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Final Exam 3
Final
50
Nursing
Undergraduate 2
05/10/2014

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Cards

Term
1. Which of the following cells produces antibodies?
a. NK cells
b. plasma cells
c. Helper T cells
d. Memory B cells
Definition
b
Term
2. T & B cells are which of the following type of leukocyte?
a. Eosinophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Basophils
e. Neutrophils
Definition
b
Term
3. T cells that react to self-antigens
a. leukopenia
b. autoimmune disease
c. Immunodeficiency
d. polycythemia
Definition
b
Term
4. Class I MHC proteins are used by...
a. all nucleated cells to display peptide fragments of cell products.
b. red blood cells to display A and B antigens
c. antigen-presenting cells to activate a help T cell.
d. all of the above
e. both A & B
Definition
a
Term
5. Many individuals fall ill to a number of different childhood illnesses. Once they recover however, most will never experience those same illnesses again. This is because...
a. They never have contact with those same pathogens again.
b. They have developed specialized macrophages that prevent those illnesses in the future.
c. The pathogens have gone extinct.
d. They have developed specific memory T and memory B cells.
Definition
d
Term
6. Which of the following is most likely to act as an antigen presenting cell (APC)?
a. Macrophage
b. Memory T cell
c. Erythrocyte
d. Hemocytoblast.
Definition
a
Term
7. Which of the following statements concerning B cells is FALSE?
a. The activation of B cells typically requires the assistance of Helper T cells.
b. Certain B cells directly attack antigen bearing cells
c. B cells are the basis of humoral immunity
d. B cells mature in red bone marrow.
Definition
b
Term
8. When a cell becomes infected with an intracellular pathogen (ex. a virus) which of the following events may occur?
a. The cell displays abnormal antigens on its MHC proteins
b. The cell is attacked by cytotoxic T cells.
c. The cell produces interferons.
d. All of the above.
Definition
d
Term
9._________ are a class of chemicals used by immune cells to communicate with each other.
a. Antibodies
b. Hormones
c. Cytokines
d. Neurotransmitters
Definition
c
Term
10. Which of the following statements concerning T cells is false?
a. Cytotoxic T cells directly attack and destroy infected cells.
b. Regulatory (suppressor) T cells are important in activating the humoral immunity.
c. Helper T cells help to coordinate the activities of the cellular and humoral immunity.
d. Memory T cells remain inactive in lymphatic tissue until the next encounter with a pathogen.
Definition
b
Term
11. Which class(es) of antibody can be transferred from a mother to her child?
a. IgM
b. IgA
c. IgA & IgG
d. IgD & IgM
e. Ige
Definition
c
Term
12.Which class of antibody is associated with allergic reactions?
a. IgM
b. IgA
c. IgD
d. IgG
e. IgE
Definition
e
Term
13. Picture exam 3
Definition
a
Term
14. Which of the following best descries adaptive immunity?
a. It targets specific threats.
b. It includes intact skin.
c. It is fully developed at birth.
d. It is comprised physical barriers and macrophages.
e. Its response is immediate.
Definition
a
Term
15. Immunization is the international introduction of an antigen to provoke an immune response. The type of immunity acquired in the process is...
a. natural-active.
b. natural-passive
c. artificial-active
d. artificial-passive
Definition
c
Term
16. A secondary immune response is faster and greater in magnitude than a primary immune response because of the production of _________ during the primary immune response.
a. memory cells
b. helper T cells
c. specialized macrophages.
d. All of the above.
Definition
a
Term
17. Class II MHC proteins are used by __________ to display processed antigens.
a. red blood cells.
b. white blood cells.
c. antigen-presenting cells.
d. plasma cells.
