Term
| Fundamental triplet code necessary for protein synthesis. Basic compounds produced are amino acids |
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Definition
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Term
| Composed of double stranded DNA containing threadlike sections of genes, most commonly found in the cell nucleus. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Chromosomes other than a sex chromosome |
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Definition
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|
Term
| X and Y. Each human has 2 of these. Genetic determinants of the sex of an individual |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Cells containing only one of the chromosome pairs |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The number of chromosomes a human body cell contains. 23 pairs of chromosomes or a total of 46. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Genetic makeup of an individual |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Genetic traits that are apparent or observable |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Different alleles on a chromosome |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Identical alleles on each chromosome |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The evidence of the gene in the phenotype |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Ability of a gene to express a mutation |
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Definition
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|
Term
Name the chromosomal alteration:
Occurs when a large segment of DNA breaks from one chromosome and reattaches to a different chromsome; often occuring during meiosis |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Name the chromosomal alteration:
Addition of one or more nucleotide base pairs into a DNA sequence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the chromosomal alteration:
Consists of a piece of DNA that is abnormally copied one or more times |
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Definition
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|
Term
Name the chromosomal alteration:
A chromosome rearrangement in which a segment of a chromosome is reversed end to end. Occurs when a single chromosome undergoes breakage and rearrangement within itself |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Name the chromosomal alteration:
Mutation in which a part of a chromosome or sequence of DNA is missing |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| A picture of arranged, paired, like chromosomes in order of largest to smallest |
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Definition
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|
Term
| When chromosomes fail to seperate |
|
Definition
| Chromosomal nondisjunction |
|
|
Term
| The generation of new daughter cells divided from progenitor cells (parent cells) |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Refers to the orderly process of cellular maturation to achieve a specific function |
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Definition
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Term
| Genes that code for proteins involved in cell growth or regulation |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Genes that prohibit overproliferation of cells and regulate apoptosis |
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Definition
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Term
| Refers to the loss fo cell differentiation and therefore the loss of cell function |
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Definition
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|
Term
| When does DNA replication occur? |
|
Definition
| Before cellular reproduction. The two DNA strands separate from the helix and each forms new strands made up of matching base pairs to each original strand. One forms the template for transcription, the other is the complement. Result is 4 strands. |
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Term
| DNA to RNA is what process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| RNA to proteins is what process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Protein Synthesis:
This reads the series of nucleotide bases and transcribes them into complementary RNA nucleotide bases |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Protein Synthesis:
The nucleotide bases that make up each codon are translated by the _____ complementing those that are transcribed by the mRNA |
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Definition
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|
Term
Protein Synthesis:
The ___ moves the nucleotide triplet out fo the nucleous to the ribosomes where each triplet is made into the corresponding amino acid. Amino acids combine to form polypeptide chains which combine to form large proteins |
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Definition
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|
Term
| _____ forms of genes are more likely to be expressed in a person |
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Definition
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|
Term
| _______ genes are less influential, requiring homozygous alleles to be expressed |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Inheritance of single gene traits follows a _____ _____ of predictable trait transmission based on autosomal dominant or recessive genotypes |
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Definition
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|
Term
| When must mutations occur to be inheritable? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| These mutations occur during mitosis and are not inheritable? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Genes located in autosomes are known as what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Genes located in X chromosomes are what kind of genes? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| These mutations are more likely to be expressed. They require only one copy for expression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These mutations are less likely to be expressed. These require homozygous alleles for expression. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Daughters and sons are equally affected. Carriers do not exhibit the disease phenotype and have one recessive and one normal allele |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Daughters and sons are equally affected. There is no carrier state |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sons are more frequently affected than daughters. Only females have the carrier state |
|
Definition
| X-linked recessive mutation |
|
|
Term
| Daughters are more frequently affected than sons |
|
Definition
| X linked dominant mutation |
|
|
Term
| What are point mutations? |
|
Definition
| Changes in DNA sequence. These include: base substitution, insertion, and deletion. |
|
|
Term
| What causes chromosmal rearrangement? |
|
Definition
Nondisjunction (failure to separate), Mosaicism (refers to the combination of cells with regular chromosome # and those with altered #, more affected if it happens earlier)
Monosomy: occurs when nondisjunction results in cells with one copy of chromosome instead of 2.
