| Term 
 
        | What are the two main goals in treating musculoskeletal disorders? |  | Definition 
 
        | Relieve pain and maintain function |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What don't you put heat on an acute injury? |  | Definition 
 
        | Because it will cause the injury to swell more |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long after an acute injury until it's OK to use heat? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Localized pain can often be treated with topical therapy |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is lidoderm indicated for? |  | Definition 
 
        | post herpatic neuralgia, not useful as a deep pain relived |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the drug of choice for musculoskeletal pain without inflammation? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug should be used for musculoskeletal pain with inflammation? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is an acute musculoskeletal injury? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does RICE stand for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rest, Ice, compression, Elevation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What connects bone to bone? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug is no more effective than APAP for musculoskeletal pain but can cause GI side effects therefore shouldn't be used in musculoskeletal injurty? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | NSAIDs are preffered of APAP in musculoskeletal disorders when what is present? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This should not be applied during the acute musculoskeletal injury phase |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the drug of choice for mild to mderate pain in musculoskeletal injury when inflammation is not present? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What connects muscle to bone? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the partial or complex tear of a ligament? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The cornerstone for nonpharmacologic therapy  in acute musculoskeletal injury in the first 48-72hr is known as what? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What cream contains the same irritatns found in hot peppers? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A strain involves damage to what? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Counterirritates that produce redness on application are |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ehlers-danlos syndrome (EDS) mostly affects what two portions of the body? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Studies suggest that illicit HGH abuse has become common among what demographic? |  | Definition 
 
        | Young american male weightlifters |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Long term supraphysilogic HGH levels may increase the risk for certain types of what? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What syndrome can affect the heart, blood vessels, lungs, eyes, bones, ligaments.  people with this synd may be unusually tall and thing w/ long amrs and legs |  | Definition 
 
        | Marfan syndrome Ed Welch syndrome
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Longterm supraphysilogic levels of HGH may have adverse effects on what 3 systems? |  | Definition 
 
        | Respiratory Metabolic
 Cardiovascular
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Acromgalic patients have mortality rates ______ times  that of the general population |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Many non-weightlifters older than 40 get HGH prescriptions from _______ clinics, compounding pharmacies and other illegal sources |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what disorder causes bones to break easily even for no obvious reason |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | National Organization of Rare Diseases |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | pharmaceutical agent that has been developed specifically to treat a rare medical condition, the condition itself being referred to as an orphan disease. The assignment of orphan status to a disease and to any drugs developed to treat it is a matter of public policy in many countries, and has resulted in medical breakthroughs that may not have otherwise been achieved due to the economics of drug research and development. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug therapy might be useful in Marfan's life expectancy (especially cardiac) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What condition causes skin hyperelasticity and joint hyper mobility? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is an inherited disorder of elastic fibers in skin, eye and vasculature? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pseudoxanthoma elasticum (very wrinkly and nasty)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does hyper HGH cause before ephypiseal plate closure? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does hyper HGH cause after ephypiseal plate closure? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What might you use to suppress HGH? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dopamine agonists, somatostatin analogs and GH receptor antagoists (Cabergoline, ocreotide, lantreotide, pegvisomant)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What syndrome is a complete lack of growth hormone? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What might you do to treat dwarfism? |  | Definition 
 
        | cortisol, thyroid, GH, sex steroids |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Slow growth rate, no adolescent growth spurt, no HGH deficency |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What disease is caused by a lack or alteration of Chromosome 15? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is indicative of prader-willi? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inability to suck (born awesome?) constant appetite, xs weight gain
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When would you not give GH in prader willie? |  | Definition 
 
        | very obese sleep apnea
 resp infxn
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is considered to be "idiopathic short stature"? |  | Definition 
 
