| Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | It investigates the effects of the biological system on drugs (absorption, distribution, elimination...) |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | It describes the fundamentalaction of a drug on a physiological, biochemical or molecular level |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Examines the effects of genetic factors to variations in the drug response |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Studies the undesirable effects of chemicals on living systems (includes poisons, antidotes and unwanted side effects of drugs) |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Is the art of preparing, compunding and dispensing chemicals for medicinal use |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | 5 Excitatory CNS Neurotransmitters |  | Definition 
 
        | Non epinephrine   Dopamine   Acetylcholine   Glutamate   Aspartate |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | 2 Inhibitory CNS Neurotransmitters |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | How many phases of studies are there for drugs? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Used to study the disposition, metabolism and main pathways of elimination of the new drug in humans |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Pharmacology of the new drug is determined in the patients with the intended clinical condition   Principal aim is to define relationship beween dose and pharmacological and/or therapeutic response in humans |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Main clinical trial   Drug is compared to placebo, or if this would be unethical (effective treatment for the disease in question already exists), an established drug in use for this disease |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Postmarketing serveillance   Ongoing monitoring of drug safety under actual conditions of use in large numbers of patients (pharmacovigilance) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the 4 cardinal characterisics of parkinson's disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | A movement disorder that has the following four cardinal characteristics   restin tremours muscle rigidity bradykinesia abnormal gait and posture |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the pathophysiology of parkinsons? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dopamine deficiency due to degradation in substantia nigra |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What drugs are used to treat parkinsons? (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | Levodopa Carbidopa Amantadine Selegiline |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of carbidopa? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decrease peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the use of bromocriptine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Give to parkinson patient with skin lesions |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | When is amantadine a good choice for parkinson's patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | Anti-viral drug for parkinson's with short-term symptoms. |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Define as an unpleasant emotional state consist of apprehension, tension and feelings of danger with or without a real or logic cause |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What does a sedative drug do? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decrease activity, moderates excitement and calms the recipient |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | It produces drowsiness and facilitates the onset of maintenance of a state of sleep that resembles natural sleep, and from which the patient can be easily arounsed |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is an anxiolytic drug? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the two major categories of sedative-hypnotic drugs?   What is the pathophysiology of both? |  | Definition 
 
        | Barbiturates Benzodiazepines   Both enhance the ability of NT, GABA to activate a type of receptors known as GABA-A receptors |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the full form of GABA? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | Benzodiazepines are useful in chronic therapy of epilepsy.   True or False? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the drug of choice for panic disorders? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the drug of choice of status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the drug of choice of insomnia? |  | Definition 
 
        | All BZ can be sedating, but lorazepam and temazepam are most common |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the drug of choice for alcohol withdrawal? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What drug reverses the effect of benzodiazepines?   How is it taken and what is its pathophysiology?   What are its side effects? (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | Flumazenil   Taken by IV route   It is a GABA receptor antagonist   Nausea, vomiting, agitation and dizziness   |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Sleep disorder (long acting drug)   List few points about it. |  | Definition 
 
        | Flurazepam   Duration: Increased Rebound insomnia: less Half life: 85 hours, long   SE: daytime sedation |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Sleep disorder (intermediate acting drug)   What does it do? |  | Definition 
 
        | Temazepam   Wakening frequency decreased |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Sleep disorder (short acting drug)   List some points. |  | Definition 
 
        | Triazolam   Sleep induction is good Rebound insomnia is high |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What does zolpidem do?   What kind of drug is it?   What is its half life?   What are its side effects? (3)   Other points about it. |  | Definition 
 
        | It acts on BZ receptors   It is a hypnotic drug.   Half life: 3 hours, short   SE: Nightmares, GI upset, daytime drowsiness   Onset of action is fast.   No anti convulsant, no muscle relaxation |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are some psychomotor stimulants? (7) |  | Definition 
 
        | Amphetamine Caffeine Cocaine LSD Nicotine Methylphenidate Methylxanthine |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What do psychomotor stimulants do? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cause excitement/ euphoria   Increase motor activity   Important as drugs of abuse |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of methylxanthine?   What does it do?   |  | Definition 
 
        | Increase cAMP (translocation of extracellular calcium)   Causing decreased fatigue and increased mental alertness (relaxation) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the use of theophylline? |  | Definition 
 
        | Common tx of bronchial asthma (increase monitoring) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of cocaine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increase CNS/ peripheral action of catecholamines   Blocks reuptake   Intense euphoria (dopaminergic effect) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of methlphenidate?   What is its use? |  | Definition 
 
        | Mechanism: same are amphetamine   Use: narcolepsy/ADD (good in addictive environment) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of LSD? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hallucinogen/ increase BP, temperature |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Intense feeling of sadness/hopelessness/no pleasure etc. |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Opposite of depression, enthusiasm/ rapid thought and speech/ up and down mood cycle |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is a bipolar affective disorder? |  | Definition 
 