Trisomy: presence of 3 copies of a chromosome.
Translocation: when segment of DNA breaks from one chromosome and attaches to another during meiosis |
|
|
Term
| Although most genes are found in the cell nucleus, several dozen genes can be found in the ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most mitochondrial genes are passed through ____. The functions of these genes are often related to ___ ____. |
|
Definition
| Ova (maternal gametes) Often related to energy production. |
|
|
Term
| When are manifestations of mitochondrial gene disorders displayed? |
|
Definition
| Displayed when the mutant mitochondria reach a critical level or threshold |
|
|
Term
| What are some clinical manifestations of mitochondrial gene disorders? |
|
Definition
| They vary because of heteroplasmic features of these disorders. Some may include: hypotonia, spasticity, peripheral neuropathy, encephalopathy, ataxia, vision/hearing loss. |
|
|
Term
| This is related to mitochondrial gene disorders; refers to the random distribution of mitochondria to daughter cells during embryonic cell division leading to variable distribution of mutant mitochondrial genes in tissues of an individual & between related individuals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are most affected in mitochondrial gene disorders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Down Syndrome is also known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is one of the most common genetic birth defects? |
|
Definition
| Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 ways in which Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) can occur? |
|
Definition
- Fertilization of a gamete with 2 copies of chromosome 21
- Nondisjunction during cell division
- Translocation |
|
|
Term
| If the error in cell division occurs after fertilization, what kind of Down syndrome may the child develop? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the only inheritable form of trisomy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk of trisomy as a result of nondisjunction increases with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following clinical manifestations are associated with what syndrome?
Upward slanting eyes (epicanthial fold), dysplastic ears, hypotonia, protruding tongue, wide gap between toes, easy airway collapse, short broad hands (simean crease) congenital heart defects, mega colon, acute lymphoblastic leukemia. |
|
Definition
| Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) |
|
|
Term
| Screening for Down Syndrome in the 1st Trimester can be done by what test? |
|
Definition
| Nuchal Translucency (NT) - looking for increased thickness. |
|
|
Term
| What is a diagnostic test for Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)? |
|
Definition
Chorionic villus sampling
Amniocentesis to grow fetal cells in culture, evaluate fetal karyotype and determine presence of abnormalities. (During 2nd trimester) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common fetal monosomy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This occurs in females when the chromosome number is altered. Resulting from the loss of all or part of the sex chromosome X. |
|
Definition
| Turner's Syndrome (monosomy) |
|
|
Term
| How can Turner's present genotypcially? |
|
Definition
50% true monosomy (only one X)
10% have structural abnormality of the X chromosome
Remaining = one or more additional cell lines or mosaic karyotype |
|
|
Term
| How does Turner's syndrome occur during meiosis or later? |
|
Definition
| Nondisjunction of X chromosome; Or nondisjunction during early mitotic division (mosaic) |
|
|
Term
| How is Turner's diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| Karyotyping and physical findings. Can be done during amniocentisis during pregnancy |
|
|
Term
The following clinical manifestations are evidence of what syndrome?
Short stature, short webbed neck, low hairline, lymphatic obstructions, narrowing of aorta and other arteries, congenital heart defects, scoliosis, estrogen deficiency, poor breast development, infertility, osteoporosis, frequent ear infections, hypothyrodism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease focus is related to alteration in chromosome number (autosome)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease focus is related to alteration in chromosome number (sex chromosome)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease focus is an autosomal dominant disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease focus is an autosomal recessive disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alteration in chromosome number; incorrect # of chromosomes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Neurologic disorder caused by degeneration of the basal ganglia and cortical regions of the brain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a parent has Huntington's Disease, what is their chance of passing this on to their children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ ______ is a progressive, autosomal dominant disorder caused by a defect in the _____ _____ on chromosome ___. |
|
Definition
| Huntington's Disease; Huntingtin Gene, 4 |
|
|
Term
| Aneuploidy is caused by what mechanism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In huntington's the gene defect results in a triplet ___ ____ ____ expansion mutation. Increased # of mutations is associated with what? The genetic mutation generates a code for what? |
|
Definition
| Cytosine, Adenine, Guanine (CAG). Associated with earlier clincial manifestation of disease. Generates code for abnormal huntingtin protein which accumulates to toxic levels destroying nerve cells and causing atrophy of the brain. |
|
|
Term
The following clinical manifestations are associated with what disease?
