Term
| What is executive function? |
|
Definition
| The cognitive control of behavior |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Short term, limited capacity cognitive buffer used to store information and allow manipulation of that information to guide decision making and behavior. It maintains a representation of sensory information. |
|
|
Term
| What specific example of working memory did we see in class? |
|
Definition
The chimpanzees were super good at the memory game.
Also: performing a bilateral lesion of the prefrontal cortex in chimpanzees showed caused deficits in working memory and executive functioning skills.... so that's how we know where it is. |
|
|
Term
| What else is the prefrontal cortex involved in? |
|
Definition
| Anticipating rewards and punishment, experiencing empathy (cats have a small prefrontal cortex) and complex emotions. |
|
|
Term
| What parts of the brain input to the PFC? What type of signalling is it? |
|
Definition
Just about everything. Association cortices, thalamus, amygdala, and ventral striatum.
Uses noradrenergic, serotoninergic, cholinergic, and dopaminergic systems. |
|
|
Term
| How are drug addiction and ADHD involved with executive functioning? |
|
Definition
| Deficits in EF result in conditions in which automatic responses are inappropriately dominant. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three phases of an image-stimulus cue? Which one is the most active? Why? |
|
Definition
- Cue Phase (when image is flashed)
- Delay Phase
- Stimulus Phase (when stimulus is shown)
The delay phase is when our brain is most active because we are using our working memory to maintain a representation of the image in our brain. |
|
|
Term
| What two disorders are deficient in working memory? What NT can help stimulate it? |
|
Definition
Schizophrenia and ADHD.
Dopamine- but too much is bad. |
|
|
Term
| How does stress affect dopaminergic transmission? |
|
Definition
| Stress increases VTA DA transmission. Because of this, low level stress can enhance performance, but high levels can be bad. |
|
|
Term
| Why are psychostimulants used to treat ADHD? What are some examples of some? |
|
Definition
Because they increase DA signalling.
Methylphenidates (Ritalin) and amphetamines (Adderall) |
|
|
Term
| What's important about psychostimulant dosage? |
|
Definition
| Keeping a low dose so the reward/addiction circuit does not get triggered. |
|
|
Term
| How are alpha 2-adrenergic agonists involved in working memory? What are examples? |
|
Definition
They can enhance WM because NE plays a significant modulatory role in the PFC so more NE can help increase EF and WM.
Ex: clonidine and guanfacine |
|
|
Term
| What is bottom-up processing? |
|
Definition
| The actual stimuli you are receiving and nothing more. The intensity of them affects how much attention you give to it. |
|
|
Term
| What are salience filters? |
|
Definition
| They block out irrevelant stimuli. They are intrinsic and you have no cognitive control over them. |
|
|
Term
| What are neural representations? |
|
Definition
| What ever stimuli make it through the salience filters. They are upheld by your working memory. |
|
|
Term
| What is top-down processing? |
|
Definition
| When you use cognitive effort to conrol yoru attention towards certain stimuli. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main deficits in EF in ADHD? |
|
Definition
- The inability to suppress inappropriate automatic responses.
- The inability to suppress reponse to irrelevant stimuli.
|
|
|
Term
| What is the "black box" of EF and ADHD? |
|
Definition
| There are multiple loops that go between the cortex, basal ganglia, and thalamus. These circuits help suppress automatic responses, and are therefore dysfuncational in ADHD, we just aren't sure exactly how it all happens. |
|
|
Term
| What is declarative memory? Where are the located? |
|
Definition
Memories that involve the recall of facts or events; conscious memory; memory that can be verbalized.
Medial temporal lobe (involved the hippocampus) |
|
|
Term
| What is nondeclarative memory? What are the 5 types and their brain locations? |
|
Definition
Subconscious memory.