Definition
c
Term
18. A(n) ______________ is a substance that becomes antigenic only when it combines with another molecule.
a. cytokine
b. hapten
c. antigen
d. pathogen-associated molecular pattern
e. both c and d
Definition
b
Term
19. There are five possible outcomes of antibody-antigen complex formation that result in destruction of the antigen-bearing substance. Which of the following statement best describes what these five outcomes have in common?
a. They enhance that ability of phagocytes to remove the antigen-bearing substance through phagocytosis.
b. They all lead to the hypothalamus triggering fever.
c. They complement the immune response by triggering inflammation, formation of membrane attack complexes, and opsonization.
d. They lead to destruction of the antigen-bearing substance through the secretion of perforins by killer T cells.
Definition
a
Term
20. The role of positive selection in the development of lymphocytes is to...
a. eliminate self-reactive lymphocytes.
b. eliminate lymphocytes that do not recognize MHC proteins.
c. eliminate lymphocytes that are incapable of carrying out an immune response.
d. all of the above
e. both b and c
Definition
e
Term
21. In addition to antigen binding sites, an antibody may also have....
a. Interferon binding sites
b. macrophage binding sites.
c. helper T cell binding sites
d. all of the above.
Definition
b
Term
22. Self-reactive lymphocytes may become active later on in life by which of the following mechanisms?
a. Encounters with foreign antigens that closely resemble self-antigens.
b. The appearance of new self-antigens due to gene mutation.
c. The exposure of normally hidden self-antigens through tissue damage.
d. Changes in the structure of self-antigens caused by attachment of haptens.
e. all of the above.
Definition
e
Term
23. During inspiration, air is drawn into lungs by...
a. increased intrapleural (thoracic) pressure.
b. movement along its concentration gradient
c. decreased intrpleural (thoracic) pressure.
d. a pressure gradient created by the heart.
Definition
c
Term
24. During respiration, which of the following gasses originates in the body and is exchanged with the atmosphere?
a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon dioxide.
d. Methane
Definition
c
Term
25. The oxygen taken in by the body during inspiration will be used...
a. In glycolysis
b. As a final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain
c. As a coenzyme in the Krebs cycle
d. As none of the above
Definition
b
Term
26. Functions of the respiratory system include all of the following EXCEPT...
a. Acid-base balance
b. Gas exchange
c. Thermoregulation
d. Vocal sound production
e. Facilitating olfaction
Definition
c
Term
27. Most of the carbon dioxide transported by the blood stream occurs as...
a. CO2 dissolved in plasma.
b. CO2 bound to hemoglobin.
c. carbaminohemoglobin
d. carbonic acid or bicarbonate.
e. both b and c.
Definition
d
Term
28. Type II cells produce _____ that prevents the alveoli from collapsing due to ______.
a. mucus...irritants.
b. surfactant...surface tension.
c. Antibodies...infection
d. Serous fluid...friction
Definition
b
Term
29. Alverolar gas exchange is facilitated by the presence of a(n) ___________ epithelium lining the alveolar walls.
a. stratified squamous.
b. Pseudostratified columnar.
c. Simple columnar
d. Simple squamous
Definition
d
Term
30. The diaphragm is innervated by the...
a. intercostal nerves
b. vagus nerves
c. phrenic nerves
d. axillary nerves
e. sacral nerves
Definition
c
Term
31. Which muscle is active during forced expiration?
a. diaphragm
b. External intercostals
c. Internal intercostals
d. Orbicularis oculi
Definition
c
Term
32. Which of the following respiratory processes does NOT occur in the lungs?
a. Pulmonary ventilation
b. Internal respiration
c. External respiration
d. None of the above
Definition
b
Term
33. The Bohr effect refers to...
a. The rate at which carbonic acid is formed via carbonic acid anhydrase.
b. the diffusion of the respiratory gasses across the respiratory membrane.
c. the influence of CO2 and pH on hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen.
d. the binding of CO2 to hemoglobin
Definition
c
Term
34. The conversion of carbon dioxide to bicarbonate occurs much faster within red blood cells than in blood plasma because of the presence of...
a. Carbonic acid anhydrase.
b. Salivary amylase
c. Tryptase
d. Carbaminohemoglobin
Definition
a
Term
35. The rate and depth of respiration would be expected to increase in response to which of the following stimuli?
a. inhalation of chemical irritants.
b. decreasing CO2 levels in the blood.
c. increased skeletal muscle activity
d. increasing pH in the cerebrospinal fluid.
e. increased stretching of the lungs.