Involuntary mvmts, cognitive impairment, emotional disturbance, personality changes, loss of memory, antisocial, impulsive behaviors, restlessness, fidget like activity, dyskinesia, intellectual deterioration, delusions, paranoia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Family History and Physical Exam. Genetic testing. CT, MRI, PET scans can assess brain anomalies. |
|
|
Term
| The following are associated with what disease? |
|
Definition
| Shrinkage of basal ganglia, caudate nuclei/putamen, and enlargement of the ventricles of the brain |
|
|
Term
| A disease that affects RBC's in which HbA in the RBC's is replaced by HbS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the defective hemoglobin associated with Sickle Cell Anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sickle cell Anemia is the result of what? |
|
Definition
| A single gene mutation; it is a point mutation in which a single nucleotide substitution occurs. Valine is substituted for Glutamine. (change from glutamine to valine) |
|
|
Term
| In sickle cell anemia, what gene is involved and what chromosome? |
|
Definition
| bS gene (beta-globin) on chromosome 11 |
|
|
Term
| What changes occur in sickle cell anemia that are induced by the HbS? |
|
Definition
RBC's distorted into sickle shape.
These cause damage to endothelial cells that line blood vessels.
Trapping of RBC's in spleen causes hemolysis and anemia.
Difficulty in passage of small BV's resulting in decreased O2.
Pain related to ischemia can result in necrosis or organ failure if untreated. |
|
|
Term
| What conditions can lead to sickle cell crisis (increase in Hbs)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical manifestations of sickle cell crisis? |
|
Definition
| Jaundice and Anemia, ischemic pain, stroke and priapism can result. |
|
|
Term
| What is the second leading cause of death in US? First? |
|
Definition
| Cancer is second; heart disease is first |
|
|
Term
| What are general characterstics of cancer cells? |
|
Definition
Neoplastic - irreversible cellular development
Not under the control of genes; grow uninhibited
Do not resemble normal cells = Loss of differentation/loss of function (anaplastic)
Secretion of growth factor, secretion of enzymes to degrade surrounding tissue, cell membrane alteration (change in surface antigens).
Loss of cell adhesion, loss of contact inhibition
|
|
|
Term
| What does cell adhesion refer to? |
|
Definition
| Cells adhere to a surface. Loss of this with cancer cells. Cancer cells will grow everywhere and grow within a suspension |
|
|
Term
| What does contact inhibition refer to? |
|
Definition
| How normal cells stop growing when they reach a boundary. Cancerous cells do not; they will continue to grow and pile on top of one another. |
|
|
Term
| What does the secretion of growth factor by cancer cells promote? |
|
Definition
| Increased energy expenditure; increased angiogenesis |
|
|
Term
| What does the secretion of enzymes to degrade surrounding tissues by cancer promote? |
|
Definition
| Inflammation; facilitation of tumor spread |
|
|
Term
| How does the cell membrane alteration in cancer cells present? |
|
Definition
| Change in surface antigens; presentation of tumor markers on MHC 1 complex |
|
|
Term
| This is the first irreversible change in DNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is the repeated exposure to carcinogens or adverse environment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 important gene groups that control cell growth and development? |
|
Definition
Proto-oncogenes
Tumor Supressor Genes |
|
|
Term
| What are mutant proto-oncogenes known as? (dominant or recessive?) |
|
Definition
| Oncogenes; these are a dominant mutation and require only one dose of mutant gene to be expressed. Leads to uncontrolled cellular growth & proliferation. |
|
|
Term
| Loss of tumor supressor genes; dominant or recessive? |
|
Definition
| Recessive mutation on tumor suppresor genes, therefore must have 2 mutant genes to be expressed. Leads to loss of inhibition on proliferation = uncontrolled cellular proliferation |
|
|
Term
| Cancer cells are what origin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of immune cells will increase with cancer cells? |
|
Definition
| Cytotoxic T cells; these help with apoptosis |
|
|
Term
Benign or Malignant?
Similar to surrounding tissues |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benign or Malignant?
Anaplastic - loss of cell differentiation and function |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benign or Malignant?
Relatively slow expanding mass, encapsulated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benign or Malignant?
