Term
| Which two leads in a normal axis EKG should always have an upright QRS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can a Left-Axis deviation be spotted by evaluating Leads I and aVF? |
|
Definition
| Lead I-upright QRS; lead aVF-inverted QRS |
|
|
Term
| What type of cardiac conduction anomoly is common in COPD pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What ACLS medication can be used to treat symptomatic bradycardia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is true of the QRS complex in both LBBB and RBBB? |
|
Definition
| it is greater than 120 mec |
|
|
Term
| What is true of the QRS complex in lead V1 with LBBB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The PR interval time in first degree conduction block is greater than what value? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cardiac medications are known to cause second-degree AV block (Mobitz type I; PR interval increases until a beat is dropped)? |
|
Definition
| digoxin, beta-blockers, CCBs |
|
|
Term
| Describe second-degree Mobtiz II AV block. |
|
Definition
| unexpected dropped beat without changes in PR interval |
|
|
Term
| Complete independence of the atria from the ventricules is seen in what type of heart block? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is 3rd degree AV block treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should pts with atrial fibrillation be treated? |
|
Definition
rate control w/ CCBs, beta-blockers, and digoxin
coagulation therapy if over 48 hrs. New onset-cardioversion |
|
|
Term
| The achronym P.I.R.A.T.E.S. is used to remember the causes of atrial fibrillation. What does each letter stand for? |
|
Definition
Pulmonary disease
Ischemia
Rheumatic heart disease
Anemia/Atrial myxoma
Thyrotoxicosis
Ethanol
Sepsis |
|
|
Term
| How are premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) different from ventricular tachycardia? |
|
Definition
| Ventricular tachycardia has three or more PVCs back-to-back and may progress to ventricular fibrillation |
|
|
Term
| Which three ACLS medications are used to treat ventricular tachycardia? |
|
Definition
Lidocaine Amiodarone Procainamide |
|
|
Term
| Sawtooth appearing EKG is most commonly descriptive of what conduction anomaly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A pulmonary embolus MAY cause EKG findings. What are these findings? |
|
Definition
| (S1Q3T3); an S wave in lead I, Q wave in Lead III, inverted T wave in Lead III |
|
|
Term
| A delta-wave is seen in what cardiac conduction anomaly? |
|
Definition
| Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Right-axis deviation and an R wave in V1 greater than 7mm is diagnostic of what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the ABCCCD causes of dilated cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
Alcohol
Beriberi
Coxsackie
Chaga's disease
Cocaine
Doxorubicin |
|
|
Term
| Which abnormal cardiac sound is associated with cardiomyopathies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An S4 sound is associated with what kind of cardiac findings? |
|
Definition
| high atrial pressure or stiff ventricle |
|
|
Term
| The side effects of ACEIs fits into the achronym C.A.P.T.O.P.R.I.L. What does each letter signify? |
|
Definition
| Cough, Angioedema, Potassium excess, Taste changes, Orthostatic hypotension, Pregnancy contraindication, Rash, Indomethacin inhibition, Liver toxicity |
|
|
Term
| What percentage ejection fraction is required for a diagnosis of systolic dysfunction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are beta-blockers contraindicated in CHF pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should acute CHF episodes be treated according to the LMNOP method? |
|
Definition
| Lasix, Morphine, Nitroglycerin, Oxygen, Pulmonary ventilation |
|
|
Term
| Is digoxin useful in systolic dysfunctions, diastolic dysfunctions, or both? |
|
Definition
| systolic dysfunctions only |
|
|
Term
| Hypercholesterolemia is defined as what? |
|
Definition
| Having total cholesterol levels in excess of 200 mg/dL |
|
|
Term
| Which contraception method increases a female's risk for development of CAD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a pt has 0-1 risks for CAD development what should the target LDL be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a pt has two or more risk factors for CAD development what should the target LDL be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a pt is diagnosed with CAD or has risk equivolents what should the target LDL be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors have lowering effect on which two classes of cholesterol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What commonly prescribed medication for atrial fibrillation can potentiated HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gemfibrozil works by increasing lipoprotein lipase activity. Which two components of cholesterol are primarily affected by its use? |
|
Definition
triglycerides-lowered
HDL increased |
|
|
Term
| Ezetimibe reduces total cholesterol by what mechanism? |
|
Definition
| inhibits cholesterol absorption (primarily lowers LDL levels) |
|
|
Term
| Niacin has what effects on which two cholesterol components? |
