Max Takeoff Weight?

Max Alternate Takeoff Eeight?

164,000

175,000

Recc 540 FPM Landing Weight?

Max Normal Landf weight?

Max Alternate Land weight?

540 = 142K

Norm = 164K

Max Alt Land = 175K

(normal and max land and T/O are the same.)

Max Low Speed Drogue speed when extended?

Max High Speed Drogue Speed when extended?

130 Low

250 High

Main Landing gear Max speed?

Nose Tire Max speed?

174 main

139 Nose

<28K mains

No restiction on Auxes

<500 in Externals

Outboards 7323

Inboards 6677

What puts you in secondary fuel management?

(5 things can do it)

-Less than 7060 OB's 6400 IB's  IF there is fuel in the Aux or Externals.

-500 to 1000 between IB/OB

-1000 pounds between symmetrical pair

-1500 between wings

-1 Aux Empty, 1 Aux full

First Aid Kits

Actual # & Provisions =

IPRA

RPI to FAF Range?

FAF to IF range?

GS Range?

IAF to IF max turn?

MAP to MAF range?

1 to 10 nm RPI to FAF

5 to 15 nm FAF to IF

2 to 4 deg for GS

120 max turn, 60 recc

0 to 10 nm for MAp to MAF

This will occur any time there is usable fuel in the external and/or auxiliary tanks and the main tanks are partly filled to less than

26,930 pounds, or when the 500- to 1,000-pound difference between each inboard and outboard main tank is not observed. An

extreme case would be operation with tanks No. 1 and No. 4 or tanks No. 2 and No. 3 empty.

If individual door/ramp switches on the ramp control panel

are used to open the cargo door/ramp in flight, open the

ramp a minimum of _____ inches prior to opening the cargo

door. If individual door/ramp switches on the ramp control

panel are used to close the cargo door/ramp in flight, the

cargo door must be closed prior to the ramp reaching the

last ____ inches of closure.

Cargo Door Open (Ramp Up and

Locked) 250

Paratroop Air Deflectors Open 150

Paratroop Door(s) Open and Locked 250

Paratroop Doors Opening/Closing and

Open But Not Locked 150

Severe Turbulent Air Operation 181

High-speed drogue extending/retracting/

engaging 250

High-speed drogue minimum speed for AR operations 185

High-speed drogue extended,

maximum speed 250

Low-speed drogue extending/retracting/

engaging 120

Low-speed drogue minimum speed for

AR operations 105

Low-speed drogue extended, maximum

speed 130

Inoperative Windshield Anti-icing Below 10,000 Feet Altitude 187

What temp do we use to measure fuel temp?

What temp makes the APU difficult to start? 

TAT or total outside temperature

-40

High-speed drogue extension/retraction/AR operations:

Low-speed drogue extension/retraction/AR operations:

185-250

105 - 120 (post engagement 105 - 130)

The AR pod can perform aerial refueling up to ______ ft (maximum) with the high-speed drogue extended and ______ (maximum) with the low speed drogue extended. The air refueling pod can operate in a temperature range of −65 °F (−5 °C) to +131 °F (+55

°C).

Hose operation (deployment, retraction, response test) should be commanded only in ____________, to reduce the risk of AR system malfunctions.

In case of hose jamming in unusual positions during hose extension and retraction, promptly remove __________ to the pod to avoid potential damage to the pod equipment.

EO-IR turn-on below ____ºC may cause improper initialization resulting in degraded performance. To prevent these problems apply power to EO-IR only when EU temperature is _____ ºC or above.

The maximum weight for a single platform to be airdropped is _______ pounds.

Multiple platforms with a combined weight exceeding

_______ pounds may be dropped under the condition that before the ______pound weight is extracted, the airplane must be stabilized in 1.0G flight.

Do not exceed_____ in. Hg of cabin differential pressure to

avoid the possibility of structural damage to the aircraft.

Enter/exit nose wheel well from _____ side only. Do not enter/ exit from ________ side of nose wheel well due to possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen.

Warning: The length of the lifeline must be adjusted to prevent the

crewmember from exiting the airplane if the door should open inadvertently.

Avoid the area directly behind, under, or in front of the ____ ____ _____ ________.

The minimum batteries voltage allowed for takeoff is ____ VDC.

Replace battery if voltage is less than ___ VDC. If battery voltage is between ___ VDC and ___ VDC, recharge (in airplane) or replace the battery and rerun the battery test.

