Term
|
Definition
| Condensation of the chromatin, one type of irreversable cell injury. |
|
|
Term
| The 3 types of irreversable cell injury? |
|
Definition
Pyknosis
Karyorrhexis
Karyolysis |
|
|
Term
| What does Karyorrhexis mean? |
|
Definition
| Fragmentation of the nucleus into small particles. One of the 3 types of irreversable cell injury. |
|
|
Term
| What does Karyolysis mean? |
|
Definition
| Dissolution of the nucleus and lysis of chromatin by enzymes. One of the 3 types of irreversable cell injury. |
|
|
Term
| What does Anthracosis mean? |
|
Definition
| Accumulation of coal particles in the cell. |
|
|
Term
| What is the accumulation of the blood derived brown pigment hemosiderin, an iron-storage protein normally found in the spleen called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cancer. Undifferentiated and uncontrolled cell growth. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pre-cancer. Dissordered growth of tissues resulting from chronic irritation of infection. Best example is the detection of cervical dysplasia based on PAP smears. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An adaptive change of one cell type for another to suit the environment. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Increase in the size of cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Increase in the # of cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Decrease in size of a tissue of organ? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
population of cells arising from a single cell or endospore, or from a group of attached cells. They are all clones of one cell.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Contains only one species or strain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a tissue culture? |
|
Definition
| Must be grown on mammalian tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What is an obligate aerobe? |
|
Definition
| Only aerobic, oxygen required. Catalase and SOD allow it to neutralize toxic forms of oxygen. |
|
|
Term
| What is a facultative anaerobe? |
|
Definition
| Both aerobic and anaerobic growth, but greater growth with oxygen. Uses catalase and SOD. |
|
|
Term
| What is an obligate anaerobe? |
|
Definition
| only anaerobic. No catalase or SOD. Usually found in colon. |
|
|
Term
| What is an aerotolerant anaerobe? |
|
Definition
| Growth occurs evenly, oxygen has no effect. Contains SOD but not catalase. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Growth occurs only where a low concentration of oxygen has diffused into medium. Will grow in the middle of the medium in a test tube. Normally found in the stomach. |
|
|
Term
| What reaction does superoxide dismutase (SOD) catalyze? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What reaction does catalase catalyze? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a complex growth media? |
|
Definition
| Supports the growth of a wide variety of bacteria. e.g. nutrient agar. |
|
|
Term
| What is an enriched growth media? |
|
Definition
has additions of sterols, blood, serum, or egg yolk.
E.g. Sheep blood agar. |
|
|
Term
| What is a selective growth media? |
|
Definition
inhibits growth of some organisms but allows others to grow.
E.g. mannitol salt agar (MSA) inhibits most organisms other than staphylococci. |
|
|
Term
| What is a differential growth media? |
|
Definition
| ingredients that allow groups of microorganisms to be visually distinguised based on appearance of colony or surrounding media. |
|
|
Term
| What is a mannitol salt agar used for? |
|
Definition
| Mannitol and pH indicator, inhibits most pathogens except staphylococcus. |
|
|
Term
| What is a MacConkey agar used for? |
|
Definition
| Only lets gram (-) bacteria grow on it. Also differentiates based on the ability to ferment lactose. If they can ferment lactose it will be a pink color if not, it will stay yellow. |
|
|
Term
| What is a fastidious bacteria? |
|
Definition
| One that is fussy and requires many things to grow. |
|
|
Term
| What is a intracellular bacteria? |
|
Definition
| One that will not grow on a petrie dish. |
|
|
Term
| What is a generation time for bacterial growth? |
|
Definition
| How long it takes to double the population size. |
|
|
Term
| What are the phases of bacterial growth? |
|
Definition
1. Lag
2. Log (exponential)
3. Stationary
4. Death |
|
|
Term
| What is happening to the bacteria during the lag phase? |
|
Definition
| Cells are synthesizing new macromolecules. |
|
|
Term
| What is happening to the bacteria during the log phase? |
|
Definition
| Cells are dividing and doubling at regular intervals. |
|
|
Term
| What is happening to the bacteria during the stationary phase? |
|
Definition
Total # of cells constant.
