Term
| Which genetic factor is associated with the formation of abnormal amyloid precursor protein (APP)? |
|
Definition
| mutations on chromosome 21 |
|
|
Term
| The presence of confusion and memory deficits indicate that the client has a disturbed thought process. After providing effective treatment, the client becomes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| conditions are known to precipitate delirium in a client |
|
Definition
- febrile illness
- systemic infections
- hepatic encephalopathy |
|
|
Term
| diagnostic test is performed to evaluate the progression of Alzheimer’s disease (AD) in a client |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which neurotransmitter is oversecreted in a client with neurocognitive disorder (NCD), leading to neuronal degeneration and cell death?
Secretion of excess ______ leads to over stimulation of N-methyl-D-aspartate
(NMDA) receptors. This increases intracellular calcium and subsequent neuronal degeneration and cell death. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A client who is in ________ of AD may experience confabulation, in which the client creates imaginary events to fill in memory gaps and denies the existence of a problem. As the client is able to understand and accept problems, it indicates that the treatment is effective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| an antipsychotic drug used in the treatment of psychotic symptoms such as agitation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A client has undergone computerized tomography (CT) examination and has been diagnosed with Pick’s disease. Which parts of the brain are affected in the client? |
|
Definition
- frontal lobe
- temporal lobe |
|
|
Term
| Pick’s disease involves behavioral and personality changes, which indicate that the _________ of the client’s brain is affected |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Speech and language problems are evident in Pick’s disease, which indicate that the ________ of the client’s brain is affected. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Encouraging the client’s review of the past may create a disturbance in the client. _______ should be discouraged |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Option 1:
Distracting the client from the surroundings is an effective intervention in a client with hallucinations.
Option 2:
Covering and moving mirrors helps the client avoid seeing faces in patterns on fabrics or in pictures on the wall and is an effective intervention in a client with hallucinations. Mirrors can cause false perceptions, which may aggravate hallucinations.
Option 3:
Encouraging the client’s review of the past may create a disturbance in the client. Rumination should be discouraged. Therefore, this statement made by the student nurse needs correction.
Option 4:
Determining the reason for visual hallucinations is an effective intervention in a client with hallucinations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the client forgets major events. This stage of illness is not characterized by the loss of motor activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the client is unable to perform some activities of daily living. Loss of motor activity does not occur in this stage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| , the client is able to perform activities of daily living only with assistance. Complete loss of motor activity does not occur in this stage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the final stage of AD, where the client loses motor activity and is bedridden. The client in this stage of illness has impaired speech and communication. The presence of inflamed alveoli indicates pneumonia, possibly due to a depressed immune system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The client with AD who is in the______ stage of the disease has mild-to-moderate cognitive decline. The client cannot understand current news events during this stage of illness. This finding supports the nurse’s conclusion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The client with AD who is in the ______ stage of the disease has moderate cognitive decline. The client cannot recall addresses and phone numbers during this stage of the disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The client with AD who is in the ______ stage of the disease has mild cognitive decline. Work performance is interrupted during this stage of illness. Therefore, the client is unable to plan or organize work-related tasks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| drug doses for schizophrenia |
|
Definition
- haloperidol 1-100 mg
- aripiprazole 10-30
- lurasidone 40-80
- chlorpromazine 40-400 |
|
|
Term
| acute phase of a delusion |
|
Definition
| Assessment of the client with schizophrenia is a complex process based on information gathered from a number of sources. Clients in an acute episode of their illness are seldom able to make significant contributions to their history. Data may be obtained from family members, if possible; from old medical records, if available; or from other individuals who have been in a position to report on the progression of the client’s behavior. |
|
|
Term
| general medical conditions that may cause psychotic symptoms |
|
Definition
- neurosyphilis
- hyperparathyroidism
- temporal lobe epilepsy
- Hypoadrenocorticism
- Acute intermittent porphyria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a typical antipsychotic that improves the positive symptoms and worsens the negative symptoms. Therefore, _______ aggravates anhedonia and regression in the client. |
|
|
Term
| typical antipsychotic agents |
|
Definition
- loxapine
- pimozide
- haloperidol
- quetiapine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The client prescribed with ______ medication may have high weight gain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Concomitant use of epinephrine and phenothiazine may result in decreased cardiac output. Therefore, the nurse expects severe ______ in the client. |
|
|
Term
| Community support programs |
|
Definition
| help the clients to work with community agencies. These programs emphasis on vocational expectations and sheltered workshops help provide rehabilitation to the client with schizophrenia. |
|
|
Term