- Procedural (skills and habits): Striatum
- Priming: neocortex
- Simple Classical Conditioning Emotional Responses: amygdala
- Simple Classical Conditioning of Motor Responses: cerebellum
- Nonassociative Learning: relfex pathways
|
|
|
Term
| How does the hippocampus work with the cerebral cortex in memory consolidation? |
|
Definition
| The hippocampus is involved mainly with declarative and learning memory formation, but ultimately memories are imprinted on the CC during deep sleep, which is what allows long-term retention. |
|
|
Term
| What is the Schaffer Collateral Pathway? |
|
Definition
| It's involved in LTP in the hippocampus. The CA3 parametal cells go through the Schaffer Collateral fiber and synpase onto the CA1 parametal cells. |
|
|
Term
| How do beta blockers (lololol) affect memory? |
|
Definition
| They inhibit emotional enhancement of memory consolidation, making it harder to store traumatic memories (like in PTSD) |
|
|
Term
| What is a new PTSD treatment that is being worked on? |
|
Definition
| Using virtual reality to stimulate PTSD memories, and then following it with new/better memories coupled with memory enhancing drugs (D-cycloserine) to overwrite the memories. |
|
|
Term
| How do AChE inhibitors affect memory? |
|
Definition
| Drugs such as donepezil and tacrine would suppress LTP (AChE enhances LTP) |
|
|
Term
| How would Rolipram affect memory? |
|
Definition
| It would increase CREB activity, which would increase activity in the post cell, increasing LTP |
|
|
Term
| How do inverse agonists of the benzodiazepines at the GABAa receptors help Alzheimer's patients? |
|
Definition
| They would decrease inhibition of cells, allowing for more activation of cells and better memory and LTP |
|
|
Term
| What does vasopressin do? |
|
Definition
Increases anxiety in the amygdala.
V1a receptor antagonists may be anxiolytics |
|
|
Term
| What are drugs used for in autism? |
|
Definition
| Only symptoms can be treated, not the actual disorder. So drugs are used to help depression, anxiety, and emotional outbursts (SSRIs and antipsychotic drugs). |
|
|
Term
| What genetic mutations are associated with autism? |
|
Definition
- MeCP2: Rett Syndrome
- FMRP
- Neuroligins and neurexins
|
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 key regions of the brain for mood and emotion? Where do they connect to? |
|
Definition
- Amygdala
- Hippocampus
- Parahippocampal Gyrus
- Cingulate Gyrus
The hypothalamus, nucleus accumbens of the ventral striatum, orbital and medial prefrontal cortex |
|
|
Term
| Where does the amygdala receive signals from? |
|
Definition
| The cortex, hippocampus, and thalamus. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 regions the amygdala spans to? What does each do? |
|
Definition
- Prefrontal Cortex: working memory and response selection
- Hippocampus: contextual memory (have you experienced the stimulus before and what did you do?)
- Striatum: procedural memory (e.g., reflexes)
- Hypothalamus: activates sympathetic nervous system
- Pariaqueductal Gray: analgesia/opioids
- MA Nuclei: increased arousal, alertness, and vigilance
|
|
|
Term
| What does beta-carboline do? |
|
Definition
| An inverse agonist of GABAa receptors, it makes you more anxious. |
|
|
Term
| What is the subgenual cingulate cortex involved in? |
|
Definition
| Depression: lower levels of activity are correlated with lower levels of depression, and vice versa. |
|
|
Term
| What is deep brain stimulation for depression? |
|
Definition
| Implanting electrodes in the Cg25 (subgenulate cortex) and stimulating it with high frequency signals to decrease activity in the area. |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are used to dreat anxiety? Depression? |
|
Definition
Anxiety: benzodiazepines, beta blockers
Depression: SSRIs and trycyclics |
|
|
Term
| What is used for benzodiazepine overdose? |
|
Definition
Flumazenil, an antagonist of the benzo site.
Beta-carboline is an inverse agonist, so causes the opposite effect of benzos. |
|
|
Term
| What is picrotoxin used for? |
|
Definition
| It is an antagonist and blocks the GABAa channel, used as a convulsant. |
|
|
Term
| Whats the difference between BDZs and barbiturates? Which one does ethanol react with? |
|
Definition
BDZs are positive allosteric modulators, while barbiturates actually open the site.