Endospore formation
secondary metabolite synthesis (toxins and antibiotics)
nutrient limitations. |
|
|
Term
| What phase of the bacterial growth curve can you harvest useful products? |
|
Definition
| stationary phase during secondary metabolism. |
|
|
Term
| What phase of the bacterial growth curve is the bacteria least sensitive to antibiotics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What phase of the bacterial growth curve is sporulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many ATP do bacteria get from cellular respiration? |
|
Definition
| 38. Compared to only 36 in humans. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
any metabolic process that releases energy from a sugar or other organic molecule, does not require O2 (but can occur in the presence O2) or an electron transport system, and uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor.
Often produces acid or gas.
|
|
|
Term
| What is the planktonic phenotype in bacteria? |
|
Definition
| free floating, may be mobile. |
|
|
Term
| What is the biofilm phenotype in bacteria? |
|
Definition
| mixed population of cells attached in a slime. Most cells are in stationary phase and there is lots of exchange of genetic information. |
|
|
Term
| Define virulence and where are the virulence genes located? |
|
Definition
| extent of pathogenicity. Located on chromosomes (pathogenicity islands), plasmids, and bacteriophages. |
|
|
Term
| What is the entry virulence strategy? |
|
Definition
| How to get around innate host defenses. |
|
|
Term
| What is the adherence virulence strategy? |
|
Definition
| Bacterial adhesin binding to the host receptor. |
|
|
Term
| What is the injury virulence strategy? |
|
Definition
| Bacteria uses hydrolytic enzymes, endotoxins, and exotoxins. |
|
|
Term
| What does a type B exotoxin do? |
|
Definition
| Binds to specific host receptors |
|
|
Term
| What does a type A exotoxin do? |
|
Definition
| Active, enters cell and enzymatically attacks host. |
|
|
Term
| What do type III and IV exotoxin secretion systems do? |
|
Definition
| Act as a syringe for injecting toxic molecules into host cells. |
|
|
Term
| Are exotoxins gram +, -, or both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are endotoxins gram +, -, or both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Lipid A seen in gram +, -, or both? |
|
Definition
| Only Gram (-), often released by dead or dying cells. |
|
|
Term
| Does antitoxin neutralize endotoxin, exotoxin or both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is more sensitive to heat? Endotoxin or exotoxin? |
|
Definition
| Exotoxin is more sensitive to heat. |
|
|
Term
| What do superantigens do? |
|
Definition
| Bind MHC colecules on antigen presenting cells and stimulate cytokine production. This leads to massive activation of T cells, can lead to toxic shock. |
|
|
Term
| When evading the host defense, what is phase variation? |
|
Definition
| Turning things on and off. |
|
|
Term
| When avoiding the host defense, what is antigenic variation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another name for Coccidioidomycosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some signs of possible Coccidioidomycosis infection?
|
|
Definition
Non-specicific inflammation
Arizona Resident
Reduced TNF-alpha
Persistant cought or athesma
Major fever and chills
Sick 6-7 days
Losing weight without trying
|
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Valley fever? |
|
Definition
| Treat the symptoms. Only use antifungals if it is a severe infection because antifungals have major side effects. Attempt to not harm patient more. |
|
|
Term
| How are spinal nerves named? |
|
Definition
Spinal nerves are named after the vertebrae above them except in cervical spine. In the cervical spine, nerve C1 exits above the axis and there is a cervical nerve C8 that lies below the C7 vertebrae.
|
|
|
Term
| (T/F) a peripheral nerve can have contributions from a number of different spinal nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes Ankle Foot Orthosis and how is it treated? |
|
Definition
| Caused by problems with the fibular nerve that cause the toes to drag. Can be treated by wearing a speciat boot brace. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the Pudenal nerve leave the spine? |
|
Definition
| S2-4, it keeps your dick off the floor. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the sciatic nerve leave the spine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a Burner injury (brachial plexopathy)? |
|
Definition
| Traction or compression of C5 &/or C6 ventral rami. |
|
|
Term
| How many regions are there in the lower limb? name them |
|
Definition
6.