Rapid, non-encapsulated (poorly defined boundary) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benign or Malignant?
Localized |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benign or Malignant?
Rapidly spreading to neighboring tissues and distant sites |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benign or Malignant?
Surrounding tissues healthy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benign or Malignant?
Surrounding tissues ischemic and necrotic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benign or Malignant?
Normal blood vessels |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benign or Malignant?
Extensive blood vessels |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Proliferation of the neoplasm within the tissue of origin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Process of tumor cells moving into adjacent tissues and organs |
|
Definition
| Direct Extension. *Defining characterstic of malignancy |
|
|
Term
| Form of direct extension in which neoplastic proliferation occurs within peritoneal and pleural cavities surrounding the affected tissue or organ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Occur when neoplasms are spread to distant sites often by way of the lymphatics or blood vessels |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two ways in which neoplasms can metastasize? |
|
Definition
| Through blood vessels or lymphatics |
|
|
Term
| Describe the mechanism of mvmt of neoplasms to distant sites in 4 steps. *BGLE |
|
Definition
1. Breaking through the basement membrane (if present) and extracellular matrix
2. Gaining access to & circulating within the blood vessels or lymph system
3. Leaving the blood vessels or lymph system and adhering to distant tissues
4. Establishing a new nutrient network @ distant tissues through angiogenesis. |
|
|
Term
| Tumors can access distant sites most readily through what? |
|
Definition
| Lymphatic system; lymphatic capillaries and venules are thinner than blood and other lymphatic vessels which make them less resistant to invasion by neoplasms |
|
|
Term
| The affinity of a primary tumor to a specific distant site |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some factors that promote preferential relocation? |
|
Definition
1. Favorable environment offered by the new tissue or organ
2. Adherence molecule compatibility between the neoplasm and the new tissue or organ
3. The location of the organ in relation to the path of blood flow. |
|
|
Term
Nomenclature:
Tumor location/cell of origin (prefix) + the suffix "oma" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nomenclature:
Tumor location/cell of origin (prefix) + suffix "carcinoma" |
|
Definition
| Epithelial Tissue Malignancy |
|
|
Term
Nomenclature:
Tumor location/cell of origin (prefix) + the suffix "sarcoma" |
|
Definition
| Connective Tissue Malignancy |
|
|
Term
The following are what?
Lymphoma, melanoma, leukemia, hepatoma |
|
Definition
| Exceptions to the naming rules. |
|
|
Term
| Term used to describe carcinomas confined to the epithelium that have not yet penetrated the basement membrane. Severe dysplasia. During this time the tumor is often asymptomatic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Process of classifying the extent or spread of neoplasms and refers to the tumor size, location, lymph node involvement, and spread |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The higher the number of staging, the _______ ______ the tumor size and spread. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The TNM classification system is frequently used to stage tumors. What does TNM stand for? |
|
Definition
T = tumor size (presence and size of primary tumor)
N = node (lymph) involvement
M = metastases; indicates the extent |
|
|
Term
| Process of differentiating the level of anaplasia depicted by the tumor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
I-IV
I = well differentiated
IV = highly undifferentiated (anaplasia) |
|
|
Term
Grading of Tumors:
These resemble the tissue of origin in terms of size, shape, structure, and mitotic activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Grading of Tumors:
These demonstrate little resemblance to the tissue of origin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TNM Classification System:
TX, NX, MX |
|
Definition
TX = primary tumor cannot be evaluated
NX = regional lymph nodes cannot be evaluated
MX = distant metastasis cannot be evaluated |
|
|
Term
TNM Classification System:
T0, N0, M0 |
|
Definition
T0 = No evidence of primary tumor
N0 = No regional lymph node involvement (no cancer in lymph nodes)
M0 = No distant metastasis (no cancer spread to other parts of the body)
|
|
|
Term
TNM Classification System:
Tis |
|
Definition
| Carcinoma in situ (early cancer that has not spread to neighboring tissue) |
|
|
Term
TNM Classification System:
T1, T2, T3, T4
N1, N2, N3
M1 |
|
Definition
T.. = size or extent of the primary tumor
N.. = involvement of regional lymph nodes
M.. = distant metastasis |
|
|
Term
Local or Systemic Manifestation of Cancer? What causes it to occur?