Barbiturate site. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between diazepam and lorazepam? |
|
Definition
- Diazepam: long half-life, used for GAD
- Lorazepam: short half-life, used as hypnotic
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A high potency benzo used for panic disorder |
|
|
Term
| What are clonazepam and buspirone? Why are they unique? |
|
Definition
- Clonazepam: high potency benzo used for panic disorder
- Buspirone: 5HT1A partial agonist used for GAD
They are both such high potency that they act like barbiturates |
|
|
Term
| What two general classes of drugs are good anxiolytics? |
|
Definition
| CRF1 receptor antagonists and adenosine A1 receptor agonists (are presynaptic inhibitory receptors) |
|
|
Term
| What's unique about clomipramine and desipramine? |
|
Definition
Despite being tricyclics, they are highly selective.
Clomipramine is hightly selective for 5HT reuptake while Desipramine is highly selective for NE uptake. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary treatment for GAD/PTSD? Panic disorder? Social anxiety? |
|
Definition
- BENZODIAZEPINES; SSRIs for those who don't respond well to those
- Benzos
- Beta blockers
|
|
|
Term
| What pathway is involved in stress and depression? What receptors are targeted in it? |
|
Definition
The HPA (hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal) pathway.
Too much activation leads to depression.
The CRF1 receptors (with antagonists) to tamp down the negative feedback |
|
|
Term
| How did anti-depressant progress throughout history? |
|
Definition
- Reserpines which depleted NE, 5HT, and DA resulted in depression (cued scientists in)
- MAOIs were used to stop MA depletion
- SSRIs were used but resulted in relapse because of tryptophan depletion.
- NRIs were used by also lead to relapse because of a-methylparatyrosine
|
|
|
Term
| How can glucocorticoids be harmful? |
|
Definition
| Constant upregulation damages hippocampal neurons and blunts hippocampal neurogenisis |
|
|
Term
| What is BDNF necessary for? |
|
Definition
| Hippocampal neurogenesis: antidepessant suppress glucocorticoids and therefore increase BDNF levels |
|
|
Term
| What is the main risk factor in schizophrenia? How many people in the population have it? |
|
Definition
Genetics. So monozygotic twins are 50% at risk if the other has it.
0.5%-1% |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 "candidate" genes for schizo? |
|
Definition
- DISC1
- DTNBP1
- NRG1
- DAOA
- COMT
- RGS4
Candidate genes because none are direct causes |
|
|
Term
| What mutation is found in roughly 1% of schizo patients? |
|
Definition
The micro-deletion on chromosone 22, at 22q11.2
It boosts risk 30-fold |
|
|
Term
| What does the microdeletion of 22q11 cause? |
|
Definition
| Irregulator formation of dendritic spines nad dendrites (underdeveloped) |
|
|
Term
| What are some epigenetic mechanisms that can affect schizo? |
|
Definition
- Development
- Environmental chemicals
- Drugs pharmaceuticals
- Aging
- Diet
- DNA methylation/histome modification
This is why dizygotic twins are more likely than siblings to get both get schizo, because of same environment. |
|
|
Term
| What does working memory look like in schizo patients? |
|
Definition
They lack it/have major defecits.
The number set test: they lack the projection of what the command is and cannot do the test if there is a delay. |
|
|
Term
| How do schizos do on the stroop task? |
|
Definition
| Very very poorly, they kinda suck at it |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about the dorsal lateral cortex and other PFC areas in schizos? |
|
Definition
They have decreased gray matter.