Gluteal
Femoral
Knee
Leg
Talocrural
Foot |
|
|
Term
| How many segments are there in the lower limb? name them |
|
Definition
3.
Proximal= femoral
Intermediate= knee
Distal=foot |
|
|
Term
| What separates anterior and posterior mucles in the thigh? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What separates anterior and posterior mucles in the leg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many segments are there in the upper extremity? name them |
|
Definition
Proximal= arm
Intermediate= forearm
Distal= hand |
|
|
Term
| When does gastrulation occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does body folding occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do the limb buds appear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do the limbs rotate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is the embryonic period? When is it most sensitive? |
|
Definition
| Weeks 3-8, most sensitive at week 5. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
going from a 3 layered Frisbee look into a bent tube within a tube. Happens in week 4. Broken into lateral and craniocaudal folding
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mesoderm splits. As lateral aspects of embryo fold ventrally, the space between the layers of mesoderm forms future body cavities.
|
|
|
Term
| Describe craniocaudal folding |
|
Definition
Head and “tail” regions bend towards each other, and embryo becomes “C” shaped |
|
|
Term
| Describe somite formation |
|
Definition
Happens in weeks 3-5
Paraxial mesoderm is organized into segments called somitomeres, these (starting at the head) are turned into somites. These somites differentiate into schlerotomes, dermatomes, or myotomes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| derived from a somite, will be a future vertebral segment. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dorsal portion of somite that forms dermis of the skin. Each segment is supplied by a spinal nerve. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Mesoderm from somite that will differentiate into myoblasts. |
|
|
Term
| When a limb is developing what is the distal border where the limb is growing called? |
|
Definition
| Apical ectodermal ridge (AER) |
|
|
Term
| (T/F) limbs rotate in the same direction during week 7 of development? |
|
Definition
| False. Upper limbs rotate latterally, and lower limbs rotate medially. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1.Mesenchyme condenses and cells become chondrocytes.
2.By week 6 you have hyaline cartilage models of future bones.
3. Primary endochondral ossification begins at the end of the embryonic period.
4. Diaphysis is completely ossified by birth
5. Secondary ossification of the epiphyses begins at birth
6. Epiphyseal plate remains for bone lengthening. |
|
|
Term
| Describe muscle development |
|
Definition
1. paraxial mesoderm is turned into somites
2. Somites is turned into mesenchyme
3. Mesenchyme condenses near base of limb bud
4. Each myotome receives innervation from spinal nerves derived from the same segment as the muscle cells. |
|
|
Term
| What cranial nerves form the radial nerve? What does it do? |
|
Definition
Dorsal segments of C5, C6, C7, C8, T1
supplies extensor muscles |
|
|
Term
| What cranial nerves form the ulnar nerve? what does it do? |
|
Definition
Ventral segmental branches of C8, and T1.
Supplies flexor muscles |
|
|
Term
| What nerves make up the median nerve, and what does it do? |
|
Definition
Ventral segmental brances of C6-T1
Supplies flexor muscles |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dwarfism resulting from improper development of cartilage at the end of long bones. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| complete absence of one or more limbs. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| upper portion of limb is poorly developed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| enlargment of one or more digits. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fewer than normal digits. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| compression of the infant in uterus. |
|
|
Term
| What is the only bacteria with sterols in the cell membrane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the only bacteria without peptidoglycan in its cell wall? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are fungal spores for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are bacterial endospores for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of fungal mycoses and describe them. |
|
Definition
superficial/cutaneous
hair, skin, nails
most common
subcutaneous
beneath the skin
rare, tropical (Mexico!)
systemic
deep w/in body
characteristic geographic regions (endemic mycoses)
E.g. Coccidioides immitis, southwestern U.S., Mexico, Central and South America
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
branching cylindrical tube found on molds.