• Recharging time for a battery indicating between __ and ___ VDC may take up to 30 minutes.

• If battery voltage is readable but flickering when airplane is on battery only power, the displayed battery voltage is correct.

Pressing the line select key adjacent to the smoke detector legend initiates the smoke detector test and highlights the smokedetector legend. Test will run for approximately _____ seconds.

Do not select _________ until both CNI-MU show correct

present position (GPS/LAST/REF).

If no ____ position is displayed and satellite status checks good, restart the indicated GPS by pressing the EGI 1 (or 2) RECYCL key from the AMU, NAV SELECT, EGI POWER page.

Do not select _______ until attitude/heading indications are displayed on both PFDs.

Close the pilot’s and copilot’s swing windows when pressurizing the fuel manifold with the AR valve _____. A worn seal or malfunctioning poppet valve could cause fuel to spill over the forward fuselage area and down the windshield. Coordinate with ground control and monitor aerial refuel manifold for leaks during aerial refueling system check.

During AAR:

Failure of the manifold pressure to _______ when the tank

transfer switch is placed in the OFF position, indicates a failed open tank filler valve. Maintenance action is required prior to flight during which the fuel manifold will be pressurized.

During AAR: 

When outboard tanks are filled to the maximum allowed, and all other tanks are serviced to single point capacity, a decrease in fuel manifold pressure may not occur when tank transfer switches are placed in the TO position. Recheck applicable tank fill valves during taxi or prior to air refueling when the fuel quantity has been reduced to allow flow through the tank refuel shutoff float valves.

Serious damage to _____ camera may result from exposure to excessive light levels. Never point LLTV sensor at the sun. Use caution when viewing other bright light sources. To prevent damage select LLTV FILTER AUTO unless instructions require a different setting. Ensure TU LOS is not pointed at sun or other strong light source.

Published data in printed form is the ______ certified source for navigational data. Navigational databases in the CNI-MU, including SID and STAR, provide a supplemental means of navigation data. Due to errors in the CNI-MU flight path computation and/or navigation database, for some SID and STAR the flight director will command a flight path that results in a deviation from the published printed procedure. Crews must verify and crosscheck all INAV guidance with published data, using the primary means of navigation (e.g., navigation radios).

If Aerial Refueling Receiver operations are anticipated, opening the Universal Aerial Refueling Receptacle Slipway Installation (UARRSI) door at this time is mandatory to remove moisture from the slipway area. Open the door for approximately _______ seconds and then close the door.

TOLD:   If landing data is manually calculated, new landing data will be required for airplane weight change greater than _______ pounds, pressure altitude change greater than 1,000 feet, or outside air temperature change greater than 5 °C.

Do or Do not..?.. transfer fuel from tank to tank during landings or touch and go landings.

During RWR operation, an anomaly generates a false blanking signal if the ______ is OFF. When the false signal is generated, the RWR ignores emitter signals that it should identify. When theat conditions dictate limiting airplane emissions, ensure the LPCR is in standby mode and not transmitting: Place the RADAR control panel MASTER switch to ON and deselect all full channel and partial channel modes of the radar (lights in the mode select switches extinquished).

Position verification is required if FOM greater than ___ on either NAV solution

When cabin altitude exceeds _______ feet MSL, all crewmembers will continuously breathe oxygen provided by the airplane oxygen system. If any persons experience signs of decompression sickness/or unusual pain, follow the High altitude airdrop emergency procedures.

It is possible for the CNI to issue an erroneous ____ _____ message any time between the TP and the CARP waypoints during the airdrop run-in. Time-to-go (TTG) to the CARP remains accurate and should be used to verify the validity of the _____ ______ messages.

The CSO will monitor the timing for usable DZ length and

call ____ _____ at the expiration of the time or that time of the loadmaster’s "load clear" call, as required.

If all checklists are not complete by the CSO’s "___ _______" call, the crew will call "no drop" and follow the appropriate procedures.