| the psychomotor symptoms of schizophrenia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| refers to the lack of energy to perform the activities of daily living. It is common among clients with schizophrenia and it affects the cognitive abilities as well as the physical movements of the client. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is one of the symptoms associated with schizophrenia, which manifests as assuming bizarre postures. It affects the psychomotor behavior of the client. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| imitating the mvmt of other people |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The schizo client in the of schizophrenia exhibits symptoms such as being very shy and withdrawn. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The schizo client in the ________ exhibits nonspecific symptoms such as anxiety and irritability. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The schizo client in the __________ may show symptoms such as disorganized speech |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The client in the ___________ may show negative symptoms such as diminished emotional expression. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ____________ pathway is associated with endocrine functions such as digestion and temperature control. If the psychotic client has frequent hyperthermia and indigestion, it indicates that the this pathway may be affected. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| If the psychotic client shows any symptoms associated with memory, emotions, arousal and pleasure, it indicates that the ______ pathway may be affected. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| If the psychotic client shows any symptoms associated with motor control, it indicates that the ______ pathway may be affected. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| If the psychotic client shows any symptoms associated with cognition, social behavior, planning, problem solving, motivation, and reinforcement in learning, it indicates that the ______ pathway may be affected. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Disturbances in work, interpersonal skills, self-care for at least 6 months is indicative of ________ |
|
|
Term
| encephalitis and meningitis |
|
Definition
| medical conditions may be implicated in the predisposition of an intellectual disability |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is the medication administered to children and adolescents from 5 to 16 years old who have autism spectrum disorder. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is useful in treating autism spectrum disorder. However, it is prescribed to children and adolescents in the age range of 6 to 17 years old. |
|
|
Term
| The DSM-5 groups these disorders into a single diagnostic category—autism spectrum disorder |
|
Definition
| (ASD): autistic disorder, Rett’s disorder, childhood disintegrative disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, and Asperger’s disorder. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The incidence rate of intellectual disabilities in the general population is about |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| refers to the person’s ability to adapt to the requirements of daily living and the expectations of his or her age and cultural group. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- ST memory deteriorates with age
- LT memory doesn't |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| intelligence doesn't dec with age |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| learning ability not diminished with age |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| common in the elderly, can cause depression |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| important to successful aging |
|
|
Term
| maintaining a pos self-concept |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| can cause depression and anxiety in the elderly. self-esteem is important |
|
|
Term
| psychiatric disorders in later life |
|
Definition
- cognitive
- depressive
- phobias
- alcoholism |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- neurocognitive
- delirium
- depression
- schizophrenia
- anxiety disorders
- personality disorders
- sleep disorders |
|
|
Term
| Parkinson's - motor symptoms |
|
Definition
neurodegenerative disorder
- tremors at rest
- rigidity
- postural instability
- bradykinesia |
|
|
Term
| parkinsons - nonmotor symptoms |
|
Definition
- autonomic dysfunction
- sleep disturbances
- depression
- psychosis
- dementia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- degeneration of neurons in the substantia nigra
- sn supplies dopamine to the striatum
- imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- activate dopamine receptors
- drugs that block cholinergic receptors |
|
|
Term
| pd drugs for motor symptoms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| enzyme that converts levodopa to dopamine |
|
|
Term
| acute loss of response to levodopa |
|
Definition
two patterns
- gradual wearing off at end of dosing interval
- abrupt loss of effect. on-off phenomenon |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- nausea
- dyskinesias
- hypotension
- psychosis |
|
|
Term
| 1st gen antipsychotic drugs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| two 2nd gen antipsychotic drugs that don't block dopamine receptors |
|
|
Term
| combining levodopa with nonselective MAOI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| high protein (amino acid) meals |
|
Definition
| can reduce levodopa effects |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| it enhances the effects of levodopa and doesn't cross the BBB |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- oral nonergot dopamine agonst
- first-line drug for pd motor symptoms
- can be used with levodopa in late stage of pd
- can be used alone in early pd |
|
|
Term
| major adverse effects of pramipexole (from excessive activation of dopamine receptors) |
|
Definition
- nausea
- dyskinesia
- post hypo
- hallucinations |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- a COMT inhibitor
- inhibits metabolism of levodopa in the intestines and peripheral tissues
- more levodopa is available to the brain |
|
|
Term
| selegiline and rasagiline |
|
Definition
- inhibits brain enzyme MAO-B
- MAO-B inactivates dopamine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| relieve symptoms of pd by blocking cholinergic receptors in the striatum |
|
|
Term
| the goal of pharmacologic therapy in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease |
|
Definition
To balance cholinergic and dopaminergic activity in the brain.
