnormality in hemostasis? |
|
Definition
| quantitative abnormality of platelets |
|
|
Term
The following results were obtained;
WBC: 1.8
Hgb: 8.9
Hct: 27.4
Plt: 2,300
LAP: 90
Differential
Segs 70%
Bands 10%
Lymphs: 18%
Monos: 2%
Giant, Bizarre platelets, rare megakaryocytes
3+ Poikilocytosis, 2+ Anisocytosis, 1+ Schitocytes
This is consistant with:
|
|
Definition
| Idiopathic thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
A 53 year old man was in recovery following a triple by-pass operation. Oozing was noted from his surgical wound. The following laboratory data were obtained:
Hemoglobin 12.5
Hematocrit: 37%
Prothrombin time: 12.3
APTT: 34 seconds
Platelet count: 40
Fibrinogen: 250
The most likely cause of bleeding would be:
|
|
Definition
| dilutional thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
| ADAMTS13 deficiency is responsible for thrombocytepenia found in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is an immune mediated complication associated with heparin therapy. Antibodies are produced against... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In polycythemia vera, the platelet count is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thrombocytosis would be indicated by a platelet count of : |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 60 yerar old man has a painful right knee and a slightly enlarged spleen. Hematology results include
hemoglobin 15
absolute neutrophil count 10.0
platelet count 900,000
uncorrected retic count 1%
normal red cell morphology and indices
a slight increase in bands
rare metamyelocytes and myelocytes
giant and bizarre platelets
This is most compatible with |
|
Definition
| idiopathic thrombocythemia |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is characteristic of platelet disorders? |
|
Definition
| mucus membrane hemorrages |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is characteristic of Bernard Soulier syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is associated with glanzmann thrombasthenia? |
|
Definition
| Abnormal ADP aggregeation |
|
|
Term
| The preferred blood product for a bleeding patient with type 1 von Willebrand disease is: |
|
Definition
Cryoprcipitated AHF
DAVVP is better |
|
|
Term
| A phase platelet count is preformed using a plateunopette (dilution 1:100). 155 platelets are counted on one side of the hemocytometer in the center square millimeter, and 145 are counted on the other side in the same area. After making the appropriate calculations, the next step would be to: |
|
Definition
| Report the calculated value |
|
|
Term
| The chamber counting method of platelet enumeraton: |
|
Definition
| allows direct visualization of the particles being counted |
|
|
Term
| Blood is diluted 1:200 and a platelet count is performed. 180 platelets were counted in the center square millimeter on one side of the hemocytometer and 186 on the other side. The total platelet count is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A phase platelet count was performed and the total platelet count was 356,000, 10 fields on the stained blood smear were examined for platelets and the results per field were 16,18,15,20,19,17,19,18,20,16
The next step would be to:
|
|
Definition
report the phase platelet count since it coorelated well with the slide.
Platelet count matches estimate well (average of 17.8 platelets per oil immersina field x 20,000) |
|
|
Term
| An automated platelet count indicates platelet clumping, which is confirmed by examining the smear. The technician should: |
|
Definition
| re-collect in sodium citrate |
|
|
Term
| The automated platelet count on an EDTA specimen is 58,000. The platelet estimate on the blood smear appears normal, but it was noted that the platelets were surrounded by neutrophils. The next step should be to: |
|
Definition
| Recollect a specimen for a platelet count using a different anticoagulant |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a true statement about megakaryocytes in the bone marrow? |
|
Definition
| An average of 1-3 should be found on each low power feild |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following platelet responses is most likely assiciated with glanzmann thrombasthenia? |
|
Definition
| markedly decreased aggragation to epinephrine , ADP and collagen |
|
|
Term
| A bleeding time is used to evaluate the activity of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient has been taking asprin regulary for arthritic pain. Which one of the following test is most likelyto be abnormal in this patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A platelet count done by phase microscopy is 200. A standard template bleeding time on the same person is 15 mins (ref 4.5-1.5) This indicates that: |
|
Definition
| Abnormal platelet function should be suspected |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following detects or measures patelet function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Platelet aggregation is dependant in vitro on the presence of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with classic von Willebrands disease |
|
Definition
| decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetin |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with Hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency)? |
|
Definition
| normal platelet aggregation |
|
|
Term
In the platelet aggregation curve the
[image]
The aggregating agent was added and the curve began to clime and flattened out soon after the secondary wave. What is this typical of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patelet aggregation will occur with the end production of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In von Willebrands disease platelets give an abnormal aggregation result in the presence of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following platelet aggregation tracing represnts :
no aggregation with ADP, collagen or epinephrine