Definition
c
Term
36. If intrapleural pressure (Pip) were greater than intrapulmonary pressure (Ppul), which of the following would be expected to occur?
a. Transpulmonary pressure would increase.
b. Inflammation of the pleura would occur.
c. The lungs would collapse.
d. The alveoli would tear.
e. None of the above.
Definition
c
Term
37. The ____________ are responsible for establishing the baseline rate and depth of pulmonary ventilation.
a. pontine respiratory centers.
b. ventral respiratory group.
c. dorsal respiratory group.
d. hypothalamus
e. cerebrum
Definition
b
Term
38. Which of the following chemical factors is most important as a stimulus to trigger adjustments in pulmonary ventilation rates?
a. oxygen in the blood.
b. Carbon dioxide in the cerebrospinal fluid
c. pH of urine
d. All of the above are equally important
Definition
b
Term
39. Respiration is controlled by centers located within which of the following brain structures?
Definition
a
Term
40. This disorder of the respiratory system was once believed to be the result of bronchospasms. Now, _________ is attributed to an inflammation of the airways.
a. pleurisy
b. atelectasis
c. bronchitis
d. asthma
Definition
d
Term
41. The protective function of the ciliary escalator depends on both the cilia and
a. dust cells
b. mucus
c. surfactant
d. macrophages
e. flagella
Definition
b
Term
42. Urine is formed by which of the following structures?
a. ureters
b. urinary bladder
c. nephrons
d. uterus
Definition
c
Term
43. The fluid contained within the renal tubule is best referred to as _______.
a. plasma
b. interstitial fluid
c. urine
d. filtrate
Definition
d
Term
44. If ureters were absent....
a. urine could not be produced.
b. urine could not be released from the bladder
c. urine could not be transported tot he urinary bladder.
d. non of the above.
Definition
c
Term
45. The role of tubular secretion is to....
a. remove nutrients from the filtrate
b. remove H+ from the filtrate
c. form concentrated urine
d. add additional substances to the filtrate
Definition
d
Term
46. Which sequence best describes the order of renal tubule structure?
a. Renal capsule-ascending limb (loop on henle)-PCT-DCT-decending limb (loop of henle)
b. Renal capsule-PCT-DCT-ascending limb (loop on henle)-decending limb (loop of henle)
c. Renal capsule-PCT-ascending limb (loop on henle)-descending limb (loop on henle)-DCT
d. Renal capsule-PCT-descending limb (loop on henle)-ascending limb (loop on henle)- DCT
Definition
d
Term
47. Which of the following statements regarding juxtaglomerular nephrons is FALSE?
a. They are important in forming concentrated urine.
b. They are associated with specialized capillaries called vasa recta.
c. Their loops of henle are long
d. they are more numerous than corical nephrons
Definition
d
Term
48. Which of the following sequence best describes the movement of blood through the blood vessels associated with the nephron?
a.Afferent arteriole-glomerulus-peritubular capillary-Efferent arteriole
b.Efferent arteriole-glomerulus-Afferent arteriole-peritubular cavity
c.Afferent arteriole-glomerulus-Efferent arteriole-peritubular cavity
d.Glomerulus-afferent arteriole-peritubular capillary-Efferent arteriole
Definition
c
Term
49. Granular cells are best described by which of the following.
a. specialized smooth muscle cells.
b. located in the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
c. cells that release renin.
d. all of the above.
Definition
d
Term
50. The juxtaglomerular apparatus contains...
a. macula densa cells
b. juxtamedullary nephrons
c. juxtaglomerular cells
d. both a and c
Definition
d
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