        | Patient that cycles between depression and mania |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of TCA?   What does TCA's interaction with Mao inhibitors do? |  | Definition 
 
        | block NT reuptake   Hypertensive crisis and tachycardia |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the use of clomipramine? |  | Definition 
 
        | OCD Panic disorders Agoraphobia |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are MAO-Is used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | treat depression if TCA/ electroconvulsive therapy fail |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are 4 examples of MAO-Is? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tranylcypromine Phenelzine Clorgyline Isocarboxazid |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What does TRANYLCYPROMINE treat? |  | Definition 
 
        | depression parkinsons narcolepsy phobia anxiety |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE of clorgyline? |  | Definition 
 
        | Food; red wine/cheese --> hypertensive crisis |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is isocarboxazid used for? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the use of SSRI?   Give an example. |  | Definition 
 
        | Use: any form of depression   Ex: Fluoxetine |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Mania depression thyroid function |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the effective lithium overdose treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hemodialysis (preferred)   Peritoneal dialysis + IV fluids |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Where are opioid analgesics obtained from? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the uses for opioid analgesics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Relieve pain   Anti-diarrheal (because decreases GI motility)   Anti-tussive (because decreases coughing) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the four types of analgesics?   What do each do? |  | Definition 
 
        | Mu --> high abuse receptor; supra-spinal   Ka --> spinal analgesia; pupil constriction   De --> Euphoria, sedation, pupil constriction   Si --> Opposite from above, dysphoris, hallucinations, CVS stimulation, pupil dilation |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | Morphine   Mechanism? Use? SE? |  | Definition 
 
        | ME: Main Mu agonist   Use: Analgesia; pain relief without loss of consiousness   SE: Common COD in acute opioid overdose |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Rapid action   short duration on Mu   100x more powerful |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | No therapeutic use   2-3x more potent than morphine |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Antitussive   New cough meds dont have it due to addictive SE |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | reverse effects of opioids (coma/resp depression)   IV route |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Same as naloxone but longer duration of action   Oral route |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Anesthesia   4 stages of Anesthesia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Induction   Maintenance   Recovery   Depth   |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the anesthetic used for stage 1? |  | Definition 
 
        | Thiopental, unless CI: ultra short acting barbital |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are some drugs used in concomitantly with preanesthetic medication?   Give examples where aplicable.  |  | Definition 
 
        | Sedative hyponotics   Antianxiety   Opioids (morphine, fentanyl, merperidine)   Antiemetics (ondansteron)   H2-Antagonists   Gastrokinetic agents   Anticholinergics (atropine)   Inhalation agents (halothane, enflurane-older drugs included chloroform/ether) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of neuroleptic analgesia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decrease motor activity/anxiety; no loss of consciousness aspatient responds to commands (indifferent to surrounding) |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | N. compound (droperidol) + opioid analgesic (fentanyl) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | How can neurolepic analgesia be converted to N. anesthesia? |  | Definition 
 
        | By adding 65% nitrous oxide |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 local anesthetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Procaine   Cocaine   Tetracaine |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Anesthetic   Mech? Use? What is the order of nerve block? SE? |  | Definition 
 
        | Block NA-channel by binding to specific receptor on INNER portion of channel   Use: In infected patients more of anestheis required (cannot penetrate membrane effectively otherwise); short minor procedure   Loss of pain --> temp/touch/pressure   Severe CVS toxicity (which requires Bupivacaine treatment) and HT/Arrythmia (requires cocaine treatment) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | IgG   List 5 distinct points about IgG |  | Definition 
 
        | Most versatile   Most abundant   Only class of Ig that crosses the placenta   Fixes complement   Binding to cells like macrophages, monocytes, PMNs and some lymphocytes (Fc receptors) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | IgA   What does it exist as?   What lining does IgA attach to?   How is it transported in the body?   List some other points about IgA (5 points) |  | Definition 
 
        | Exists as a dimer   Lining of digestive, respiratory and gastrointestinal tract   Transported through epithelial cells   - 2nd more common serum Ig - Major class of Ig in secretion, found in breast milk - Local (mucosal) immunity - Attaches to microbes before they invade the tissues - Activates complement |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | IgM   List 6 points for IgM |  | Definition 
 
        | Third most common   First Ig to be made by the fetus   First Ig to be made by a virgin B cell   Good complement fixing Ig   Good agglutinating Ig   Beinds to some cells via Fc receptors |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | IgD   Where is it primarily found? What does it function as? What does it help in? What is it active in? |  | Definition 
 
        | Found on B cell surfaces   Functions as a receptor for antigen   It may help in immune responses   It may be active in allergic responses |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | IgE   Where is it primarily found in? List 3 points about IgE. |  | Definition 
 
        | Found in tissues and bodily fluids   - Least common serum Ig - Allergic reactions - Parasitic helminth diseases |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the safest drug of all the antileptic drugs? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | Name the 3 benzodiazepines. |  | Definition 
 