Can be septate or coenocytic. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| define vegitative mycelium |
|
Definition
| part of mycelium involved in gaining nutrients. |
|
|
Term
| define aerial or reproductive mycelium |
|
Definition
| part of mycelium involved in growth and reproduction. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
asexual spores not in a sac, in a chain
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
asexual spores on mold, in a sac
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sac that sporangiospores are in |
|
|
Term
| what are spores on hyphae called? |
|
Definition
| conidiophore or sporangiophore |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| blastoconidia (yeast buds) that are in a short chain because they failed to detach. |
|
|
Term
| Catheter infections are what kind of infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What media is used to grow clinically important fungi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| define death denying culture |
|
Definition
| inability to discuss death and dying openly. |
|
|
Term
| Define death defying culture |
|
Definition
| Inability to accept death as an option. Extends life no matter the suffering. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Whatever the patient wants at the end of their life. No one size fits all. |
|
|
Term
| Is a Naked virus or an Enveloped virus more environmentally stable to temp, acids, detergents, and drying? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are naked viruses released from cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are enveloped viruses spread? |
|
Definition
| Budding or cell lysis, but does not have to kill the cell to spread. |
|
|
Term
| (T/F) All helical viruses are enveloped and contain RNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the events of the Viral replication cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the virion eclipse phase? |
|
Definition
| Virion has entered call and virus gains control of host machinery. No complete infectious virus are present during this phase. |
|
|
Term
| What are inclusion bodies? What are their clinical signifigance? |
|
Definition
stainable structures resulting from virus induced changes in the host cell.
Diagnostic tool, look at the nature and location for characteristics of particular viral infections. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary cause of mutations in viruses? |
|
Definition
| Error prone viral polymerases |
|
|
Term
| Define viral recombination |
|
Definition
Intramolecular or intermolecular genetic exchange between related viruses or the virus and the host.
Two genes are SO similar they can recombine by taking parts of one strain |
|
|
Term
| Define viral reassortment |
|
Definition
coinfection with viruses of segmented genomes from different species and (e.g., influenza viruses and reoviruses) → Epidemic significances? RISE OF COMPLETLEY NEW STRAIN, TISSUE TROPISM CHANGES, HOST HAS NO ABILITY TO DEAL WITH BRAND NEW STRAIN OF VIRUS
|
|
|
Term
| define horizontal transmission and entry |
|
Definition
| Spread between members of a population |
|
|
Term
| define vertical transmission and entry |
|
Definition
| Mother infects fetus in utero |
|
|
Term
| Defind endogenous entry and transmission |
|
Definition
| Latent virus becomes reactivated |
|
|
Term
| Define chronic viral infection |
|
Definition
never been completely cleared from the host; always kept at a certain level in host |
|
|
Term
| Define latent viral infection |
|
Definition
ability of viruses to integrate genome into host cell without killing it, can exist together, no viral replication (may have DNA synthesis and protein synthesis, but not actively replicating)
Different than chronic, do NOT display symptoms but when host immunity is compromised, infection can be reactivated
|
|
|
Term
| What type of viral infection can become reactivated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What must RNA viruses (+ or – sense) be equipped with in order to generate new viral protein and/or genome?
|
|
Definition
– sense must come in with own viral RNA polymerase
+ sense can simply ENCODE for the viral RNA polymerase, doesn’t have to have it initially |
|
|
Term
Which type of virus, once uncoated, will immediately be ready for viral protein synthesis?