Pain |
|
Definition
Local; direct pressure on sensory nerves, inflammation, tissue ischemia
Ex. headache due to brain tumors
Bone pain due to bone marrow crowding from blood cell cancers |
|
|
Term
Local or Systemic Manifestation of Cancer? What causes it to occur?
Tissue Destruction |
|
Definition
Local.
Due to necrosis, ulceration, bleeding. Can be complicated with infections |
|
|
Term
Local or Systemic Manifestation of Cancer? What causes it to occur?
Obstruction |
|
Definition
Local. Tumor mass compressing ducts, tubes, and passage ways
Ex. Lymphadema, intestinal obstruction, airway obstruction |
|
|
Term
Local or Systemic Manifestation of Cancer? What causes it to occur?
Lymphadenopathy |
|
Definition
| Systemic; many immune cells are being created to fight cancer. Usually non tender |
|
|
Term
Local or Systemic Manifestation of Cancer? What causes it to occur?
Fever |
|
Definition
| Systemic; pyrogen release from tumor cells. Host defense inflammatory process |
|
|
Term
Local or Systemic Manifestation of Cancer? What causes it to occur?
Anorexia |
|
Definition
Systemic.
From inflammatory response |
|
|
Term
Local or Systemic Manifestation of Cancer? What causes it to occur?
Weight Loss/Cachexia |
|
Definition
Anorexia due to cytokine relase from tumor cells (make us not want to eat)
Early satiety
Inaccessibility of lipid energy source in the body by tumor cells
High energy demand by tumor cells |
|
|
Term
Local or Systemic Manifestation of Cancer? What causes it to occur?
Anemia |
|
Definition
| Systemic; due to anorexia, decreased food intake, chronic bleeding |
|
|
Term
Local or Systemic Manifestation of Cancer? What causes it to occur?
Extreme fatigue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Local or Systemic Manifestation of Cancer? What causes it to occur?
Bleeding |
|
Definition
| Systemic; due to tissue damage by cancer cells |
|
|
Term
Local or Systemic Manifestation of Cancer? What causes it to occur?
Paraneoplastic Syndrome |
|
Definition
Associated with certain tumors. Release of substances by the tumor cells that cause neurologic, hematologic, hormonal, and chemical disturbances in the body.
ex. SIADH (small cell carcinoma), cushing disease, hypercalcemia |
|
|
Term
| The golden standard of diagnosis for cancer is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of death among children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most prevelant cancer in childhood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does pediatric cancer originate as compared to adults? |
|
Definition
Pediatric - mesodermal germ layer (very primative cells) Develops into blood, bone, lymphatics, CT, kidneys
Adults - epithelial cells (tissues and solid organs) |
|
|
Term
| What kind of causes do pediatric cancers typically have? |
|
Definition
| Inherited or developmental cause; children have not had much exposure to environmental carcinogens, less risky health behaviors (ex. smoking) |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of cancer deaths in the world? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main cause of lung cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What major type of lung cancer is the following?
Includes large cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma. Smoking is the single most important risk factor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What major type of lung cancer is the following?
Tumor arising from neuroendocrine cells in the lungs. Often found in smokers. SIADH associated. Highly malignant and metastatic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is small cell carcinoma most likely to metastisize to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are these clinical manifestations symptomatic of?