        | Diazepam   Clonazepam   Clorazepate |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | How is diazepam taken?   What is it used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Slow IV   Status epilepticus |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of barbiturates? |  | Definition 
 
        | May be due to GABA activation |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the uses of barbiturates (3)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Febrile convulsions   Simple epilepsy   Grandmal epilepsy |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the two anti epileptic drugs?   What are they both used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Phenytoin: Drug of choice for initial therapy in adults   Carbamazepine: Drug of choice in trigeminal neuralgia |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What happens when anti epilectic drugs are given during pregnancy? |  | Definition 
 
        | Teratogenic effects: FETAL HYDANTOIN SYNDROME |  | 
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        | Term 
 | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | Primary means of terminating action of acetylcholine is.... |  | Definition 
 
        | Break down of acetylcholing into acetate and choline by acetylcholing esterase (AchE) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Where is AchE principally found (2)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Neurons and neuromuscular junctions |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Where are cholinergic receptors are present (4)? |  | Definition 
 
        | PNS   Brain   Ganglia of SNS   Skeletal muscle |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the two main types of cholinergic receptors? |  | Definition 
 
        | Muscarinic (principally ANS)   Nicotinic (principally skeletal muscle) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the four adrenergic receptors? |  | Definition 
 
        | Beta 1   Beta 2   Alpha 1   Alpha 2 |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What do alpha 1 adrenergic receptors do (8)? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Arterial and arteriolar constriction (cutaneous, visceral, skeletal and pulmonary) - venous constriction - uterine contraction - pupillary dilation (mydriasis) - contraction of radial smooth muscle of iris - contraction of ureter - contraction of spleen - contraction of pilomotor muscles |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What do alpha 2 adrenergic receptors do (3)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inhibition of NE release   Inhibition of ganglionic transmission   Vasoconstriction (quantitatively less important that alpha 1) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Where are beta 1 adrenergic receptors located (4)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Myocardium   SA node   Ventricular conduction system   Adipose tissue |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What do beta 1 adrenergic receptors do (3)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cardiac stimulation (chronotropic, inotropic, dromotropic)   Stimulation of lipolysis   Stimulation of renin secretion |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Where are beta 2 adrenergic receptors located (4)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Vascular smooth muscle of the skin   Smooth mucles of muscles   Smooth mucles of mesentery   Smooth muscles of bronchial tree |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What do beta 2 adrenergic receptors do (8)? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Arteriolar dilation (skeletal muscle, coronary visceral beds) - Bronchodilation - Intestinal relaxation - Uterine relaxation - Bladder body relaxation - Decrease of insulin release - Skeletal muscle tremor - Stimulation of glycogenolysis |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Chief therapeutic uses of   Alpa 1 Alpha 2 Beta 1 Beta 2 |  | Definition 
 
        | Alpha 1 Vascular smooth muscle contraction   Alpha 2 Inhibition of transmitter release   Beta 1 Cardiac stimulation   Beta 2 Vascular smooth muscle relaxation Bronchiolar smooth muscle relaxation |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Acetylcholine and carbachol are used for.... |  | Definition 
 
        | Intraocular use as a miotic in a surgery |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is carbachol used for? |  | Definition 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is pilocarpine used for?   How does it work? |  | Definition 
 
        | Used in management of glaucoma and has become the standard initial drugs for treating the closed-angle form glaucoma, effective even in open angle type   Works by opening the trabecular mesh work around schlemm canal |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Administration of what 2 drugs is used to break iris-lens adhesion? |  | Definition 
 
        | Atropine (mydriatic)   Pilocarpine (miotic) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What drug reactivates acetylcholine esterase? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pralidoxime (PAM) (Pyridine - 2 aldoxime chloride) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the uses of atropine (4)? |  | Definition 
 
        | In opthalmology - mydriactic/ cycloplegic   Spastic disorders of GI and lower UT   To treat organophosphate poisoning   To suppress respiratory secretions prior to surgery |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is homatropine used for?   Is it longer or shorter action that atropine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Drug of choice when doing investigation of the eye, since it dilates the pupil for a short time only   Shorter |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What drug is used for the treatment of peptic ulcers? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pirenzepine   - Selective M1 antagonist   - Not as good as H2 antagonists (e.g. cimetidine) or proton pump inhibitors (e.g. omeprazole) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of tubocurarine (2)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Induces histamine release   Lowers BP |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of pancuronium (1)? |  | Definition 
 | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the side effects of succinylcholine (3)? |  | Definition 
 
        | malignant hyperthermia   hyperkalemia   increased intraocular pressure |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What are the 4 main uses of epinephrine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acute asthma   anaphylactic shock   open angle glaucoma   increase the duration of local anesthesia |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the use of naphazoline? |  | Definition 
 | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the use of oxymetazoline? |  | Definition 
 
        | Reduce congestion   Reduce swelling of nasal mucosa |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | What is the use of xylometazoline? |  | Definition 
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        |  |