Term
G0B02
What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?
A. AWG number 20
B. AWG number 16
C. AWG number 12
D. AWG number 8 |
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Definition
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G1A06
Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?
A. 1875 kHz
B. 3750 kHz
C. 3900 kHz
D. 4005 kHz |
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Definition
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Term
G1A08
Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?
A. 1855 kHz
B. 2560 kHz
C. 3560 kHz
D. 3650 kHz |
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Definition
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Term
G1A09
Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?
A. 14250 kHz
B. 18155 kHz
C. 21300 kHz
D. 24900 kHz |
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Definition
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Term
G1A14
In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. All three regions |
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Definition
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G1B10
What is the power limit for beacon stations?
A. 10 watts PEP output
B. 20 watts PEP output
C. 100 watts PEP output
D. 200 watts PEP output |
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Definition
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Term
G1C05
Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?
A. 100 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output |
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Definition
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G1C06
Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1200 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output |
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Definition
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G1C07
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?
A. 56 kilobaud
B. 19.6 kilobaud
C. 1200 baud
D. 300 baud |
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Definition
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Term
G1C09
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?
A. 56 kilobaud
B. 19.6 kilobaud
C. 1200 baud
D. 300 baud |
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Definition
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G1C10
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?
A. 56 kilobaud
B. 19.6 kilobaud
C. 1200 baud
D. 300 baud |
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Definition
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G1C11
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?
A. 56 kilobaud
B. 19.6 kilobaud
C. 1200 baud
D. 300 baud |
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Definition
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G2A04
Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?
A. Upper sideband
B. Lower sideband
C. Vestigial sideband
D. Double sideband |
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Definition
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Term
G2B09
Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B. Only a RACES net control operator
C. A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational |
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Definition
| A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license |
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Term
G2E01
Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
A. USB
B. DSB
C. CW
D. LSB |
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Definition
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Term
G2E04
What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?
A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B. 14.070 - 14.100 MHz
C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz |
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Definition
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G2E05
What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?
A. LSB
B. USB
C. DSB
D. SSB |
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Definition
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Term
G2E06
What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
A. 85 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 425 Hz
D. 850 Hz |
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Definition
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Term
G2E07
What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?
A. 3570 3600 kHz
B. 3500 3525 kHz
C. 3700 3750 kHz
D. 3775 3825 kHz |
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Definition
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Term
G3A02
What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected |
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Definition
| B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies |
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Term
G3A04
Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?
A. 80 meters and 160 meters
B. 60 meters and 40 meters
C. 30 meters and 20 meters
D. 15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters |
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Definition
| D. 15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters |
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Term
G3A07
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
A. At the summer solstice
B. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D. At any point in the solar cycle |
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Definition
| D. At any point in the solar cycle |
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Term
G3A16
What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
A. Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B. Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C. Improved HF long path propagation
D. Reduced long delayed echoes |
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Definition
| A. Auroras that can reflect VHF signals |
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Term
G3B02
Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?
A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
B. Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C. Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
D. Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band |
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Definition
| A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band |
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Term
G3B07
What does LUF stand for?
A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D. The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period |
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Definition
| A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points |
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Term
G3B08
What does MUF stand for?
A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period |
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Definition
| B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points |
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Term
G3B09
What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
A. 180 miles
B. 1,200 miles
C. 2,500 miles
D. 12,000 miles |
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Definition
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Term
G3B10
What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
A. 180 miles
B. 1,200 miles
C. 2,500 miles
D. 12,000 miles |
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Definition
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Term
G3C09
What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
A. Faraday rotation
B. Scatter
C. Sporadic-E skip
D. Short-path skip |
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Definition
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Term
G3C11
Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?
A. A vertical antenna
B. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C. A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
D. A right-hand circularly polarized antenna |
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Definition
| B. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground |
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Term
G3C12
Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?
A. The F2 layer
B. The F1 layer
C. The E layer
D. The D layer |
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Definition
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G4A08
What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
A. Minimum SWR on the antenna
B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current |
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Definition
| D. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current |
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Term
G4A14
What is likely to happen if a transceivers ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?
A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B. Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
D. All of these choices are correct |
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Definition
| B. Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions |
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Term
G4C08
Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
A. Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors
C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable |
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Definition
| A. Placing a ferrite choke around the cable |
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Term
G4D02
Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?
A. It increases peak power
B. It increases average power
C. It reduces harmonic distortion
D. It reduces intermodulation distortion |
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Definition
| B. It increases average power |
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Term
G4D07
How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
A. Approximately 1.5 times
B. Approximately 2 times
C. Approximately 4 times
D. Approximately 8 times |
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Definition
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Term
G5A13
Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
A. A transformer
B. A Pi-network
C. A length of transmission line
D. All of these choices are correct |
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Definition
| D. All of these choices are correct |
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Term
G5B03
How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?
A. 0.5 watts
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 3200 watts |
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Definition
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Term
G5B06
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?
A. 1.4 watts
B. 100 watts
C. 353.5 watts
D. 400 watts |
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Definition
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Term
G5B10
What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?
A. 10.9 percent
B. 12.2 percent
C. 20.5 percent
D. 25.9 percent |
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Definition
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Term
G5B12
What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
A. 173 volts
B. 245 volts
C. 346 volts
D. 692 volts |
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Definition
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Term
G5B14
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?