|
|
Definition
| Single stranded positive RNA viruses |
|
|
Term
A newly-identified virus has a small, non-enveloped virion particle and carries out the replication cycle exclusively in the cytoplasm of infected cells. When purified genomic nucleic acids of this virion are added to mammalian host cells, it results in the production of viral protein. This novel virus most likely has a ________ genome.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) most mRNA undergo processing in bacteria |
|
Definition
| False, Bacteria dont have introns so they do not undergo mRNA processing. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
group of one or more structurally or functionally related genes under the control of one promoter
Can provide the advantage of a coordinate expression all the grouped genes (ex: pathogenicity island)
|
|
|
Term
| What must the conditions be for the Lac operon to be on? |
|
Definition
| Lactose must bind to the LAc repressor, and glucose must be low to activate the CAP-cAMP complex |
|
|
Term
| Define transcription attenuation |
|
Definition
premature transcription termination resulted from change in the rate or efficiency of protein synthesis/ribosome movement on a nascent mRNA; unique in prokaryotes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| he lytic cycle results in the destruction of the infected cell and its membrane. A key difference between the lytic and lysogenic phage cycles is that in the lytic phage, the viral DNA exists as a separate molecule within the bacterial cell, and replicates separately from the host bacterial DNA. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
phage DNA integrates into bacterial DNA. Integrated DNA is called a prophage and can remain in the integrated state for long periods of time |
|
|
Term
| What is bacterial transduction? |
|
Definition
| Genetic transfet of information between bacteria by a bacteriophage. |
|
|
Term
| What is bacterial conjugation? |
|
Definition
| Exchange of genetic information by "mating" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sum of all means used to prevent a healcare associated infection (HAI) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Preventing contact between microorganisms and susceptible sites. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Destruction of removal of all microbial life. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Destruction of most microbial life. Does not destroy endospores.
Inanimate objects |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| disinfection of living surfaces. |
|
|
Term
Rank the following in terms of resistance to sterilization/disinfection/antisepsis from most to least:
Naked virus, fungi, protozoan trophozoites, most bacterial vegetative cells, prion, mycobacteria, endospore, protozoan cysts, enveloped viruses, |
|
Definition
(MOST resistant)prion>endospore>mycobacteria, naked viruses, protozoan cysts, fungi>most bacterial vegetative cells, enveloped viruses, protozoan trophozoites (Least resistant)
|
|
|
Term
| Activity of which envelope constituent survives autoclaving? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What drugs do to the body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What the body does to drugs |
|
|
Term
| How long before a NDA is approved by the FDA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe phase I clinical testing |
|
Definition
20-80 healthy volunteers
establishes safety |
|
|
Term
| Describe phase II testing |
|
Definition
100-300 patients
establish efficacy and dose |
|
|
Term
| Describe phase III testing |
|
Definition
1000-5000 patients
verify efficacy and detect adverse affects |
|
|
Term
| What factors does a doctor need to consider when evaluating new drug producs? |
|
Definition
| Efficacy, safety, and cost |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The death of cells or groups of cells (tissues) within a living organism.
|
|
|
Term
| Is necrosis or autolysis seen after death? |
|
Definition
| Autolysis is seen in tissues after death. |
|
|
Term
| Explain coagulative necrosis, and where is it seen? |
|
Definition
(Heart, kidney, liver, spleen) The most common form of necrosis. Occurs when cell proteins are altered or denatured, similar to the coagulation that occurs when cooking eggs. Histologically, the cell outlines are preserved and the cytoplasm appears finely granular.
|
|
|
Term
| Explain liquefactive necrosis, and where does it occur? |
|
Definition
(brain) Refers to a process by which dead cells liquify under the influence of certain cell enzymes. The tissue becomes soft and gel-like.
|
|
|
Term
| Describe caseous necrosis and where is it commonly seen? |
|
Definition
(TB) A form of coagulative necrosis in which a thick, yellowish, cheesy substance forms.
|
|
|
Term
| What is fat necrosis and where is it seen? |
|
Definition
(pancreas or breast) A specialized form of liquefaction necrosis caused by the action of lipolytic enzymes. |
|
|
Term
| What is dystrophic calcification? |
|
Definition
Necrotic tissue attracts calcium salts and frequently undergoes calcification.
|
|
|
Term
| Explain metastatic calcification |
|
Definition
Usually associated with increased serum calcium levels, leading to deposition of calcium in other locations. You see formations of calcium carbonate stones is sites like the gallbladder, kidneys, and bladder.
|
|
|
Term
How are apoptotic cells identified in tissue sections?
|
|
Definition
Apoptotic cells are recognized by nuclear fragmentation and pyknosis of individual cells or small groups of cells, in a background of viable cells. Inflammation and necrosis is generally not present.