Gray matter is the axons and dendrites of neurons, so they have less of them (related to the genetic mutation in 22q11) |
|
|
Term
| Why are antipsychotics good for EF and WM? |
|
Definition
| They increase DA signalling in the PFC, which is crucial for both of those functions. However, we still don't know why antipsychotics work as antagonists to D2 receptors |
|
|
Term
| Can L-dopa/psychotimulant be bad? |
|
Definition
| Yes, too much DA signalling actually causes schizo-like side effects such as hallucinations, delusions, and ideas of reference |
|
|
Term
| What symptoms do all drugs for schizo treat? |
|
Definition
| The positive symptoms, but none we have now treat negative symptoms |
|
|
Term
| How are PCP and ketamine involved in schizo? |
|
Definition
They are NMDA receptor antagonists: changes in glutaminergic signalling can lead to schizo like symptoms
They increase glutamate release in PFC |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A D2 antagonist used for schizo. It was originally developed as an antihistamine, but caused D2 antagonist side effects. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A drug originally created as an antihypertensive, but it caused motor side effects as well as depression by depleting 5HT and NE. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the requirement to be classified an antipychotic? Which are the most effective? What is unique about all of these? |
|
Definition
Any D2 receptor antagonists, alpha-1 receptor, 5HT receptor, or histamine receptor.
The D2 receptors are the only effective one.
They are all nonselective (except the D2 obviously) |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of D2 antagonists? What's the worst of them? |
|
Definition
Extrapyramidal Motor Effects: PD like side effects (rigidity, resting tremor, acute dystonia/sudden and spastic muscle contractions in face and neck, anxiety and restlessness, late onset involuntary choreiform movements).
Tardive Dyskinesia: the choreiform movements are irreversible and will never go away. |
|
|
Term
| What can help alleviate the D2 side effects? |
|
Definition
L-dopa
Co-administration of antimuscarnics (e.g., benztropine) |
|
|
Term
| What classical D2 drugs should you know? |
|
Definition
- 1st gen: chlorpromazine and haloperidol
|
|
|
Term
| Which four 2nd generation drugs should we know? |
|
Definition
- Clozapine (lowest extrapyramidal effects): the most efficacious, unique MOA, but not the most potent
- Aripiprazole: a D2 partial agonist
- Olanzipine: good pharmalogical profile and cholinergic antagonist activity: induces metabolic syndrome however and can precipitate diabeetus
- Risperidone
|
|
|
Term
| Why were NMDA partial agonists first used for schizo? |
|
Definition
| Because NMDA antagonists often induced schizo-like episodes. |
|
|
Term
| How can mGluR agonists treat schizo? |
|
Definition
| They block glutamate release in the PFC by acting presynaptically through inhibitory autoreceptors on glutaminergic neurons |
|
|
Term
| What are "chorea" type symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Spontaneous, uncontrolled and repetitive movements (part of HD) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The depletion of energy stores and ATP and loss of ionic homeostasis. The end result is the cells gets flooded with extracellular objects, triggering the inflammatory pathway and finally cell death. |
|
|
Term
| What is intrinsic vs. extrinsic apoptosis? |
|
Definition
- Intrinsic: driven by inner signals
- Extrinsic: driven by death receptors
|
|
|
Term
| What are caspases? What are they for? |
|
Definition
Cysteine-containing Aspartate-Specific Proteases.
They are the family of proteases that help carry out apoptosis. |
|
|
Term
| How does the CASP pathway work? |
|
Definition
| An apoptic stimulus triggers the initiator CASPs (2, 8, 9, 10, and 12), which cleave the effector CASPs (3, 6, 7), which then go on to cleave thousands of proteins within the cell, leading to cell death. |
|
|
Term
| What cell component is primarily involved in the intrinsic pathway? What CASP is involved? What is this pathway essential for? |
|
Definition
Mitochondria are involved in this pathway.
Caspase 9 is the initiator caspase for this.
This pathway is the one essential for normal CNS development. |
|
|
Term
| What are pro-survival proteins? Which one should we know? What are pro-death proteins? Which one should we know? |
|
Definition
Pro-survival proteins regulate the intrinsic pathway, making it harder to kill cells. Bcl-2.