A. 8.75 watts
B. 625 watts
C. 2500 watts
D. 5000 watts |
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Definition
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Term
G5C06
What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
A. 2370 volts
B. 540 volts
C. 26.7 volts
D. 5.9 volts |
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Definition
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Term
G5C07
What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?
A. 12.2 to 1
B. 24.4 to 1
C. 150 to 1
D. 300 to 1 |
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Definition
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Term
G6A18
What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
A. Large values of inductance may be obtained
B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D. All of these choices are correct |
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Definition
| D. All of these choices are correct |
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Term
G7A04
What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
A. One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
B. One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D. Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply |
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Definition
| D. Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply |
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Term
G7B10
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?
A. Low standby power
B. High Efficiency
C. No need for bias
D. Low distortion |
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Definition
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Term
G7B12
Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class AB
D. Class C |
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Definition
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Term
G7B13
What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?
A. To limit the modulation index
B. To eliminate self-oscillations
C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D. To keep the carrier on frequency |
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Definition
| B. To eliminate self-oscillations |
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Term
G7B14
Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier
D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier |
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Definition
| B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform |
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Term
G7C01
Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?
A. Carrier oscillator
B. Filter
C. IF amplifier
D. RF amplifier |
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Definition
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Term
G7C02
Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?
A. Discriminator
B. Detector
C. IF amplifier
D. Balanced modulator |
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Definition
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Term
G7C03
What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
A. Balanced modulator
B. IF amplifier
C. Mixer
D. Detector |
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Definition
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Term
G7C04
What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?
A. RF oscillator
B. IF filter
C. Balanced modulator
D. Product detector |
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Definition
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Term
G7C08
What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?
A. Product detector
B. Phase inverter
C. Mixer
D. Discriminator |
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Definition
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Term
G7C09
Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?
A. An analog to digital converter
B. A digital to analog converter
C. A digital processor chip
D. All of the these choices are correct |
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Definition
| D. All of the these choices are correct |
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Term
G8A01
How is an FSK signal generated?
A. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
B. By changing an oscillators frequency directly with a digital control signal
C. By using a transceivers computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
D. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator |
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Definition
| B. By changing an oscillators frequency directly with a digital control signal |
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Term
G8A04
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
A. Multiplex modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Pulse modulation |
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Definition
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Term
G8A09
What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?
A. The RF clipping level
B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
C. Antenna inductance or capacitance
D. Attenuator level |
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Definition
| B. Transmit audio or microphone gain |
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Term
G8B01
What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?
A. Mixer
B. BFO
C. VFO
D. Discriminator |
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Definition
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Term
G8B02
If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
A. Quadrature noise
B. Image response
C. Mixer interference
D. Intermediate interference |
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Definition
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Term
G8B04
What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
A. Mixer
B. Reactance modulator
C. Pre-emphasis network
D. Multiplier |
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Definition
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Term
G8B05
What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?
A. 31.5 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 1800 Hz
D. 2300 Hz |
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Definition
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Term
G8B07
What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?
A. 101.75 Hz
B. 416.7 Hz
C. 5 kHz
D. 60 kHz |
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Definition
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Term
G8C01
Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?
A. FSK441 and Hellschreiber
B. JT9 and JT65
C. Clover
D. RTTY |
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Definition
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Term
G8C02
How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?
A. The number varies
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8 |
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Definition
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Term
G8C06
What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?
A. The checksum overflows
B. The connection is dropped
C. Packets will be routed incorrectly
D. Encoding reverts to the default character set |
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Definition
| B. The connection is dropped |
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Term
G9A01
Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line |
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Definition
| A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors |
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Term
G9A04
What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?
A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line |
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Definition
| C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance |
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Term
G9B07
How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?
A. It steadily increases
B. It steadily decreases
C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D. It is unaffected by the height above ground |
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Definition
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Term
G9B09
Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?
A. Lower ground reflection losses
B. Lower feed point impedance
C. Shorter Radials
D. Lower radiation resistance |
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Definition
| A. Lower ground reflection losses |
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Term
G9C02
What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
A. 1/4 wavelength
B. 1/2 wavelength
C. 3/4 wavelength
D. 1 wavelength |
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Definition
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Term
G9C06
What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?
A. The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
B. There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point
C. The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element
D. The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element |
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Definition
| D. The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element |
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Term
G9C09
How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?
A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B. Approximately 3 dB higher
C. Approximately 6 dB higher
D. Approximately 9 dB higher |
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Definition
| B. Approximately 3 dB higher |
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Term
G9C14
How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?
A. About 2/3 as much
B. About the same
C. About 1.5 times as much
D. About twice as much |
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Definition
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Term
G9C15
Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?
A. Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B. Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
C. Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
D. Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength |
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Definition
| B. Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength |
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Term
G9C16
How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?
A. 3 dB higher
B. 3 dB lower
C. 2.54 dB higher
D. About the same |
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Definition
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Term
G9C19
How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?
A. dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower then dBd gain figures
B. dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
C. dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
D. dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB |
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Definition
| B. dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures |
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