Apoptotic cells appear shrunken with round or oval masses of bright pink or orange in the cytoplasm (apoptotic bodies), cytoplasmic blebs, and dense nuclear fragments
|
|
|
Term
| What are the components of a complete metabolic pannel? |
|
Definition
| Glucose, sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, CO2, cratinine, BUN, albumin, total protein, total bilirubin, ALP, AST, ALT |
|
|
Term
Glucose
What is the normal fasting glucose levels?
What is too much/ too little called?
what disease is associated with too much? |
|
Definition
70-99
Hyperglycemic, hypoglycemic
Fasting hyperglycemia is associated with DM |
|
|
Term
What is the normal levels of Na?
what is too much/ too little called? |
|
Definition
136-146
Hypernatremia, hyponatremia |
|
|
Term
What is the normal concentration of potassium?
What is too much/little called?
|
|
Definition
3.5-5.1
Hyperkalemia, hypokalemia |
|
|
Term
What is the normal range for calcium?
What is too much/little called? |
|
Definition
8.6-10.2
hypercalcemia, hypocalcemia |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of looking at chloride? |
|
Definition
| Acid base balance, also used for certain neurotransmitters |
|
|
Term
| If you suspect kidney dysfunction what readings would be high? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the importance of looking at albumin/ total protein? |
|
Definition
| Looks at the patient's nutrition. |
|
|
Term
| What does high bilirubin suggest? |
|
Definition
| Liver problems, pt may have jaundice. |
|
|
Term
| What would high AST, ALT, and ALP suggest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is "good" cholesterol? HDL or LDL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is considered a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the major risk factos of coronary heart disease? |
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Definition
High LDL
Cigarette smoking
BP > 140/90
Men> 45; women > 55
HDL< 40
Male first degree relative under 55, female first degree relative under 65 |
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Term
| What would high specific gravity in a UA suggest? |
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Definition
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Term
| What would positive WBC (leukocyte esterace) in a UA suggest? |
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Definition
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Term
| What would a UA positive for nitrate mean? |
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Definition
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Term
| What would a UA positive for protein mean? |
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Definition
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Term
| What would a UA positive for glucose mean? |
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Definition
| hyperglycemia or diabetes |
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Term
| What would a UA positive for ketones mean? |
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Definition
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Term
| What would a UA positive for bilirubin mean? |
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Definition
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Term
| What would a UA positive for blood mean? |
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Definition
| many things, could be kidney or bladder damage. |
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Term
| What would a UA positive for casts mean? |
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Definition
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Term
| what is a chiral molecule? |
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Definition
| one that is not superimposable on its mirror image. |
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Term
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Definition
| repeated administration of the same dose of a drug results in a reduced effect over time. |
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Term
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Definition
| decreased ability of a receptor to respond to stimulation by a drug. |
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Term
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Definition
| After a receptor is stimulated, a period of time is required before the next drug receptor interaction can produce an effect. |
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Term
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Definition
| repeated drug interaction results in removal of the drug receptor from sites where the interactions could take place. |
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Term
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Definition
| Effective concentration causing drug effect in 50% of recipients |
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Term
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Definition
| effective dose causing drug effect in 50% of recipients |
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Term
| How is efficacy determined? |
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Definition
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Term
| How is potency determined? |
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Definition
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Term
Which of these has the most potency?
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
Which of these has the highest effectiveness?