Pro-death proteins help trigger and carry out cell death. Bax, Bim, Hrk. |
|
|
Term
| What is the specific order/method of the intrinsic pathway with a weak apoptotic stimulus? |
|
Definition
| Bax is intially activated and it goes directly to Bcl-2, which results in nothing. |
|
|
Term
| What is the specific order/method of the intrinsic pathway with a strong apoptotic stimulus? |
|
Definition
| Hrk first binds to Bcl-2, blocking it from binding Bax. Bax is then activated and goes and binds to Bim on the mitochrondrial membrane. This causes a conformational change on Bax, which creates pores in the membrane. Cytochrome C is release through the pores into the cytoplasm. Cytochrome C helps bring together APAF, which activates pro-casp9, which cleaves casp9. Casp9 helps pro-casp3 cleave casp3, which leads to cell death. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major differences between apoptosis and necrosis? |
|
Definition
- Apoptosis requires ATP, which necrosis is induced by ATP depletion.
- Apoptosis requires new protein synthesis
- Necrosis involves leakage of cellular contents into extracellular space.
- Necrosis induces an inflammatory response while apoptosis is the "silent death."
|
|
|
Term
| What is excitotoxicity often associated with? |
|
Definition
| Ischemic injury: it causes the cells to go into glycolytic dependence and ATP production |
|
|
Term
| What can too much calcium activate within a cell? |
|
Definition
- Calpin: breaks down lots of proteins
- Lipases: break down membrane lipids
- NO synthase
- Free radical production
- Endonucleases
|
|
|
Term
| What is the unfolded protein response? |
|
Definition
| It allows the cell to suspend new protein synthesis so it can catc up and get rid of misfolded proteins (which are toxic to the cell) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They are responsible for the degradation of 90% of the proteins within a cell. |
|
|
Term
| How are proteins signaled for degradation? What do deficits in this pathway lead to? |
|
Definition
They get ubiquinated. This means that ubiquin chains are added to the protein, which help it to get degraded by the proteasome.
They lead to misfolded protein build-up in the cell, which can cause the misfolded protein response. |
|
|
Term
| What are the protein aggregates we learned about for AD, PD, HD, ALS, C-JD, and frontotemporal dementia? |
|
Definition
- AD: amyloid plagues between the neurons and nurofibrillary tangles of Tau proteins within the cell
- PD: lewy bodies within the cell made up of a-synuclein
- HD: mutant Htt gene, which causes so many extra CAG segments that it becomes too long and builds up within the cell
- C-JD: Prion proteins that holes in surrounding neurons
- FTD: TDP-43
|
|
|
Term
| What gene was first found to be mutated in Alzheimer's? |
|
Definition
| Amyloid precursor protein (APP). |
|
|
Term
| How is APP cleaved? How can mutations affect this? |
|
Definition
- B-secretase: cleaves the extracellular section of the protein to help create Abeta.
- γ-secretase: Cleaves at the Abeta 40 or Abeta 42 site. Abeta 42 tends to be much more toxic than Abeta 40.
- α-secretase: cleaves right in the middle to prevent formation of Abeta
|
|
|
Term
What do the following mutations result in?
- Flernish mutation
- Swedish Mutation
- Presanillin Mutations
|
|
Definition
- Flernish: decreases the use of α-secretases, making the formation of Abeta more likely
- Swedish: increases the use of B-secretase, creating more Abeta proteins
- Presanillin: this favors β used over γ, making the formation of Abeta 42 much more likely.
|
|
|
Term
| What's significant about the APPsw/PS/Taw triple transgenic mice? |
|
Definition
| They mimic the human disease pathology, meaning that these are most likely all present in human forms. They develop senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. |
|
|
Term
| What are disease modifier genes? What is the most significant one for Alzheimer's disease? |
|
Definition
They modify the propensity or susceptibility to develop a disease.
ApoE4 |
|
|
Term
| What are the worst combinations of ApoE4 to have? What is the most common? |
|
Definition
4/4 is the worst, 3/4 is the second worst.
The most common is 3/3.
2/3 represents the least likely.
2/4 is just about the same as 3/3. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| NMDA partial agonist that is used to treat Alzheimer's, MOA unknown. |
|
|
Term
| What does tramiprosate do? |
|
Definition
| It inhibits Abeta aggregation. |
|
|
Term
| What other drugs can be used to decrease Abeta levels? |
|
Definition
- β-secreatse inhibitors are used to decrease Abeta, but are hard to get past the BBB.