|
Definition
decreases LDL
elevated HDL |
|
|
Term
| ST-segment depression is a sign of what on EKG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is a suspected MI ruled-out on a suspicious pt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What EKG finding is present when cardiac tissue is acutely infracted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What EKG finding may precede the manifestation of ST-segment elevation in acute MIs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What findings of the T waves may be evident during acute MIs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ST-segment elevations in which leads commonly reflect a lateral wall infarction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cardiac enzyme is the first to rise after a myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What BP criteria is required for the diagnosis of hypertension? |
|
Definition
Systolic 140 or great
diastolic 90 or greater |
|
|
Term
| What values of BP does stage II hypertension encompass? |
|
Definition
systolic 160 or greater
diastolic 100 or greater |
|
|
Term
| Which diuretic class causes a loss of calcium via urinary excretion? |
|
Definition
| loop diuretics (thiazides conserve calcium) |
|
|
Term
| Which imaging study is warranted in HTNsive emergencies? |
|
Definition
| Head CT to check for intracranial hemorrhages |
|
|
Term
| What is pulsus paradoxus? |
|
Definition
substantial decrease in palpable pulse with inspiration
can signify pericarditis, cardiac tamponade, and lung diseases |
|
|
Term
| If HTN is found to be due to renal artery stenosis what anti-HTN medication can be started immediately and is proven to slow disease progression? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ST-segment elevations seen in all leads in a stable pt are most likely resultant from what cardiac condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A midsystolic murmur heard best at the left second intercostal border, which radiates to the neck is the classic description of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rheumatic fever primarily affects which heart valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| More than 90% of aortic aneurysms originate below what vascular structure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of an aortic dissection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the classic age group for aortic dissections? |
|
Definition
| 40-60 (more common in men) |
|
|
Term
| Hypercoagulability due to malignancy is know as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hyperpigmentating skin manifestation is commonly associated with DM and insulin resistance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Erythrasma is cause by what genus of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Erythrasma presents with what finding under Wood's lamp? |
|
Definition
| fluoresce pink or red (coral red) |
|
|
Term
| Goodpasture's syndrome is what type of hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Nikolsky's sign and how can it be used to differentiated bullous pemphigoid from pemphigus? |
|
Definition
| Nikolsky's sign: sliding of a blunt object across the epidermis causes separation of epidermis from the basal layer, denuding skin. positive only in pemphigus |
|
|
Term
| How does bullous pemphigoid differ from pemphigus in regards to pain? |
|
Definition
| Bullous pemphigoid is pruritic. Pemphigus is painful |
|
|
Term
| Erythema multiforme is a targetoid skin lesion which is frequently associated with what virtually ubiquitous virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Erythema nodosum is inflammation of what tissue layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lichen planus is an inflammatory dermatosis which involves which two ectodermal tissues? |
|
Definition
| skin and mucous membranes |
|
|
Term
| How is lichen planus treated? |
|
Definition
mild-moderate cases: topical steroids & oral antihistamines
severe cases: cyclosporine, oral prednisone, oral retinoids, PUVA |
|
|
Term
| Psoriasis is typically located over which dermal surfaces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hand joint is classically affected by psoriasis? |
|
Definition
| distal interphalangeal joints |
|
|
Term
| Which epidermal layer is histologically absent in psoriasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are the plaques of psoriasis classically described? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Seborrheic dermatitis is believed to be due to what organism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the typical description of a neonate with seborrheic dermatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the distinguishing characteristics of Steven-Johnson syndrome vs. toxic epidermal necrolysis? |
|
Definition
SJS: exofliation of less than 10% BSA
TEN: exofliation of 30% or more of BSApi |
|
|
Term
| What is overlap Steven-Johnson syndrome-Toxic epidermal necrolysis? |
|
Definition
| condition termed for exofliation of total BSA between 10 and 30 percent |
|
|
Term
Which four psychiatric and anit-convulsive medications are common offenders of Steven-Johnson syndrome? (Hint: C.P.V.P.) |