With multiple 28-foot extraction parachutes deployed outside the airplane, maximum thrust may be needed to stay aloft or to control the descent. The drag produced by the extraction parachutes should decrease if airspeed is allowed to bleed off. This reduction in drag could permit level flight or reduce the rate of descent should level flight not be

possible. Do not reduce power to achieve this airspeed change and do not slow below VS carat +20. This airspeed

provides an acceptable airspeed margin for zero bank angle. If the airplane must be turned to get to a suitable landing area, this airspeed may not be sufficient to prevent a stall while in banked flight. If a turn is required, pilots should be sensitive to the first indication of a stall and reduce bank and or lower nose to decrease angle of attack and eliminate the stall indication. Any power reduction will increase the stall speed. The tradeoff in selecting a landing site, straight ahead or one requiring a turn is a function of the rate of descent the required airspeed will produce. The higher the airspeed, the faster the airplane will likely descend. A forced landing straight ahead will produce the lowest allowable airspeed, least rate of descent and most desirable impact forces. Any turn will decrease the time before impact. However, the risks associated with turning may be mitigated by the terrain the airplane will impact such as forest or built up areas.

Prior to selecting RWND, ensure that the low-speed drogue

hose has been ___ ____ ____, and the pod supply valve is _______,depressurizing the hose.

If the hose fails to fully stow on the first attempt (with either high- or low-speed drogue), _________ prior to attempting another rewind.

During aerial refueling any fuel delivered to the AR pods at

pressures greater than ____ PSI from the pod fuel pumps will flow back into the respective outboard fuel tank through the AR pod venturi-pressure reducer vent line. It is possible to exceed the maximum allowable fuel weights listed in Section 1.

If the aerodynamic loading on the hose/drogue does not exceed the hose rewind tension when the receiver airplane disconnects from the drogue, then the hose will stop or slowly rewind. Selecting ____ ______, or cycling the aerial refueling pod control to REWIND followed by TRAIL, will reset the hose to the fully trailed position.

Perform a reset each time the tanker airplane stabilized airspeed changes more than _________. This must be done prior to granting receiver clearance to engage the hose.

10 KCAS

To obtain consistent and predictable hose response ensure that the hose reel remains at operating temperature during AR engagements. If the hose has been rewound and stowed or left at trail for longer than a ________ minute period between receivers (hose not used/stationary), cycle the hose at least once or perform one _______ to ensure the system is warmed up prior to engaging a receiver.

An ACAWS Advisory L (or R) INTCON VLV OPEN - L (or

R) POD POWER OFF message will be triggered each time

an interconnect valve is _______ and the respective pod master power is ____.

The CSO or PM must ensure that the airplane speed is ______ the maximum drogue extension speed prior to trailing the hoses.

During HAR:

Minimum airspeed for this procedure should be ____ KCAS for the high-speed drogue and ____ KCAS for the low-speed drogue (maximum for the low-speed drogue). Prior to commencing the reel response check, cycle the hoses at least _____ to ensure proper operation. Do not allow hose to rewind completely into the pod using the R-TEST LSK. Select RESP RESET prior to hose reaching 10 feet extended.

Perform the hose response test at least _____ to ensure system is warmed up and all air is removed from the hydraulic system.

Do not hold the R-TEST LSK long enough to allow the hose

to rewind completely. If this should occur, do not release the _____ until the reel is secured (MASTER POWER

LSK OFF). Do or do not attempt further reel operation? The hose appears to be stowed in the tunnel, but the ejection spring is not at full tension. If trail is selected, the hose will unwind inside the pod before the paradrogue can be deployed.

While conducting aerial refueling checks from the CSOS,

the pilot monitoring shall have the POD CTRL 1/2 page displayed during the ____ _____ ______ to permit access to the MASTER POWER OFF LSK during an emergency.

During Reel Response:

The hose stops and should extend when reel response is released. YEL status should be highlighted____seconds after hose reaches trail

During the  Reel Response tests, If the hose does not return to trail, momentarily select ____ _____ and VERIFY - CSO/PM

If you switch to Aux because Utility isn't working, after auxiliary hydraulic system pressure has stabilized, operate

the AR system in a normal manner, except as follows:

• Engage only one drogue at a time

• Perform Reel Response Test one at a time

• Retract one drogue at a time

Reels that cannot be operated using either the utility or auxiliary hydraulic systems by either normal switch operation or manual override can be used for ______ ______ dead hose refueling.

In the event of an electrical failure of the pod hydraulic

pressure control valve (aft of LH wheelwell behind seats),

the valve has a ______ ______ button that can be manually opened and held depressed by a crew member while attempting to rewind the hose.

Use of an AR pod or hose when a fuel leak is observed may result in a broken hose and/or an AR pod/wing fire. Any time fuel is observed originating from an AR pod, _______ ____, report discrepancy, and ensure that no further refueling from the affected pod occurs until maintenance has been performed.