- R-flurbiprofen: γ-secretase inhibitors promote Abeta 40 over Abeta 42, which helps in the short term but ends up making it worse in the long run
|
|
|
Term
| How are down syndrome and Alzheimer's associated? |
|
Definition
| APP is on chromosone 21, which Down Syndrome patients have two copies of, and they often develop early onset Alzheimer's. |
|
|
Term
| Which protein gets misfolded to form Lewy aggregates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is PARK2? How does it act in PD? |
|
Definition
It is a ubiquitin E3 ligase which targets proteins for degradation by adding U-chains to them.
In PD, PARK2 is inactive, so misfolded proteins build up in the cell. PARK2 specifically targets SNCA a lot, making Lewy bodies much more likely. |
|
|
Term
| What is UCHL1? What is it like in PD? |
|
Definition
| It removes U-chains from proteins. In PD, it is hyperactivated and removes too many U-chains, so proteins that need to be degraded don't get degraded. |
|
|
Term
| What is MPTP? How does it work? |
|
Definition
| The synthetic heroin example we talked about that lead to severe PD. The toxin gets taken up by glial cells and converted to a metabolite, then to MTP+. MTP+ fools DA transporters into thinking it's DA so it gets taken up. It then continues to deplete DA stores in the cell |
|
|
Term
| What is 6-hydroxydopamine? |
|
Definition
| Something that kills dopamine |
|
|
Term
| What are Rotenon and Paraquat? |
|
Definition
| Pesticides that can inhibit mitochondrial components of the electron transport chain |
|
|
Term
| How does the movement initation circuit work? How do the dopaminergic neurons from the SN affect it? |
|
Definition
Striatum --> thalamus --> cortex
This is stupid
The DA neurons from the SN inhibit the inhibitory neurons, which inhibit the other inhibitory neurons, which inhibit the glutaminergic neurons, which activate the inhibitory neurons, which lead to the glutaminergic neurons into the cortex. Long story short, by the DA neurons inhibiting the inhibiting neurons, it stops the inhibition of movement (allows initiation of movement). |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the DA neurons in PD patients? |
|
Definition
| The DA projections die, so the inhibitory input to the inhibitory neurons stops, allowing more inhibitory output, or less movement. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the DA neurons in HD? |
|
Definition
| There is an increase of DA signaling, inhibiting the inhibitory neurons, allowing the increase of movement. |
|
|
Term
| Review the relationship between L-dopa and carbidoba? |
|
Definition
| Carbidopa inhibits AAD, ensuring that L-dopa is not made into dopamine in the blood stream, allowing it to get through the BBB. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Selegiline (Deprenyl) and Rasagiline |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It protects the mitochondria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It helps with ATP depletion (a supplement to help boost function) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Taking out the subthalamic nucleus, removing the inhibitory pathway and stimuling movement |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Using viral systems to express genes or putting in a certain type of stem cell that will over express genes |
|
|
Term
| What gene is affected in HD? What specifically is mutated? |
|
Definition
The huntingtin gene. There is a CAG repeat on it, resulting in a PolyQ or polyglutamine repeat: there are too many glutamines on the c-terminus. The more glutamine, the worse the disease.
These repeats cause the huntingtin to misfold and aggregrate. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It's genetic. Having one copy of the gene mutation can give you it.
There are no cures and not even any therapies. |
|
|
Term
| What does ALS stand for? What does it attack? |
|
Definition
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
It attacks neurons in the brain and spinal cord causing muscle weakness and atrophy.
Eventually leads to death due to respiratory failure. |
|
|
Term
| What is limb onset versus bulbar onset? |
|
Definition
There are motor neurons in the cortex, brain stem, and lower motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle.