|
Definition
| carbamazepine, phenytoin, valproic acid, phenobarbital |
|
|
Term
| Which four classes of antibacterial medications are common offenders of Steven-Johnson syndrome? |
|
Definition
| sulfa drugs, aminopenicllins, cephalosporins, quinolones |
|
|
Term
| Steven-Johnson syndrome usually presents in what timeframe after starting a new medication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of cellulitis and folliculitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the causative agent of pityriasis (tinea) versicolor? |
|
Definition
Malassezia furfur (rest research says more due to Malassezia globosa) |
|
|
Term
| What histologic finding in conjunction with a Tzank smear? |
|
Definition
| multinucleated giant cells |
|
|
Term
| What two bacteria are the causative pathogens behind impetigo? |
|
Definition
| staph aureus and streptococci |
|
|
Term
| What clinical description of the lesions is used to describe impetigo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the alternative name for measles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the manifestation and spread of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? |
|
Definition
| Rash appears on palms and soles of feet and then moves to trunk and face |
|
|
Term
| A "strawberry tonge", a sandpaper-like rash which desquamates after a few days is most likely what? |
|
Definition
| Scarlet Fever (late sequlae from untreated streptocoocal pharyngitis) |
|
|
Term
| What type of virus causes molluscum contagiosum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pityriasis rosea is associated with what virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of pattern of cutaneous rash is typical of pityriasis rosea? |
|
Definition
| herald rash followed by Christmas tree pattern expansion |
|
|
Term
| Which four strains of HPV are reponsible for most of cervical cancers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What population is most commonly affected by lichen sclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is classical of cafe-au-laite spots? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of skin cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cutaneous infection classically manifests with lion faces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is typical of weight change in undiagnosed type I diabetics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which insulins are the two most rapid? |
|
Definition
| Humalog (lispro) and NovoLog (aspart) |
|
|
Term
| What fasting blood glucose range characterizes impaired fasting glucose? |
|
Definition
| over 110 but less than 126 |
|
|
Term
| What are the common side effects of metformin? |
|
Definition
| wt loss, GI upset, and rarely lactic acidosis |
|
|
Term
| What are the four criteria for metabolic syndrome (aka Syndrome X)? |
|
Definition
| abdominal obesity, high BP, impaired glycemic control, dyslipidemia |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of primary thryoid tumor is most common? |
|
Definition
| papillary (Orphan Annie nuclei, Psommoma bodies) |
|
|
Term
| Which type of MEN has an increased risk for pancreatic cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Paget's disease (aka osteitis deformans) causes decreased bone strength how? |
|
Definition
| by increased bone turnover/resorption |
|
|
Term
| 80% of hyperparathyroidism is due to what? |
|
Definition
| a singular adenoma (sx: stone, bones, groans, and psychiatric overtones) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of Cushing's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| ACTH secretion from pituitary adenoma |
|
|
Term
| What type of IV fluid should be administered to a pt in adrenal crisis? |
|
Definition
| 0.9% saline (normal saline) |
|
|
Term
| What are the rules of 10 for pheochromocytomas? |
|
Definition
10% extra-renal mass
10% are bilateral
10% are malignant
10% occur in children
10% are familial |
|
|
Term
| Which types of multiple endocrine neoplasia are associated with increased risk for pheochromocytoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the five P signs/symptoms of pheochromocytoma? |
|
Definition
Pressure (BP)
pain(HA)
Perspiration
Palpitations
Pallor/diaphoresis |
|
|
Term
| Aldosterone is secreted from which part of the adrenal gland? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Conn's syndrome is otherwise known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
| 21-Hydroxylase deficiency (autosomal recessive) |
|
|
Term
| Attributable risk is determined by what factor? |
|
Definition
| exposure (determined from cohort studies) |
|
|
Term
| What BMI's are associated with normal weight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What BMI's define overweight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Class I obesity encompasses which BMI's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Class II obesity encompasses which BMI's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Morbidy obesity encompasses which BMI's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pts undergoing a screening colonoscopy which demonstrated large or multiple adenomas should have followup colonsocopy in what timeframe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Relatives with a diagnosis of colon cancer should have their first initial screening colonoscopy when? |