An off-center receiver disconnect ______ _______ the probability of structural failure of the refueling hose, drogue, and/or the refueling probe. If an engaged helicopter is significantly off center from the drogue trail position, advise the receiver to reduce refueling drogue off-center displacement prior to disconnecting.

The location of the FLCVs in the outboard main tanks allow these tanks to be _______ in flight if AR pods are installed. To avoid ________ tanks 1 and 4 in flight, use the preset fuel quantity function.

For AAR:

This checklist is normally started ___minutes prior to the

ARCT. Monitor the designated Air to Air Refueling frequency

at least ____ minutes prior to ARCT.

If the auxiliary hydraulic system must be used due to loss of the utility system, prior to selecting the auxiliary system, determine if the utility system fluid was lost in the area where the systems share ______ ______. The auxiliary system fluid could also be depleted should the hydraulic fuse fail.

If the receiver(s) is not at the correct rendezvous altitude ______ minutes prior to the RVCT/ARCT, they will be required to make another radio call when established at the correct rendezvous ______.

Should any ACAWS caution or fuel system advisory message other than ________ or _________be displayed, disconnect from the tanker and comply with the appropriate ACAWS procedure, emergency procedure, or alternate fuel transfer procedure to correct the problem and/or redistribute fuel. When the problem is corrected, make contact with the tanker and complete the refueling.

In-flight, when transferring fuel into a main fuel tank with an ______ ______ ______and the fuel tank is near full capacity, movement of the airplane could result in fuel siphoning through the fuel vent system. Should this occur, stop the fuel transfer and lower the level in that tank to where the fuel venting stops.

If fuel vapor is detected in airplane interior during

refueling, disconnect and ventilate airplane using

______________________ procedures. Do

not change electrical switch positions until fuel fumes are

eliminated.

When the tanker confirms that fuel is transferring, verify fuel pressure is indicated, quantity gauges for selected tanks indicate an increase and monitor fuel quantity for selected/desired fuel quantity. If the fuel quantity does not automatically stop when the set/desired fuel quantity is reached, switch the affected tank transfer TO switch to ____.

Pressing the SPR DRAIN switch to drain initiates the drain

cycle. This activates the drain pump, opens the refuel drain and SPR valve and closes the cross-ship valves. During the drain cycle the drain switch arrow illuminates for ___ minutes. When the drain cycle is complete, the drain pump shuts off, the refuel drain valve closes, SPR valve and cross-ship separation valves return to their selected position, and the drain switch indicates OFF.

The SPR drain cycle ______ be terminated from the CNI-MU FUEL MANAGEMENT soft panel.

Before the application of de-icing fluid, __________________. Following de-icing fluid application, check the interior of the airplane for leaks and fumes. Deicing fluid fumes are toxic and extremely irritating to the eyes and lungs. Isopropyl alcohol fumes may create a fire hazard.

Operation of electronic equipment for longer than___minutes at temperatures above _____ without adequate cooling may reduce the life expectancy of these components.

Hot weather operation is operation in temperatures above _____ with or without high humidity.

When the airplane is parked with the fuel tanks more than three-quarters full (6,400 pounds in the outboard and

6,000 pounds in the inboard), all crossfeed valves should be ______. This prevents the low tanks from overfilling by

slow transfer of fuel through the boost pump check valve bleed orifice from the cross-ship manifold and fuel spillage

through the fuel vent system.

Fuel tank quantity indicators should be read while the airplane is in level flight (___ degrees roll and ___degrees nose-up pitch) for the most reliable readings.

___________ is used when using fuel from the auxiliary or external tanks, when balancing tank levels,

or in other special uses.

_________________ when the airplane is in a rapid climb or when engines are in a high fuel flow state (high

power settings at low altitude) increases the possibility of momentary interruption of fuel flow and possible engine

flameout. Initiate crossfeed operations and fuel balancing after level off at cruise altitude, when workload permits.

_____ _____ _______ _______cannot be accomplished when the main fuel tanks are completely full because the fuel level control valves in the tanks are closed. During takeoff and climb to cruise altitude, sufficient fuel is normally consumed to allow the fuel level control valves to open and permit _____ _____ _____ _____. To ensure this procedure is successful, the FUEL PRESS indicator shall be observed/monitored during the priming procedure. If fuel pressure does not decrease approximately ____ PSI when the No. 4 MAIN transfer switch is placed to TO, or increase to _____ to ____ PSI within 30 seconds, the cross-ship manifold priming was not successful. In this case, wait long enough for sufficient fuel to be consumed to allow the fuel level control valves to remain open and permit successful cross-ship manifold priming.