        | <4'1" at 10yo or more than 2sd below ave height |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what muscle relaxant is a contrlled substance in the state of wv? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what joints are most commonly affected by osteoarthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Weight bearing joints (Hips and Knees) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens to the joint space in osteoarthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Joint space becomes smaller/bone on bone this destroys cartilage |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are risk factors for OA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Age, damage or injury (RA and Gout), obesity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the signs and symptoms of OA? |  | Definition 
 
        | loss of mobility, pain, stiffness |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What lab test might be useful in OA diagnosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | X-ray, no real definative diagnostic test |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the goals of therapy for OA? |  | Definition 
 
        | treat pain, improve QOL, improve movement |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When do you get a knee replacement? |  | Definition 
 
        | When you can't stand the pain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some nonpharmacologic approches to OA managmenet? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lifestyle mod- aerobic AND strength training Weightloss
 Heat before activity
 Cold after activity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | First line pharmacologic therapy for OA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acetaminophen when no inflammation is present |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When do you go from APAP to NSAID? |  | Definition 
 
        | When you exceed 4gm APAP, then it's not safer than NSAID so use the NSAID |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long must you be on, at or near the 4gm tylenol dose to determine it needs to be changed? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The major side effects of acetaminophen |  | Definition 
 
        | Liver, worsens renal fxn, inc BP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the antidote for tylenol toxicity? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When might you lower the max dose of tylenol? |  | Definition 
 
        | When someone is a declared heavy drinker |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do you give a pt after tylenol? What should you look at along with that therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | NSAID Concerns- GI assesment and CV system assement
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What might you give a pt with GI problems when on NSAID? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What form of COX does all NSAIDs block? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | GI mucosa, kidney (renal SE), platelets (bleeding) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the process of NSAIDs effect on renal perfusion |  | Definition 
 
        | NSAID causes unopposed constriction at the afferent arteriole resulting in decreased blood flow to the glomerulus thus decreasing glomerular filtartion pressure and perfusion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Primarily in response to inflammation, that is why COX2 specific is useful.  ALSO FOUND IN KIDNEY so they are not safer in renal dysfxn |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a side effect of NSAID involving fluid levels? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the benefit of COX2 inhibitors? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Non are any better than the other |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the risk factors that might predict higher GI side effects of NSAID? |  | Definition 
 
        | GI bleed in combination Age (>60)
 Hemophilia
 Dose related- higher dose worse
 Steroid use
 Smoking
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Who is more likely to get the renal side effects of NSAIDS? (risk factors) |  | Definition 
 
        | Prexisting renal insuficency Consumant ACE/ARB
 Heart failure (LVDF)
 Dehydration
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why might an NSAID trigger a drug interaction in computor? (2 most common) |  | Definition 
 
        | Offsetting hypertensive effects Addative effects w/ anticoags (risk of bleeding (pradxa, warfarin etc))
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or false COX2 inhibition is more effective in pain relief than COX1 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the advantage of COX2 inhibition? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How can you offset the cardiovascular risk of COX2 inhibitors? |  | Definition 
 
        | ASA, but this nulifies GI preservation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does it pay off to take COX2 inhibitors if a person in on ASA? |  | Definition 
 
        | NO!  The cardiovascular risk is there, with ASA you already have the GI issues, just put them on a COX1 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What's the site of action for motrin/NSAIDS? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where does ASA work?  What's the problem with it? |  | Definition 
 
        | COX1 on the platelet.  Competes w/ COX1 NSAIDS |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How should a person take ASA and NSAID when taken together? |  | Definition 
 
        | ASA 1st!  NSAID 1/2hr-1hr later otherwise ASA loses it's cardio protection.  This works because ASA is irreversible |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the proposed mechanism of cardiovascular harm in COX2 inhibitors? (What tips the balance of thromboxane A2?) |  | Definition 
 
        | Prostacycline (the anti of thromboxane A2) which is an antiplatelet and vasodilator.  Prostacycline prodxn is COX2 dependant.  Thus Prostcyclin is inhibited and there's proportionally more thromboxane A2 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What might you use in a OA PT who's failed APAP and has GI problems? |  | Definition 
 