Chronic cough, bloody sputum, pain, SOB, low O2 sats, chest pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Malignant neoplasms of the blood and blood forming organs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cancer in children? |
|
Definition
| Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia |
|
|
Term
| What chromosome is involved in chronic myleogenous leukemia |
|
Definition
| Philadelphia chromosome (95%) |
|
|
Term
| What is the philadelphia chromosome? |
|
Definition
| Translocation of chromosome 9 and 22 which activates oncogenes. Found Chronic Myleogenous Leukemia (CML) |
|
|
Term
| What kind of cells replaced normal cells in leukemias? |
|
Definition
| Blast cells - immature leukocytes. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 main types of leukemias? |
|
Definition
1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Acute myleogenous leukemia
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Chronic myleogenous leukemia |
|
|
Term
| If malignancy occurs in immature cells, the leukemia is _____. If it occurs in differentiated cells the leukemia is ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two types of leukemia is the philadelphia chromosome found in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CLL can be caused by what virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| AML affects mainly _____. Prognosis is _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gene that the philadelphia chromosome is associated with? |
|
Definition
| BCR-ABL (dominant - oncogene) |
|
|
Term
| Malignant disorder of the lymphoid tissue often characterized by the painless, progressive enlargement of cervial lymph nodes. Usually starts on one side. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hodgkins lymphoma affects ____ populations whereas non-hodgkins lymphoma affects ____ populations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the hallmark of Hodgkins lymphoma? |
|
Definition
| Reed-Sternberg Cells (Owl's Eye) |
|
|
Term
| Binucleated giant cell (macrophage) |
|
Definition
| Reed Sternberg cell. Hallmark of Hodgkins Lymphoma |
|
|
Term
Staging of Hodgkins Lymphoma:
1 node involvement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Staging of Hodgkins Lymphoma:
2 or more nodes involved; same side of the body and above diagphram |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Staging of Hodgkins Lymphoma:
both side of diaphragm; same side of body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Staging of Hodgkins Lymphoma:
Anywhere in the body. Solid organ involvement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reed sternberg cells are present and EBV is a risk factor for what cancers? |
|
Definition
Hodgkins lymphoma
CLL (EBV) |
|
|
Term
| What are reed sternberg cells derived from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Identify the function of the supporting cell. CNS/PNS?
Glial cells |
|
Definition
| supporting cells in the CNS |
|
|
Term
Identify the function of the supporting cell. CNS/PNS?
Oligodendrocytes |
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Definition
| Provide mylenation in the CNS (in the brain). Promote the speed of nerve impulse conduction. |
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Term
Identify the function of the supporting cell. CNS/PNS?
Astrocytes |
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Definition
| Provide nutrition, oxygen, carbon dioxide, metabolites between vessels and neurons. Stimulate phagocytosis. Provide support to neural structures. CNS |
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Term
Identify the function of the supporting cell. CNS/PNS?
Ependymal Cells |
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Definition
| Line the ventricular system CNS |
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Term
Identify the function of the supporting cell. CNS/PNS?
Schwann Cells |
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Definition
| Stimulate myelin production and maintenance; PNS |
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Term
Identify the function of the supporting cell. CNS/PNS?
Satallite Cells |
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Definition
| Provide physical support of neurons; PNS |
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Term
Identify the function of the supporting cell. CNS/PNS?
Microglia |
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Definition
| Control phagocytosis in injured cells CNS |
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Term
Name the cell type and the system:
Control the myelin production and maintenance.
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Definition
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Term
Name the cell type and the system:
Provide nutrition, O2, Co2, stimulate phagocytosis |
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Definition
|
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Term
Name the cell type and the system:
Control phagocytosis of injured or damaged cells |
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Definition
|
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Term
Name the cell type and the system:
Line the ventricular system |
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Definition
|
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Term
Name the cell type and the system:
Produce myelin. Involved in production and maintainence |
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Definition
|
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Term
Name the cell type and the system:
Provide physical support of neurons |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| What are the two main divisions of the peripheral nervous system? |
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Definition
| Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems |
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Term
| Sensory neurons are also known as what? Where do they carry impulses? |
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Definition
| Afferent Neurons; carry impulses from receptors in the periphery to the brain and spinal cord in CNS |
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Term
| Motor Neurons are also known was what? Where do they carry impulses? |
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Definition
| Efferent Neurons; Carry signals away from brain and spinal cord to targets in the body that regulate activity. |
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Term
| What is the most abundant neuron type? |
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Definition
| Interneurons. These provide connections between neurons & transmit signals between afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor) neurons. |
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Term
| In the spinal cord and brain, white matter is composed of mainly what? Gray matter? |
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Definition
White = myelinated axon fibers
Gray = cell bodies |
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Term
| This contains ascending sensory neurons (carrying messages from periphery to CNS) & descending upper motor neurons (from brain to spinal cord) and lower motor neurons (from spinal cord to peripheral tissues) |
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Definition
| White matter (spinal cord) |
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Term
| This contains the ventral horn (containing lower motor neurons and axons leaving via ventral root) and dorsal horn (containing sensory neurons and axons entering from dorsal root) |
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Definition
| Gray matter (spinal cord) |
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Term
What type of motor neurons?
Originate in the motor region of the cerebral cortex of the brain. Carry info down to the other motor neurons. |
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Definition
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Term
What type of motor neurons?