Limb onset is when lower motor neurons begin to die and it moves up. Ballbar onset is when higher motor neurons being to die and move down. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of ALS? |
|
Definition
Familial: 5-10% of all cases; inherited or genetic
Sporadic: no apparent genetic component, it can affect anyone, anywhere, and has no known cause; 90-95% of fall cases. |
|
|
Term
| What mutation accounts for about 20% of all familial cases? |
|
Definition
Mutations in the SOD1 protein.
In mice, this causes them to develop hind limb paralysis. |
|
|
Term
| What are the possible causes of sporadic ALS? |
|
Definition
Everything. We have no clue.
- Insecticide, pesticides, fertilizers
- Heavy metals (e.g., copper, mercury, lead)
- Viruses
- Bacterial pathogens and neurotoxins
- Aluminum
- Many others...
|
|
|
Term
| What is the pathophysiology of ALS? |
|
Definition
| The nerve fibers do not extend nearly as far into the skeletal muscles, and the skeletal muscles are much smaller. |
|
|
Term
| What is astrogliosis and microglial inflammation? |
|
Definition
| Glial cells become inflammatory and reactive. They then go from good/beneficial neurons to motor neurons to bad neighbors, and can end up harming them. |
|
|
Term
| How is ALS multi-factorial disease? |
|
Definition
Basically there are six thousand million different things that can cause ALS and we have no clue which one of them does it.
- Excitotoxicity
- ER Stress
- Proteasome inhibition
- Mitochondrial Dysfunction
- Toxic extracellular mutated SOD1
- O2 production
- Altered axonal transport
- Synaptic vesical defects
- Loss of tight junction proteins
|
|
|
Term
| What is the only FDA approved drug for ALS? |
|
Definition
Riluzole. It is anti-glutamatergic.
It is minimally effective, it prolongs life span by about 3 months only. |
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Term
| What did we learn about ALS-PD dementia? |
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Definition
| Don't take a bad and put it in a bowl of hot water and then eat it. That's bad. And gross. Cyanotoxins and shit. Nasty. |
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Term
| What is a focal/partial seizure? |
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Definition
| It only affects a subset of neurons within the brain |
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Term
| What is a generalized seizure? |
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Definition
| It affects a wider set of neurons in both hemispheres. |
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Term
| What do focal seizures affect/look like? |
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Definition
| Somatosensory, aphasic/phonatory, adversive/contralateral, focal motor (twitching), grand mal, complex partial seizures (impaired consciousness). |
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Term
| What do generalized seizures affect/look like? |
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Definition
| Grand mal (tonic clonic) and absence seizures (brief lapse of consciousness) |
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Term
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Definition
| Come from result of trama, neurodevelopmental changes, defecits, or abnormalities. |
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Term
| How does the normal thalamocortical curcuityr work? |
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Definition
| Nuclear reticular thalamic neurons that are GABAergic receive input from cortical neurons and inhibit one another and other thalamocortical neurons. |
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Term
| How is the thalamocortical curcuit affect with absence seizures? |
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Definition
| When they occur, the cortical neurons undergo rhytmic burst firing, or continual firing in burst succession. The thalamocortical neurons end up receiving a lot of glutaminergic signals and stop inhibiting one another, causing a cycle of activity. |
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Term
| What are T-tupe Ca2+ channels? |
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Definition
| They are low threshold channels that allow rapid depolarization. They can drive the seizure activity by allowing too much firing. |
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Term
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Definition
| A T-type channel antagonist |
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Term
| What do most genes linked with seizures make up? |
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Definition
| Channels, receptors, signaling molecules, and transcription factors. |
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Term
| What do most genes that have been linked with epilepsy make up? |
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Definition
| Potassium, nicotinic, and sodium channels. |
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Term
| What do phenytoin and carbamazepine do? How do they work? |
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Definition
They inactivate sodium channels.
They cannot bind until the channel has already been activated. Once the channel goes into the inactive state again, these drugs help keep it in that state longer. |
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Term
| What does valproic acid do? |
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Definition
It actually blocks sodium channels.