Do not transfer fuel from tank to tank during _______ (full stop landing or touch and go). Airplane movement could

cause fuel to spill from the vent system.

If the standard Autonav alignment fails, use GC alignment. 

At latitudes up to 65 degrees, a ____ minute gyrocompass alignment will yield full specified performance.

LTM is a Class IV laser that produces invisible non-ionizing IR radiation that can cause permanent blindness to people

and animals. To prevent blindness to personnel or livestock, fire laser only over areas where firing Class IV laser is authorized. Do not fire LTM at areas where people or animals are present within ______ feet.

The operator loses control of the EO-IR for up to ____ seconds after initiation of IBIT. To prevent loss of opportunity, do not initiate IBIT in tactical situations where target imagery may be required within _____ seconds.

The following test requires clear air to check ELRF transmitter power and receiver sensitivity. If blowing dust, rain, or fog is visible this test may fail. If test fails ELRF may be fully functional. In that case ensure ELRF is checked as early in mission as possible where clear air allows ranging ground targets with a minimum measured distance of ____ feet.

Transient voltage spikes may occur when airplane power is switched between external and internal power sources or

shut off, possibly causing improper operation of the EO-IR. If EO-IR is operating, place EO-IR to ____before switching

to/from external power sources or shutting down airplane power.

f the failure is caused by an overheat condition, shutting down the EO-IR for ____ minutes or more may correct the condition. After such a rest, the IR sensor may require up to ___ minutes to again reach operating temperature.

For loss of normal brake pressure, you can turn the Aux pump on.  If the auxiliary hydraulic pump is inoperative, the auxiliary hydraulic system ____ _____may be used for stopping the airplane in an emergency by holding the brake pedals down while the hand pump is being operated.

In the event utility or booster hydraulic system high pressure in excess of ________ (failed hydraulic pump compensator) is indicated, do not shut off the individual hydraulic engine pumps. If the hydraulic engine pumps are shut off, the pressure line between the hydraulic pump and shutoff valve is isolated from its means of pressure control. Excessive pressure will build up until the hydraulic pump or line ruptures, dumping this fluid into the engine nacelle.

If the utility hydraulic system fails, the aerial refueling system pod hoses can be extended and retracted using the

__________ hydraulic system. Refer to Emergency Reel Operation and Refueling under Aerial Refueling Tanker Emergencies in Section 2A or Section 2C.

A dump system is provided to dump all fuel overboard except approximately ______ pounds in each main tank, 0 pounds in each auxiliary tank, and 0 pounds in each external tank (if installed).

Setting a tank quantity to ______ pounds lower than indicated quantity will allow that tank to dump to the set quantity.

Because of the important part electrical controls play in the operation of the airplane, electrical power _________ ____ be shut off until the pilot is reasonably certain that it is, or will be, a contributing factor to smoke or fire, and that loss of electrical controls will not be a greater hazard than the smoke or fire.

The airplane must be __________and the crewmember who is checking the DOOR OPEN indication must ensure the lifeline is attached before approaching the door.

When Ditching:  to establish a landing pattern to the smoothest surface condition, a minimum of ______ pounds of fuel should remain at time of descent from altitude.

For Ditching:  

The crew and/or passengers must not leave ditching positions until the airplane has stopped forward movement. Serious injuries can occur as the result of personnel unfastening safety belts prior to the airplane coming to a full stop.

• Ensure that personnel are outside of the airplane and clear of escape hatches prior to inflating life vests.

If possible, use or dump most of the fuel supply to lighten the airplane and reduce stalling speed. _____ _____ also help keep the airplane afloat.

Do not operate a main tank transfer pump when the pump is not immersed in fuel and could overheat. This occurs when the output pressure is less than ___ PSI in a no-flow condition, or when tank fuel quantity is less than the following:

• Tanks 1 & 4 on ground - 1,900 pounds

• Tanks 2 & 3 on ground - 1,140 pounds

• Tanks 1, 2, 3, & 4 in flight - 1,520 pounds

Monitor tank quantities. If the preset function is used, flow to the selected tanks will stop when the tank quantity reaches the preset value ±_____ pounds. If the preset function is not used, place the transfer switch to OFF as each tank is filled to the desired quantity.

low fuel state ops:

With all main tank boost pumps operating, the fuel tanks will empty one at a time until all fuel is exhausted. Whenever it is determined that the airplane will land with less than ______ pounds of fuel, inform Air Traffic Control that a fuel emergency exists.