|
Definition
| at age 40 or 10 years before colorectal cancer diagnosis in relative |
|
|
Term
| Pts with familial adenomatous polyposis should have screening colonoscopies starting at what age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Influenza vaccination should virtually ALWAYS be witheld in pts with what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the pneumococcal vaccine commonly witheld from children? |
|
Definition
| it is ineffective (strain PPV23) |
|
|
Term
| Which strain of pneumococcous can be administered in children under two years of age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What "blood problem" gives rise to the pigmentation in pigmented gallstones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the classical presentation of pain in a pt with biliary colic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the likelihood of diagnosing a gallstone with X-ray? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are biliary colic due to cholelithiasis differentiated clinically from acute cholecystitis? |
|
Definition
| severity of symptoms and cholecystitis is associated with fever (Murphy's sign: deep palpation of the RUQ during inspiration causes pt to stop inhalation) |
|
|
Term
| In addition to ultrasounds what laboratory information should also be collected in cases of suspected cholecystitis? |
|
Definition
| CBC, amylase, lipase, LFT |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of acute cholecystitis cases resolve spontaneously? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two lab values are elevated in choledocholithiasis? |
|
Definition
| alakaline phosphatase and total bilirubin |
|
|
Term
| Charcot's triad is the classic presentation for what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three components of Charcot's triad? |
|
Definition
| RUQ pain, jaundice, fever/chills |
|
|
Term
| Renold's pentad consits of Charcot's triad plus what two other factors? |
|
Definition
| shock, altered mental status |
|
|
Term
| Diarrhea in pediatric pts is most commonly due to what pathogen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the time frames for acute and chronic diarrhea? |
|
Definition
Acute: less than 3 wks
Chronic: more than six weeks |
|
|
Term
| Traveler's diarrhea is due to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which causative agent of infectious diarrhea is associated with the ingestion of contaminated poultry or eggs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibacterial agents are commonly used to treat infectious diarrhea due to Salmonella? |
|
Definition
| TMP-SMX or oral quinolone |
|
|
Term
| This particular cause of infectious diarrhea is highly contagious person-to-person and is transmitted via the fecal-oral route. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Half of all patients who present with IBS have what other comorbid group of conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of small bowel obstructions? |
|
Definition
| abdominal adhension from previous surgery |
|
|
Term
| Describe the bowel sounds in a pt with a small bowel obstruction. |
|
Definition
| high-pitched tinkles and peristaltic rushes |
|
|
Term
| How can a small bowel obstruction be differentiated clinically based solely on the quality of the vommitous? |
|
Definition
bilious and nonfeculent: proximal
feculent: distal |
|
|
Term
| What radiographic finding seen within the small bowels is classic for small bowel obstructions? |
|
Definition
| stepladder patter and air-fluid levels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| loss of peristals w/o strutural obstruction |
|
|
Term
| What common electrolyte abnormality may frequently cause an ileus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Carcinoid syndrome results from the production of which two substances by carcinoid tumors (which have metastasized to liver)? |
|
Definition
| serotonin and substance P |
|
|
Term
| What laboratory test is performed to diagnose carcinoid tumors? |
|
Definition
| urinary 5-HIAA (a serotonin metabolite) |
|
|
Term
| Diverticular disease involves which histologic layers of the bowel? |
|
Definition
| mucosa and submucosa only |
|
|
Term
| Which part of the large bowel are diverticuli most common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which quadrant of the abdomen has pain in cases of diverticular disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Any elderly male with unexplained iron deficiency anemia should be evaluated for what type of cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| painfull swallowing (dysphagia: difficulty swallowing) |
|
|
Term
| Esophogeal webs and iron deficiency anemia constitute what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 95% of hiatal hernias are what type? |
|
Definition
Sliding, gastroesphoageal junction slips up itno thoracic cavity
5% are paraesophageal: another portion of stomach |
|
|
Term
| While 90% of chronic gastritis is due to NSAID use or H. pylori, 10% are due to what? |