It also increases the amount of free GABA |
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Term
| What do phenobarbital and BZDs do? |
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Definition
They are GABAa enhancers.
They are no longer used due to too many side effects |
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Term
| What does levetriacetam do? |
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Definition
| It is a cyclic derviative of GABA. Its MOA is unknown, but it mimics some effects of GABA. |
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Term
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Definition
| It blocks GABA transaminase, preserving the amount of GABA. |
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Term
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Definition
| It is a GABA transporter inhibitor, causing it to stay in the cleft longer. |
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Term
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Definition
| It causes nonvesicular release of GABA |
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Term
| What drugs are used for partial seizures? |
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Definition
| Phenytoin, carbamazepine, gabapentine |
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Term
| What drugs are used for generalized seizures? |
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Definition
| Ethosuximide (absence) and valproic acid |
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Term
| What's the difference between an occlusive, an embolic infarction, an arterial vasospasm, and hemorrhagic stroke? |
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Definition
- Occlusive: a blockage of flow to the brain
- Embolic Infarctions: clots from the heart go to the brain and block flow
- Vasospasm: a weakened artery spasms and falls in on itself, stopping blood flow ("mini strokes")
- Hemmoragic: bursting and bleeding into the brain
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Term
| How much oxygen does the brain use? |
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Definition
| It uses 20% of oxygen and 15% of cardiac output, despite being only 2% of the body mass. |
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Term
| What does arachidonic acid do? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does thromboxane a2 do? |
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Definition
| Promotes aggregation in platelets |
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Term
| How does aspirin affect the previous two? |
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Definition
| It inhibis cyclooxgenase, in turn inhibiting arachidonic acid, resulting in less thromboxane A2. |
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Term
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Definition
| A sticky, gluey substance that helps plaques stick together. |
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Term
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Definition
| It can bind to clotting factors at a lot of different stages and prevent clotting. |
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Term
| What is plasmin? What is tPA streptokinase? |
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Definition
An enzyme that is created from plasminogen.
It cleaves fibrin to help dissolve clots.
tPA promotes plasmin. |
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Term
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Definition
| It blocks elements in the clotting cascade to thin your blood (activates AT3) |
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Term
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Definition
"Super Duty Blood Thinner"
A vitamin K antagonist (many clots use vitamin K). It's very strong, so usually not given until the patient has already had one stroke. |
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Term
| What special about magnesium? |
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Definition
| Nothing, it was a waste of time and money. |
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Term
What is nimodpine, tirilazad, and trofermin?
What's similar about them? |
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Definition
- Nimodipine: blocks voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
- Tirilazad: helps to protect lipids
- Trofermin: a fibrablast growth factor that can help repair neurons, connections, and growth.
None of them work. |
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Term
| Why is NOS bad during stroke? |
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Definition
| It interacts with the free radicals created to produce peroxynitric acid (bad). |
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Term
| What type of NOS is good to stimulate during stroke? |
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Definition
| eNOS (endothelial) because it reduces tissue damage by flowing into the muscle and causing it to slightly dilate, increasing neural activity. |
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Term
| What is the neurogenic hypothesis? |
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Definition
| A migraine originates from a defect in cortical circuitry that results in corticla spreading depression. A wave of GABA/inhibition activates the trigeminovascular system, which causes vascular changes and BBB leakiness. This causes release of substance P and neurokinin, leading to inflammation and pain. |
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Term
| How does cortical spreading depression affect vasodilation? |
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Definition
| It increases it, which is the underlying cause of pain within the brain. |
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Term
| Where do the trigeminoganglia go? |
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Definition
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Term
| What drug is used to block vasodilatory effects? |
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Definition
CGRP antagonists.
CGRP is the principal vasodilatory sustance released from trigeminal ganglia in reponse to cortical spreading depression. |
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Term
| How doe ACE inhibitors affect migraines? |
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Definition
| They block enkephalinase, which cleaves and degrade enkephalins, which are antinociceptive. |
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Term
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Definition
| A natural compound traditionally used to treak headaches. It is a non-seletive 5HT agonist. |
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