TANK 1 (2, 3, or 4) HEAVY (C) and L (R) WING HEAVY

(C) ACAWS messages should be ignored with less than

6,000 pounds of total fuel. TK 1 (2, 3, or 4) FUEL LOW

(C) ACAWS messages are not available with less than ________pounds of total fuel.

Low fuel state operations are defined as those operations that result in the airplane landing at destination with less than _______ pounds of fuel.

Low fuel state ops: If any main tank boost pump is inoperative, _____ the crossfeed valve for the tank with the inoperative pump since that tank cannot provide fuel to the other engines.

The IFA should be complete within ___ minutes. The IFA may take as long as ___ minutes if performed on an EGI that does not have cryptovariables loaded.

The AC system consists of ____ AC buses

They are:

The AC system consists of six AC buses: the left-hand AC, right-hand AC, essential AC, main AC, essential avionics AC, and main avionics

Both the _______ AC bus and the ____ AC bus may be powered by any of the engine-driven generators.

The ESSENTIAL AC bus and main AC bus (if the

APU is the only source of power) also is powered by the APU-driven generator, so it may be used as a source of ____ power for air and ground operation.

There are ___ buses in the DC power system:

Name them.

the main DC bus, the essential DC bus, the isolated DC bus, the avionics DC bus, the utility battery bus, and the avionics battery bus.

The __ electrical system is powered by the AC electrical system through four regulated transformer rectifiers. The battery switch and battery test switch are the only crew operated __ controls.

To prevent possible eye discomfort or injury, personnel should remain a minimum of ____ feet from any energized IR lights and not look directly at an IR light that is operating at maximum intensity.

Fuel for the APU is routed directly from the _____ fuel tank.

Each of the main tanks is equipped with ____ fuel pumps.

A ___ Pump and a ___ pump.

The aux transfer pump has overriding output pressure which, under normal operation, assures depletion of fuel from the auxiliary tanks before the ____ tanks are used.

Main tanks No. 1 and No. 4 each have ____ FLCVs to compensate for wing flex and allow a greater fuel load in flight.

The auxiliary tanks, external tanks, and tanks No. 2 and

No. 3 each contain ___ FLCV. The FLCVs are spring-loaded closed if electrical power to both solenoids is interrupted, or closed by ______ if tank capacity is reached. The FLCVs can also be programmed to stop filling the tank at any preset quantity.

The fuel system components have different design pressures. The cross-ship manifold and internal wing plumbing is rated at ___PSIG operating pressure. The 3-inch diameter aerial refueling manifold is rated at____PSIG operating pressure.

The 3-inch AR manifold connects the cross-ship manifold to the aerial refueling pods. It is routed from the cargo compartment through the flap well and along the wing trailing edge to the pods, and is connected to the cross-ship manifold in the outboard dry bays. Interconnect valves are used to isolate the two manifolds. A pressure transducer located in the wing root area of the left hand trailing edge, monitors the aerial refueling manifold pressure. The pressures for the AR manifold are ___ PSI operating, ___ PSI proof, and ___ PSI burst. The pressure transducer monitoring AR manifold pressure has the capability to monitor pressure over a range from 0 to ____ PSI.

Two pod fuel valves control the supply of fuel to the AR pods. The two 3-inch, dc motor-operated butterfly valves are located in the wing trailing edge. The valves have an approximate closing time of __seconds minimum and___ seconds maximum.

The interconnect valves isolate the AR manifold and the cross-ship manifold during aerial refueling pump operation. The two 3-inch,motor-operated butterfly valves are located the outboard dry bays. Each interconnect valve has an approximate closing time of __ seconds minimum and ___ seconds maximum.

There is no requirement to perform an SPR drain after each refuel or transfer operation. Performing frequent SPR

drain operations will ____________ ________ the operational life of the SPR drain pump. An SPR drain operation should be performed where indicated on the checklist.

When in the preselect offload mode the MC will shut off

flow to the receiver when the actual delivered fuel quantity is _____ pounds less than the scheduled value.

The fuel flow rate indicator displays the pod flow rate, in GPM, as reported from the fuel flow meter in the aerial refueling pod down to a value of____GPM.

In the event of valve motor failure, the

valve can be opened or closed manually by a red lever on the valve motor actuator, located on the forward wing box beam (left center) in the ____ ________.