[image] |
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Definition
| A & B have the same effectiveness |
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Term
| If 2 drugs have the same CD50 they are called? |
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Definition
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Term
| Define competitive antagonism |
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Definition
| antagonist binds to the active site. Can be overcame by increasing dose of agonist. Efficacy is unchanged but the potency of the agonist is reduced since it takes more. |
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Term
| Define non-competitive antagonism |
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Definition
| Cannot be overcome by increasing the dose of the agonist, they have different binding sites. Efficacy is deacreased and by definition the potency stays the same. It is irreversable. |
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Term
| What is an indirect drug mechanism? |
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Definition
| Drug is altering levels of naturally occuring neurotransmitter. |
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Term
| What are the 2 main drug targets in the parasympathetic nervous system? |
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Definition
AChE inhibitors
Muscarinic ACh receptor |
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Term
Modern physiological theory hypothesizes that ______ dysfunction is the basis of pathophysiological states
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Definition
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Term
A ______ is an ensemble of similar cells from the same origin that together carry out a specific function
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Definition
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Term
_______ are formed by the functional grouping together of multiple tissues.
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Definition
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Term
_______ is the functional part of an organ
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Definition
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Term
____ is the structural part of an organ
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 4 major types of tissue? |
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Definition
connective, nervous, epithelial, and muscular tissue
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Term
| What tissues does mesoderm develop into? |
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Definition
| Develops into epithelial tissue, connective tissue, and muscle tissue |
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Term
| What tissues does ectoderm develop into? |
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Definition
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Term
| What tissues does endoderm develop into? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| a type of pre-connective tissue that comes mostly from the mesoderm |
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Term
| How would you identify skeletal muscle? |
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Definition
| Striations and multi-nuclei |
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Term
| How do you identify cardiac muscle? |
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Definition
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Term
| How do you identify smooth muscle? |
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Definition
· smallest muscle cells, pink haze with dots under a microscope.
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Term
______ makes things bigger but not clearer
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Definition
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Term
_______ makes things bigger and more clear.
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Definition
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Term
| Describe fixation in microscopy |
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Definition
Cells are living material, and undergo biochemical change that must be stopped. Kills the cell, stops autolysis and biochemical activity. Usually uses aldehydes or freezing.
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Term
What is Loose areolar connective tissue composed of?
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Definition
| Ground substance, fibers, cells |
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Term
What is Reticular tissue made out of?
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Definition
| Collagen fibers and leukocytes |
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Term
| Plasma concentration= Dose / Volume |
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Definition
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Term
After ___ half lives you can assume that a process is nearly complete |
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Definition
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Term
Zero Order: drug levels decrease a set ____ per UNIT of TIME
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Definition
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Term
First Order: drug levels decrease a constant _________ per UNIT of TIME (linear)
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
maximum amount of drug that can be eliminated per unit of time
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Term
| ______ is the fraction of drug reaching systemic circulation. This is the area under the curve on the serum concentration time curves. |
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Definition
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Term
| To be _____ serum concentration time curves from the two products must be superimposable. They have the same peak level, time to peak, and area under the curve. |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the first pass effect |
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Definition
| Drugs are metabolized by liver before reaching systemic circulation. |
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Term
| _________ is a common drug transporter in the GI treact, it can send absorbed drugs back into the intestinal lumen, decreasing their absorption and bioavailability. |
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Definition
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Term
| ________ can decrease the time needed to achieve steady state. |
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Definition
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Term
| With a set dosing regimen, plan on steady state serum levels ebing reached after __ elimination half lives. |
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Definition
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Term
| Phase __ drug liver metabolism involves cytochrome p 450 liver enzyme system. |
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Definition
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Term
| Phase __ drug liver metabolism involves a conjugation step with gluronic acid or sulfate. Ususally involves the UGTs enzymes. Makes drugs soluble so they can be pissed out. |
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Definition
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Term
| The most common drug metabolizing cytochrome P |
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Definition
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Term
Describe what is meant by “prodrug” |
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Definition
Prodrug- is an inactive parent drug which requires bio-activation for toxification (toxic metabolite formed from parent drug). Inactive precursor that gets modified to become active.
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Term
List the 4 possible outcomes of liver drug metabolism |
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Definition
Termination of drug action
Active metabolites can be formed (both parent and metabolites are active)
Make active metabolites from a prodrug. (bioactivation)
Toxification (toxic metabolite formed from parent drug)
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Term
______ speeds up the metabolism of other drugs.
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Definition
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Term
| What is the most important step in enterohepatic drug recycling |
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Definition
| Bacteria hydrolyzing bonds in circulation |
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Term
Define the term “selective toxicity” |
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Definition
Selective toxicity- refers to the ability of these drugs to kill or inhibit the growth of microbes, leaving the human host unharmed.