Parkinson’s disease results from a decrease in dopaminergic (inhibitory) activity, leaving an imbalance with too much cholinergic (excitatory) activity. With an increase in dopamine, the neurotransmitter activity becomes more balanced, and symptoms are controlled. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Selegiline can have a dangerous interaction with ______, leading to stupor, rigidity, agitation, and hyperthermia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| headache, arthralgia, dyspepsia, depression, and flu-like symptoms. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Amantadine is not as effective as some other medications, so it is not a first-line treatment for pd, but it may be used in addition to other medications. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- neuritic plaques
- neurofibrillary tangles
- degeneration of cholinergic neurons in the hippocampus and cerebral cortex |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cholinesterase inhibitors or memantine |
|
|
Term
| cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil) |
|
Definition
- inc availability acetylcholine at cholinergic synapses
- enhances xmission by cholinergic neurons that haven't yet been destroyed by AD |
|
|
Term
| cholinesterase inhibitors |
|
Definition
| modest improvements in cognition, behv, and function in 1 out of 12 pts |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- bradycardia (fainting, falls, fractures, and pacemaker placement)
- n&v
- dyspepsia
- diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| drugs that block cholinergic receptors |
|
Definition
- 1st gen antihistamines
- tricyclic antidepressants
- conventional antipsychotics |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- NMDA receptor agonist
- modulates effects of glutamate at NMDA receptors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| approved only for moderate to severe AD |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| no significant adverse effects |
|
|
Term
| Rivastigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor) |
|
Definition
| is thought to have the highest probability of producing adverse GI effects |
|
|
Term
| the principal indication for antipsychotic drugs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| disordered thinking and reduced comprehension of reality |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- hallucinations
- delusions
- agitation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- blunted affect
- poverty of speech
- social withdrawal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- disordered thinking
- reduced ability to focus attn
- learning and memory difficulties |
|
|
Term
| 1st and 2nd gen antipsychotic drugs |
|
Definition
| both equally effective at treating schizo |
|
|
Term
| 1st gen antipsychotics (FGAs) |
|
Definition
| high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) |
|
|
Term
| 2nd gen antipsychotics (SGAs) |
|
Definition
| high risk of metabolic effects |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| they are no safer than FGAs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| both inc mortality risk in elderly with dementia-related psychosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| therapeutic responses to antipsychotic drugs take.... |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| are thought to relieve symptoms by causing strong blockade of D2 receptors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| are thought to relieve symptoms by causing moderate blockade of D2 receptors and strong blockade of 5-HT2 receptors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
major concern is EPS early in txt
- acute dystonia
- parkinsonism
- akathisia
- tardive dyskinesia (late in txt) |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the main symptoms of Akathisia? |
|
Definition
Extreme agitation/restlessness
Inability to sleep/insomnia
Profound anxiety/terror/panic
Feeling like you're jumping out of your skin or want to rip your skin off and escape
Feeling a need to run away |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A "dragging leg"
Cramping of the foot
Involuntary pulling of the neck
Uncontrollable blinking
Speech difficulties |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Lip smacking
Tongue thrusting
Rapid eye blinking
Facial grimacing
Finger tapping
Arm and leg movements |
|
|
Term
| anticholinergic drugs (benzotropine) |
|
Definition
| acute dystonia and parkinsonism respond to |
|
|
Term
| anticholinergic drugs, benzos, or beta blockers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| much greater with high-potency FGAs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| equal with high and low potency FGAs |
|
|
Term
| risks with low-potency FGAs |
|
Definition
- sedation
- ortho hypo
- anticholinergic effects |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- muscular rigidity
- high fever
- autonomic instability
- death |
|
|
Term
| dantrolene and bromocriptine |
|
Definition
| used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome |
|
|
Term
| can inc circulating levels of prolactin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| levodopa can counteract the beneficial effects of FGA drugs, and vice versa because |
|
Definition
| levodopa activates dopamine receptors, whereas FGAs block dopamine receptors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the prototype of the high-potency FGAs |
|
|
Term
| 3 important ways SGAs differ from FGAs |
|
Definition
- they block receptors for serotonin and dopamine
- they carry a lower risk of EPS, including TD