|
Definition
| autoantibodies to parietal cells |
|
|
Term
| Which type of cancer is the second most common cause of cancer-related death WORLD WIDE? |
|
Definition
| gastric cancer (USA is lung cancer) |
|
|
Term
| What is the five-year survival rate of gastric cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease in both duodenal and gastric ulcers? |
|
Definition
| H. pylori (corticosteroids, NSAIDs, alcohol, & tobacco less common) |
|
|
Term
| What GI malignancy is evaluated with a gastrin serum test? |
|
Definition
| Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (pts must be off PPIs before test) |
|
|
Term
| Which genetic neoplastic condition is commonly associated with gastrinomas? (25-50% of cases) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What portion of gastrinomas are malignant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is upper or lower GI bleeding more likely to be associated with hypovolemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three borders of Hasselbach's triangle? |
|
Definition
| inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric artery, and rectus abdominis muscle |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common hernia in all pts? |
|
Definition
| indirect (due to patent processus vaginalis) |
|
|
Term
| Loss of haustra (lead-pipe appearance) is seen in which type of inflammatory bowel disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease different in regards to tissue invovlement? |
|
Definition
UC: mucosa and submucosa only
Crohn's disease: transmural invovlement |
|
|
Term
| Which form of inflammatory bowel disease is associated with both skipped lesions and cobblestoning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What LFT profile is indicative of alcoholic hepatitis? |
|
Definition
| AST:ALT of 2:1 or greater |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of hepatitis C pts will develop chronic hepatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is portal hypertension defined? |
|
Definition
| 5 mmHg greater than the pressure in the IVC |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| tremor of the hand/wrist when the wrist is held in dorsiflexion (may be seen in hepatic encephalopathy) |
|
|
Term
| What test is used run to determine the cause of ascites? |
|
Definition
| serum-ascites albumin gradient |
|
|
Term
| What are the three venous manifestations of hepatic portal hypertension? (gut, butt & ca-put) |
|
Definition
esophageal varices
hemorrhoids
ca-put medusae |
|
|
Term
| What value of serum-ascites albumin gradient suggests cause of ascites is due to protein leakage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the diagnostic criteria for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis? |
|
Definition
more than 250 PMNs/mL
or
more than 500 WBCs on PBS |
|
|
Term
| What other subdiaphragmatic organ needs close monitoring in pts with hepatic disease? |
|
Definition
| kidneys (hepatorenal syndrome) |
|
|
Term
| What embryonic hormone is secreted by hepatocellular carcinomas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What oral medication is used in pts with hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What oral medication is used in Wilson's disease? |
|
Definition
penicillamine (copper chelator)
increase zinc also facilitates fecal excretion of Cu |
|
|
Term
| 90% of chronic pancreatitis is due to what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 90% of pancreatic cancer is what type? |
|
Definition
| adenocarcinomas of the pancreatic head |
|
|
Term
| How is bleeing time affected in hemophilia A and B? |
|
Definition
| it is unaffected, PTT is affected |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common HEREDITARY bleeding disorder? |
|
Definition
| von Willebrand's disease (autosomal dominant) |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of von Willebrand Factor? |
|
Definition
| stabilized factor VIII and enhances platelet aggregation |
|
|
Term
| Which test is used to evaluate warfarin therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura? |
|
Definition
| An autoimmune disease with antibodies produced against platelets (IgG) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ITP plus autoimmune hemolytic anemia |
|
|
Term
| Splenomegaly in a pt suspected of ITP has what affect on diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| reduces likelihood that ITP is the cause of thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
| What measure of platelets is used to denote thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
| less than 150K per microliter |
|
|
Term
| What immunologic test is positive in ITP? |
|
Definition
| platelet-associated IgG test |
|
|
Term
| What PBS manifestations are evident in pts with ITP? |
|
Definition
| megathrombocytes w/o schistocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are pediatric pts with ITP usually treated? |
|
Definition
| observation only as 70% of cases spontaneously resolve in 4-6wks |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of inheritable hypercoagulopathy? |
|
Definition
| Factor V Leiden mutation/deficiency |
|
|
Term