Neurons located in the ventral horn of the spinal cord and anterior nerve roots or cranial nerve of the brainstem or cranial nerves with motor function |
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Definition
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Term
| Interneurons connect ____ with ______ |
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Definition
| Upper motor neurons with lower motor neurons |
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Term
Injury to what neurons can result in the following?
Can arise as result of a stroke, MS, or other acquired brain injury. Muscle weakness, decreased motor control, loss of fine mvmt, spasicity, Babinski sign |
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Definition
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Term
Injury to what neurons can result in the following?
Flaccid paralysis |
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Definition
|
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Term
| All voluntary mvmt relies on what neurons? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What are the nervous system responses to injury? |
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Definition
| Degeneration of axons, demyelination, and neuropathy |
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Term
| What are the 3 mechanisms of injury to the CNS? (brain and spinal cord) |
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Definition
1. Traumatic Injury
2. Ischemic Injury
3. Excitotoxic (Excitatory response/pressure) |
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Term
| Auto accidents, falls, sports related accidents, shaken baby syndrome all result in what type of injury? |
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Definition
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Term
| Force of the acceleration impact causes injury to the tissue in the local area. This is known as what? The deceleration impact leads to injury on the opposite side of the skull known as what? |
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Definition
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Term
| This type of injury may lead to seizure activity, concussion, contusion, hematoma, edema, or skull fracture. ICP, resp depression or failure, herniation of brainstem may occur |
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Definition
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Term
| Distinguish between primary and secondary injuries as related to TBI |
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Definition
Primary: what actually caused by axonal trauma due to the injury in the first place ex. blunt force trauma
Secondary: Body's response to the trauma. ex. inflammation, edema, vascular changes, etc. |
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Term
| These injuries are due to fractures, contusions, or compression of the vertebral column. May also stem from trauma to the head or neck. |
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Definition
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Term
| Spinal cord injuries occur most often where? |
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Definition
Where the spine is most flexible
C5-7; T 12; L1 |
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Term
| Injury to the spinal cord often extends how far? |
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Definition
| 2 segments above and below site of damage. |
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Term
| When neural tissue is damaged, what is it replaced with? |
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Definition
|
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Term
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Definition
| directed towards specific injury. Surgery, reduction of ICP, pain control, anticonvulsant meds, respiratory support, antibiotics to prevent or treat infection. |
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Term
| How are spinal cord injuries treated? |
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Definition
| Spinal immobilization, corticosteroids (to lessen inflammation), traction, casting, surgery |
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Term
| This type of injury occurs in the CNS when there is an inadequte perfusion to neurologic tissue, resulting in impaired oxygenation |
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Definition
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Term
| What are some treatments for ischemic injury? |
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Definition
| Management of ICP, insertion of a stent to restore perfusion, thrombolytic therapy to dissolve clot, anticoagulation therapy to prevent future clot development |
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Term
Local or Global?
Thrombosis in a vessel, Embolism from a thrombus originating in a distant site, or a small hemorrhage |
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Definition
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|
Term
Local or Global?
Inadequate blood supply to meet the needs of the brain tissue. Ex. hypoxia during code, profound hemorrhage |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Injury to brain neurons may result from the effects of neurotransmitters such as glutamate. Neurons that are easily depolarized may cause altered transmission of signals. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| This type of injury may result from the inability to meet the metabolic demands of the cells. |
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Definition
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Term
| Decerebrate and decorticate posturing is seen with what type of injury? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| This posturing includes flexed arms, internally rotated knees, and flexed feet |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This posturing includes extended arms, flexed wrists, flexed feet, clenched jaw |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main excitatory transmitter in the body? |
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Definition
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Term
| When injuries occur in brain, how do they manifest? |
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Definition
| On the opposite side of the body |
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Term
| These types of injuries occur from increased CSF volume, cerebral edema, and space occupying lesions. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes increased CSF? |
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Definition
| increased production or decreased absorption of CSF |
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|
Term
| What two factors can reduce to accomodate ICP according to monro kellie doctrine? |
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Definition
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Term
| PNS: Somatic Nervous system is under what control? |
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Definition
| Voluntary control. Ex coordination of body mvmt, reception of external stimuli, |
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Term
| PNS Autonomic nervous system includes what? |
|
Definition
Sympathetic "fight or flight" 'scared'
Parasympathetic
Controls involuntary functions of organs. |
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|
Term
| Spinal nerves carry information to and from particular body regions known as what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| When degeneration of the axon is caused by a crushing injury; known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This occurs when the injury affects cells in distal areas of the body. Is regeneration possible? |
|
Definition
| Distal axonopathy; yes if the cell body and proximal axons are not damaged |
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|
Term
| When axonal degeneration occurs because of damage to the cell body, this is known as what? Is regeneration possible? |
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Definition
| Neuropathy; greatly reduced |
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|
Term
| Clinical manifestations of damage to peripheral nerves are called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pyramidal motor system? |
|
Definition
Upper motor neurons.