normal with ristocetin |
|
Definition
| Glansmanns thrombasthenia |
|
|
Term
| Coagulation factors affected by coumandin drugs are |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following statements concerning vitamine K is not true. |
|
Definition
heparin inhibits the action of vitamin K
what is true:
There are two sources of vitamin , one vegatable and one bacterial, Vitamine K converts precursor molucules into functional coagulation factors. Vitamine K is fat soluable |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is vitamine K dependant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the followling factors is used only in the extrinsic coagulation pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hageman factor(XII) is involved in each of the following reactions except: |
|
Definition
| transformation of fibrinogen to fibrin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A protein formed by the liver in the presence of vitamine K |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following coagulation factors is considered to be labile? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most potent plasminogen activator in the contact phase of coagulation is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following factor deficiencies is associated with either no bleeding or only minor bleeding tendendency, even after trauma or surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the folloowing is a charecteristic of factor XII deficiency? |
|
Definition
| negative bleeding history |
|
|
Term
| The two factors that differentiate liver disease from vitamine K deficiency are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following factors typically shows an increase in liver disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient has a normal prothrombin time and a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) using a kaolin activator. The APTT corrects to normal when the incubation time is increased. These results suggest the patient has |
|
Definition
Fletcher factor deficiency (prekallikrein)
Prolonged APTT with a normal PT denotes a problem with the intrinsic pathway, so Factors VIII, IX, XI would be looked at, these deficiencies would correct in a mixing study, A characteristic of prekallikerin deficiency is the correction of the PTT when incubated for 10 mins with KAOLIN, Celite, silica, or egalic acid |
|
|
Term
The results on a patient are:
TEST PATIENT RESULTS REF RANGE
PT 18.5 11.0-13.5
APTT: 47.5 24-35
TT: 14.0 12-19
ATIII 82% 70-130%
Protein C 54% 77-167%
Protein S 48% 65-140%
activated protein C resistance 2.6 >2.1
These results reflect: |
|
Definition
Warfarin
Warfarin is a Vitamine K antagonist
affecting factors II, VII IX and X |
|
|
Term
A four year old boy presents with chronic ear infections and is on prophylactic antibiotics. He presents with bleeding. Factors assays reveal:
TEST Patient results ref range
Factor VIII 100% 50-150%
Factor V 75% 50-150%
Factor IX 38% 50-150%
Factor II 22% 50-150
Possible caues |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A hemophilliac male and a normal female can produce a: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following laboratoy data were obtained from a 27 year old man with a long histiry of abnormal bleeding:
PT normal
APTT markedly prolonged
Factor VIII coagulant activity markedly decreased
Factor VIII related antigen: normal
Platelet count: normal
Template bleeding time normal
Which of the following disorders does this man most likely have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following laboratory data were obtained fro a 40 year old woman with a long history of abnormal bleeding
PT; normal
APTT: prolonged
Factor VIII -coagulant activity Decreased
Factor VIII related antigen Markedly decreased
Platelet count normal
Template bleeding time prolonged
Which of the following disorders does this woman most likely have |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemophillia B is a sex-linked recessive disorder that presents with a decrease in Factor: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To distinguish between hemophillia and von willibrands disease a patient with von Willibrand will present with which of the following results? |
|
Definition
APTT abnormal
Bleeding time abnormal
Ristocetin cofactor abnormal |
|
|
Term
A patient presents with bleeding 48 hours post tooth extraction. Results are as follows:
TEST PATIENT RESULTS ref range
PT 11.5 10-13
APTT 32.5 23-35
Fibrinogen 345 200-400
Platelets 324 150-400
Possible causes are a deficiency in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Plasma from a patient with lupus coagulation inhibitor can show |
|
Definition
| a prolonged APTT and normal PT |
|
|
Term
| The activation of plasminogen to plasmin resulting in the degradation of fibrin occurs by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A deficiency in protein C is associated with which of the following ? |
|
Definition
| increased risk of thrombosis |
|
|
Term
| Biological assays for antithrombin III (AT III) are based on the inhibition of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient presents with a low protein S activity, antigen and free antigen. The C4b binding protein is normal. This is classified as: |
|
Definition
Type I
In a type I deficiency of protein S there is decreased activity assay. To determine if the deficiency is a dysfunctional molecule or a quantitative disorder, an ELISA assay should be performed to determine a type II deficiency |
|
|
Term
| APC resistance is confirmed by the molecular test for |
|
Definition
FVL
A DNA test is available to confirmthe specific point mutation of activated protein C resistancenis FVL |
|
|
Term
| Acute disseminated intravascular coagulation is cheracterized by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient develops unexpected bleeding and the following test results were obtained:
PT and APTT prolonged
Fibrinogen Decreased
D-Dimer increased
Platelets: decreased
what is the most probable cause od these results: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patient results are as follows:
TEST Patient results reference range
PT 17.5 11-13
APTT 56.7 25-35
D-dimer 698 <250
Fibrinogen 123 200-400
Platelet count 102 200-400
This workup suggest |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient develops severe unexpected bleeding following four transfusions. The following test results were obtained:
PT and APTT prolonged
Platelets: 50
fibrinogen: 30
DiDimer increased
given these results which of the following blood products should be recommended to the physician for this patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The prothrombin time test requires that the patients citrated plasma be combined with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the APTT test, the patients plasma is mixed with : |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
monitors heparin therapy
intrinsic pathway |
|
|
Term
| Aliquots of plasma with a prolonged PT and a porlonged APTT are mixed using various ratios of patient plasma and normal plasma. All samples are incubated at 37* and tested at 10, 30, and 60 minute intervals. The PT and the PTT results on all of the mixtures are corrected. These results would indicate the presence of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient is taking 10 mg per day of Coumadin (warfarin). The results of which of the following laboratory test will be most impacted? |
|
Definition
Protein C
Protein C is a vitamine K dependant protein , hence warfarin therapy will lower levels of this protein.
|
|
|
Term
| A patients thrombin time is 25.5 seconds, and the control is 11.5 seconds. The patients plasma is mixed with an equal part of normal plasma . The thrombin time is rerun and is 28.0 seconds with a control of 11.5 seconds. These results indicate |
|
Definition
| circulating anticoagulant |
|
|
Term
| A prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase-R time are characteristic of: |
|
Definition
| theraputic heparinization |
|
|
Term
| A 54 year old man was admitted with pulmonary embolism and given streptokinase. Which of the following would be most usefulin monotoring this therapy: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The best test to determine if a sample is contaminated with heparin is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a Clauss fibrinogen method, the time to clot formation in plasma is measured after the addition of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a patient presents with a prolonged APTT that does not correct upon mixing , the next test performed should be |
|
Definition
DRVVT
If the initial APTT remains prolonged in a mix, a second assay should be performed. The lupus anticoagulant has multiple targets . The second test is the DRVVT, which, triggers coagulation at factor X |
|
|
Term
| Excess D-dimer indicate that clots have been: |
|
Definition
formed and are being excessively lysed
D-dimers are produced from crosslinked and stabilized fibrin clots. |
|
|
Term
| D-dimers are produced from |
|
Definition
| crosslinked and stabolized fibrin clots |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following laboratory procedures is most helpful in differentiating severe liver disease and accompaning secondary fibrinolysis from disseminated intravascular coagulation |
|
Definition
Factor VIII activity
Severe liver disease shows a decrease in hepatic synthesis of factors II, VII, IX and X< V, I and XI. The degree of decrease in each of these factors will be dependant on the degree of fibrinolysis and the degree of elevatoion of factors behaving as acute phase reactants, including Factor VIII. |
|
|
Term
| A bedside test that can be used to monitor heparin activity is the: |
|
Definition
Activated clotting time
The ACT monitors high dose heparin therapy at clinics, bedside , cardiac catheterization or at the surgical suite. The stypvin time is a test using snake venom for testing for lupus. The reptilase time is used to distinguish between heparin contamination and a decreased fibrinogen level |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following laboratory findings is associated with factor XIII deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Low molecular weight heparin is monotored by a: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a automated cell counter, the WBC printed results is +++ the next step is to: |
|
Definition
make an appropriate dilution of the sample
+++ indicated that the wBC count exceeds the upper reporting limit. |
|
|
Term
| A specimen ran on an automated cell counter has a platelet count of 19. The first thing the techincian should do is: |
|
Definition
review the stained blood smear
low platelet counts should be verified with a blood smear |
|
|
Term
| The electrical reisitance method of cell counting requires |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An anemic patient has an RBC of 2.7 and a Hgb of 13.5 as determined by an elecrtonic particle counter. Which of the following is the best explanation for these results |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Thr following results were obtained on an electronic particle counter:
WBC: 6.5
RBC: 4.55
Hgb: 18.0
Hct: 45.5
MCV: 90.1
MCH: 39.6
MCHC: 43.4
The first step in obtaining valid results id to:
|
|
Definition
| correct the hemoglobin for lipemia |
|
|
Term
| On an elecrtonic particle counter, if the RBC is erroneously increased, how will other parameters be affected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On setting up the electric particle counter in the morning , one of the controls is slightly below the range for the MCV. Which of the following is indicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following results were obtained on an electronic particle counter.