| What blood cells are affected in myelogenous leukemia? |
|
Definition
| granulocytes, monocytres, erthryoctyes, platelets |
|
|
Term
| ALL is most common in what population? |
|
Definition
| children (more common in whites than blacks) |
|
|
Term
| Which leukemias are more common in pts aged 15-59? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which leukemia is more common in elderly pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What abnormal finding on PBS is seen in ALL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most commonly affected cellular lineage in ALL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which polysomal children are more likely to be afflicted with ALL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What PBS finding is pathognomonic for AML? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of CLL is due to B lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What common PBS finding is seen in CLL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the median age for CML? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which genetic mutation is found in 90% of cases of CML? |
|
Definition
Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22)
translocation of the bcr-able gene |
|
|
Term
| What is the chemotherapeutic agent of choice for CML? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What histologic finding is used to help distinguish Hodgkin lymphoma from nonHodgkin lymphona? |
|
Definition
Reed-Sternberg giant cells (found only in Hodgkin lymphoma) |
|
|
Term
| Which leukemia/lymphoma is more common in pts over 50, and more common in women and blacks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fever, night sweats, wt loss |
|
|
Term
| Which protein is frequently found in MM? |
|
Definition
Bence Jones proteinuria
kappa & lambda light chains |
|
|
Term
| What is the initial chemotherapeutic agent for MM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undertermined Significance (MGUS) diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| M protein in serum w/o evidence of systemic disease |
|
|
Term
| Which leukemia/lymphoma are MGUS pts at increased risk for developing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin is elevated in Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia? |
|
Definition
IgM
pts also w/ hyperviscosity and cold agglutinins |
|
|
Term
| What are the criteria for anemia in men and women? |
|
Definition
men: less than 13.5
women: less than 12.0 |
|
|
Term
| What are the four broad categories of microcytic anemia? |
|
Definition
Thalassemia
Iron deficiency
Chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia |
|
|
Term
| G6PD has what type of RBC morphology? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Burr cells (RBCs) are seen in what condition? |
|
Definition
| acute renal failure, uremia |
|
|
Term
| Target cells are seen in what type of pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common METABOLIC DISORDER OF RBCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What intracellular histologic finding is seen on PBS with G6PD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary intervention for acute hemolysis due to G6PD? |
|
Definition
| IV Fluids for renal protection and removal of oxidizing agent if known |
|
|
Term
| Aplastic crisis in sicke cell pts is often due to what viral agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HUS, TTP, and DIC all have what abnormal finding in common on PBS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia encompasses which three conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of "bodies" are seen in sickle cell pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is hydroxyuria used in the treatment of sickle cell disease? |
|
Definition
| increases production of fetal hemoglobin |
|
|
Term
| Which two vaccinations are especially important in sickle cell pts? |
|
Definition
| H. influenzae and pneumococcous |
|
|
Term
| In which two ethnic groups are alpha-thalasemias most common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Hemoglobin H disease? |
|
Definition
| alpha-thalasemia with 3 of 4 alleles affected |
|
|
Term
| What is Hemoglobin Barts disease? |
|
Definition
alpha-thalamsemia with all 4 alleles affected
causing hydrops fetalis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| anemia of infants (usu. presents at 6 mo) due to beta-thalasemia major (both alleles affected) |
|
|
Term
| Polycythemia vera pts will have what finding on abdominal exam? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which three blood/marrow conditions are polycythemia vera pts at an increased risk for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| nucleated RBC with iron granules |
|
|
Term
| ACEIs are contraindicated in pregnant pts! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Orphan Annie nuclei and psomma bodies are found in which type of thyroid cancer? |
|
Definition
| papillary (the most common type of thyroid cancer) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three components of HUS? |
|
Definition
hemolytic anemia acute renal failure (evident by uremia) low platelet count |
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|