Contains the lateral and ventral corticospinal tracts.
*Lateral controls fine motor mvmt. of limbs and crosses at medulla
** Ventral controls proximal muscles (chest, abs) DOES NOT CROSS. |
|
|
Term
| What does the extra pyramidal do? |
|
Definition
Modulation of motor function in UMN's
Reduces erratic motions. Maintains muscle tone and stablity of the trunk. Association with the basal ganglia. |
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|
Term
| The blood pathway in the brain in the CNS |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| When BBB becomes leaky with inflammation, _____ migrate into brain/spinal cord. Not normally found in CSF |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What fills in dead space in brain when damage occurs? |
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Definition
| Astrocytes activated and make glial glue to fill in space. This leads to scar tissue formation. |
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|
Term
| Secondary injuries in TBI occur due to what? |
|
Definition
| Axon stretching; cytoskeleton is disrupted |
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|
Term
| What system is dominant in spinal cord injury? (@ or above t6) |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| An injury above mid brain is what type of posturing? |
|
Definition
| Decorticate (arms in towards core) |
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|
Term
| An injury below mid brain is what type of posturing? |
|
Definition
| Decerebrate (arms relaxed) |
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|
Term
| Is the CNS or PNS more prone to injury? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Mononeuropathy v. polyneuropathy? |
|
Definition
Mono - one nerve or nerve group damage
Poly - many different nerves damaged in the body |
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|
Term
| Focal degeneration of the myelin sheath with sparing of the axon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Before any healing can take place in axonal degeneration, what must first take place? |
|
Definition
| Clearing of cellular debris by macrophages |
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|
Term
| Disease of CNS neurons characterized by degeneration of myelin; progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting nerves in CNS and peripheral nervous system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the right side of the spinal cord is injured; how will it affect body? What is this called? |
|
Definition
| Brown sequad; right will experience loss of voluntary motor control, left will experience loss of pain and temp. |
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|
Term
| This can be ischemic or direct injury to the front of the spinal cord. How does this present? Name? |
|
Definition
| Anterior cord syndrome; Loss of motor power, pain, temp sensation. Still has vibration and sense of touch. |
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|
Term
| In this pt. experiences loss of motor power and sensation in arms, incomplete loss in abdomen. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Knowing where things are without looking. Walking up stairs |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 sensory receptors? |
|
Definition
Nociceptors - pain
Thermoreceptors - hot/cold
Mechanoreceptors - tactile, pressure, proprioception, hearing |
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|
Term
1st, 2nd, or 3rd?
Communicate from periphery to CNS (spinal cord)
ex. finger to spinal cord |
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Definition
|
|
Term
1st, 2nd, or 3rd?
Communicate between spinal cord and thalamus
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|
Definition
|
|
Term
1st, 2nd, or 3rd?
Communicate from thalamus to cerebral cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The higher the order of neurons, the more/less they have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These fibers are large, mylinated, and fast. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Name the A fiber (large, mylentaed, and fast)
proprioception |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Name the A fiber (large, mylentaed, and fast)
touch |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Name the A fiber (large, mylentaed, and fast)
fast pain, well localized |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What type of fiber are the following?
small, unmylinated, slow conduction |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 sensory pathways? |
|
Definition
Discriminative (light touch, pressure, vibration) ** CROSSES AT MEDULLA
Anterolateral (anterior and lateral spinothalamic tracts) pain and temperature & crude touch. |
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|
Term
| What is the gate control system? Stimulation of what fibers "close the gate"? |
|
Definition
Substantia geletanosia. Large type A beta and alpha fibers
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