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Term
What is (MIC) minimal inhibitory concentration
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Definition
amount of drug needed to inhibit growth in test tube.
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Term
Explain “de-escalation” of antimicrobial therapy |
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Definition
Going from multiple drugs broad then focus down to one specific treatment.
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Term
_______ is a medical term referring to the initiation of treatment prior to determination of a firm diagnosis. It may be thought of as taking the initiative against an anticipated and likely cause of infectious disease. It is most often used when antibiotics are given to a person before the specific bacterium causing an infection is known.
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Definition
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Term
An ________ is a local summary of selected antibiotic activity versus common bacterial isolates; it is used for drug formulary decisions and to guide empiric treatment
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Definition
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Term
| What is the most important histamine receptor for allergies? |
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Definition
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Term
State the initial drug of choice for emergency treatment of severe allergic reactions |
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Definition
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Term
Explain two clinical advantages that loratadine and fexofenadine have over diphenhydramine |
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Definition
| Loratadine and Fexofenadine are 2nd generation non drowsy drugs. They cannot cross into CNS. |
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Term
| In the pre-antibiotic era, some physicians had attempted to cure syphilis by raising the patients’ body temperature with injections of malaria agents. The practice was based on the knowledge that the causative agent of syphilis is known to demonstrate a limited growth at elevated body temperature. This approach can be best viewed as aiming to alter the pathogenesis by |
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Definition
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Term
| How does the immune system respond to stress? |
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Definition
| Immune activity is reduced by cortisol |
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Term
| A characteristic shared by exotoxins and endotoxins is their |
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Definition
| involvement in cellular injury. |
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Term
| Meralgia paresthetica results from entrapment of? |
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Definition
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
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Term
| Which feature best characterizes a malignant tumor? |
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Definition
| Hyperchromastism of the nuclei |
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Term
The best approach to motivate a patient to make behavioral changes designed to improve their over-all health is to
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Definition
engage the patient in a conversation about what they want and need to be successful.
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Term
| A newly-identified virus has a small, non-enveloped virion particle and carries out the replication cycle exclusively in the cytoplasm of infected cells. When purified genomic nucleic acids of this virion are added to mammalian host cells, it results in the production of viral protein. This novel virus most likely has a ________ genome |
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Definition
| single-stranded, positive-sense RNA |
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Term
| Smooth strains (S) of Streptococcus pneumoniae are encapsulated and pathogenic. Rough strains (R) are not encapsulated and are generally not pathogenic. In an experiment, mice were injected with a mixture of dead S strains and live R strains, the mice die and colonies of both S and R strains were isolated from the blood culture of the dead mice. The most likely explanation for these results is the genetic process called |
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Definition
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Term
| The most appropriate method to sterilize a heat-sensitive drug that would maintain the drug’s function is |
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Definition
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Term
| The most common cause of malignant involvement of the lymphatic system is |
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Definition
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Term
| Acute inflammation is characterized by an influx of _____ while chronic inflammation is characterized by an influx of ______ . |
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Definition
| neutrophils ; mononuclear cells |
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Term
| A patient lacking class II HLA molecule expression would most likely be susceptible to |
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Definition
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Term
| A patient presents with recurrent viral infections. The clinical assay result that would most likely be decreased in this patient would be a measure of ______ cells. |
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Definition
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Term
| A patient with Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia would have a decreased number of ___ cells in his peripheral blood. |
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Definition
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Term
| While rotating on a forensic pathology elective, you notice post-mortem or autolytic changes that occur to the body after death. The pathologist says that these changes can also be seen under the microscope similar to changes seen in tissue necrosis. He asks which is a major determinant that tissue necrosis has, but autolysis does not, histologically? |
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Definition
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Term
| Aldehyde fixatives normally only chemically modify which major class(es) of biomolecules? |
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Definition
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