WBC: +++
RBC: 2.01
Hgb: 7.7
Hct: 28.2
MCV: 141
MCH: 38.5
MCHC: 23.3
What step should be taken before recycling the sample: |
|
Definition
| dilute the sample and rerun |
|
|
Term
| In an electronic or laser particle cell counter, clumped RBCs may interfere with which of the following parameters: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following will not cause erroneous results when using a phase optical system for enumerating parameters |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of error when using automated cell counters is: |
|
Definition
| inadequate mixing of the sample prior to testing |
|
|
Term
| On the electronic cell counter , hemoglobin determination may be falsely elevated due to the presence of: |
|
Definition
| Lipemia or elevated bilirubin concentration |
|
|
Term
| The calculated erythrocyte indices on an adult man are MCV 89, MCH 29, MCHC 38%. The calculations have been rechecked, erythrocytes on the peripheral blood smear appear normocytic and normochromic with no abnormal forms. The next step is to: |
|
Definition
| Repeat the hemoglobin and hematocrit |
|
|
Term
The following results were obtained on an electronic particle counter :
WBC: 61.3
RBC: 1.19
Hgb: 9.9
Hct: 21%
MCV: 125
MCHC: 54.1
What action should be taken nextto obtain accurate results: |
|
Definition
| Warm the specimen and recount |
|
|
Term
A properly functoning electronic cell counter obtains the following results:
WBC: 5.1
RBC: 4.87
Hgb: 16.1
Hct: 39.3
MCV: 82.0
MCH: 33.1
MCHC: 41.3
What is teh most likely cause of these results?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemoglobins are read on a photoelectric colormeter in the laboratory. While reading the hemoglobins , a problem of drifting is encountered. To assess the problem, the first thing to do is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The photo optical method of endpoint detection is described as: |
|
Definition
| change in optical density as a result of a fibrin clot |
|
|
Term
| In laser flow cytometry, histograms combining the data from forward angle scatter with the data from right angle light scatter permit the operator to : |
|
Definition
| differentiate cell populations from one another |
|
|
Term
| In immunophenotyping by flow cytomety the emitting fluorescence intensity is proportional to the: |
|
Definition
| amount of cell surface antigen |
|
|
Term
| The ideal cappilary blood collection site on a newborn is: |
|
Definition
| The plantar side of the heel: |
|
|
Term
| When evaluating a smear for a reticulocyte count , The technician observes that the red blood cells are overlaping throughout the entire slide. The most likely explanation is |
|
Definition
| The drop used for the slide preparation was too large |
|
|
Term
| If the blood smear was dried too slowley, the red blood cells are often: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A citrated blood specimen for coagulation studies is to be collected from a polycythemic patient. The anticoagulant should be |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| blood collected in EDTA undergoes which of the following changes if kept at room temperture for 6-12 hours? |
|
Definition
| increased hematocrit and MCV |
|
|
Term
| The specimen of choice for preparation of blood films for manual differential leukocyte counts is whole blood collected in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A platelet determination was performed on an automated instrument and a very low value was obtained. The platelets appeared adequate when estimated from the stained blood film. The best explanation for this discrepancy is: |
|
Definition
| Many platelets are abnormally large |
|
|
Term
| When platelets concentrate at the edges and feathered end of a blood smear, it is usually due to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Palatelet satellitosis is usually due to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On a smear made directly from a finger stick, no platelets were found in the counting area. The first thing to do is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The anticoagulant of choice for routein coagulation procedures is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A blue top is drawn for coagulation studies, the sample is a short draw results may be |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ISI in the INR represents the reagents: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the standard calibratiion method for hemoglobin aginst which other methods must be varified? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Using automated coagulation instruments, duplication of normal test is no longer apropriate because: |
|
Definition
| the laboratory can document percision by collecting data to reflect percision performance |
|
|
Term
When reviewing results on a factor VIII the following results were obtained:
1:10 -50%
1:20 77%
1:40 120%
1:80 127%
This demonstrates the presence of an |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following CBC results were obtained from an automated cell counter on a patient sample with lipemic plasma
Which of the following would probably be in error
(lipemic sample)
|
|
Definition
|
|