- they carry a higher risk of serious metabolic effects such as wt gain, diabetes, dyslipidemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is a nonstimulant drug. It increases the release of norepinephrine, and it is approved for the treatment of adults with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. It has no potential for abuse. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is recommended for treatment of ADHD in cases where there may be concern for stimulant abuse or there exists a strong aversion to treatment with stimulant medications. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| These drugs decrease hyperactivity but have little effect on impulsivity and inattention. Responses develop slowly. Beneficial effects begin in 2 to 3 weeks and reach a maximum at around 6 weeks. Tolerance frequently develops within a few months. In contrast to the stimulants, which can be discontinued on weekends, antidepressants must be taken continuously. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| act primarily by causing the release of norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine (DA) and partly by inhibiting the reuptake of both transmitters. These actions take place in the CNS and in peripheral nerves. Most pharmacologic effects result from the release of NE. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| can reduce behavioral symptoms of ADHD but is less effective than stimulants. The drug lacks the adverse effects associated with tricyclic antidepressants (eg, cardiotoxicity, anticholinergic effects) but does pose a risk of seizures. |
|
|
Term
| The adverse effects of the barbiturates |
|
Definition
| include respiratory depression, risk of suicide, risk of abuse, and hangover (sedation, impaired judgment, and reduced motor skills). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| , a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, is the treatment of choice for overdose of the benzodiazepine diazepam [Valium]. Naloxone [Narcan] is used to reverse opioid overdose. Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst] is used to reverse acetaminophen [Tylenol] overdose. Vitamin K is used to reverse warfarin toxicity. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| , a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, is the treatment of choice for overdose of the benzodiazepine diazepam [Valium]. Naloxone [Narcan] is used to reverse opioid overdose. Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst] is used to reverse acetaminophen [Tylenol] overdose. Vitamin K is used to reverse warfarin toxicity. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| , a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, is the treatment of choice for overdose of the benzodiazepine diazepam [Valium]. Naloxone [Narcan] is used to reverse opioid overdose. Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst] is used to reverse acetaminophen [Tylenol] overdose. Vitamin K is used to reverse warfarin toxicity. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What are the causes of secondary neurocognitive disorders (NCDs) in a client |
|
|
Term
| estrogen and progesterone |
|
Definition
| when given in combination, leads to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer in elderly clients. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The client is said to have _____ if he or she misinterprets external stimuli |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The client with schizophrenia may have different types of hallucinations. Tactile hallucinations are one of the types of hallucinations in which the client may complain about something crawling on or under the skin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Option 1:
The client in the premorbid phase or Phase I experiences schizoid or schizotypal personalities, which are characterized as quiet, passive, and introverted.
Option 2:
The client in the prodromal phase or Phase II experiences nonspecific symptoms such as social withdrawal and positive symptoms such as suspiciousness. Therefore, the client exploiting the group members during any group activities indicates that the client is in Phase II of schizophrenia.
Option 3:
The client in the active psychotic phase or Phase III experiences prominent psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations.
Option 4:
The client in the residual phase or Phase IV experiences periods of remission or exacerbation. |
|
|
Term
| psychotic disorders and the risk of harming others |
|
Definition
Option 1:
Dysphoria refers to a state of dissatisfaction. However, this does not indicate the risk of violent behavior in the client.
Option 2:
Manic excitement is one of the symptoms that infer that the client is at risk of self-directed or other-directed violence. Mechanical restraints are recommended, when necessary.
Option 3:
The nurse infers that the client with increased agitation is at a risk of injury. The nurse does not infer the risk of self-directed or other-directed violence.
Option 4:
The client with extreme hyperactivity is not at risk of self-directed or other-directed violence. |
|
|
Term
| psychotic disorders and the risk of harming others |
|
Definition
Option 1:
Dysphoria refers to a state of dissatisfaction. However, this does not indicate the risk of violent behavior in the client.
Option 2:
Manic excitement is one of the symptoms that infer that the client is at risk of self-directed or other-directed violence. Mechanical restraints are recommended, when necessary.
Option 3:
The nurse infers that the client with increased agitation is at a risk of injury. The nurse does not infer the risk of self-directed or other-directed violence.
Option 4:
The client with extreme hyperactivity is not at risk of self-directed or other-directed violence. |
|
|