        | Stuck w/ an NSAID, add PPI |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why might you not use ASA for pain control? |  | Definition 
 
        | No better pain relief but alot more GI |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | glucosamine/controitin NIH trials show what? |  | Definition 
 
        | No difference from placebo- probably shouldn't recomend unless already taken and "responded well" |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does placebo show any improvemnt in OA? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are your pharmacologic options for treating OA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tylenol, tramadol, NSAID, COX2, topical analgesic, dietary supplementation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Glucosamine and condroitin dose |  | Definition 
 
        | 500mg TID/1500mg qd of glucosamine and 400-800mg TID Condroitin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | APAP failed, high NSAID and still have pain(OA).  What are the other options? |  | Definition 
 
        | Intraarticular corticosteroid Tramadol (esp asa allergies) Topical- esp hands (capsasin) Avoid narcotics |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is kyphoidscoliosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Humback w/ a curved spine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens when you administer sex hormones to a young person? |  | Definition 
 
        | Will cause closure of the epiphysial plates |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do you tell if there is inflammation (3 things) |  | Definition 
 
        | reddness, warmth and swelling |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do you tell if you can help someone or if the need to be reffered? |  | Definition 
 
        | if acute symptoms last longer than 7-10 days, or if sx worsen or if they subside and return.  If there's deformity in the joint, dislocation, broken, back pain w/ radiating/burning pain or difficulty urinating |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When advising elderly in putting heat or cold on skin what is important to remeber? |  | Definition 
 
        | Not to put in direct contact w/ skin use a cloth or something |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do you wrap an ace bandage? |  | Definition 
 
        | Start distal and wrap medial |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the age cut off for reye's syndrome? |  | Definition 
 
        | 16.  No one 16 and under should get ASA |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is something you should be cautioned of with Mg salicylate? |  | Definition 
 
        | Renal impairment may cause Mg buildup |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the difference between topical and transdermal? |  | Definition 
 
        | Topical- skin deep Transdermal- systemic via dermal absorption
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why do you not want to put a heating pad or heat etc on a topical drug? |  | Definition 
 
        | Speeds absorption, changes pharmacology by changing rate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is important points about capsasin cream? |  | Definition 
 
        | Wear gloves when applying, wash hands thoroughly, don't touch eyes mouth or nose after applying |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Inflmation of the synovial fluid in the joints |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | hands and feet  (distal joints) Most often in the morning
 persists more than 1hr
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Is RA systemic or localized? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What age group does RA normally present? |  | Definition 
 
        | Younger/non-geriatric when first signs appear (35-50) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are characteristics of OA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Wt bearing joints, uni or bilateral, asymetrical, local inflamation, no systemic complications, age >65 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | RA immunogenic process.  Tcells presented w/ antigen do what? |  | Definition 
 
        | Stimulate B and Tlymphocytes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do B-lymphocytes do in RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | make antibodies (RF and antiCCP) that cause inflammtion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do T-lymphoctes produce in RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | cytokines and macrophages |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do macrophages do in RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cause inflammation by way of cytokines |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the cytokines involeved in RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | IL-6, IL-17, IL-1, TNF alpha All are pro-inflammatory cytotoxins (ones that cause damage)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 4 main risk factors for RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Female (3x more likely) Age
 Family history
 smoking
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What decresase the risk of RA? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can RA cause in the blood vessels? |  | Definition 
 
        | Vasculitis, inflammation w/in the vessel due to cytokines.  Causes inability to constrict or dilate and breaks down vessel walls |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What respiratory problem can RA cause? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pulmonary fibrosis, pulmonary effusions from RA |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What ocular disorder can RA cause? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the seven criteria to diagnose RA? (Not all RF pt will have the last 3) |  | Definition 
 
        | Joint stiffness longer than 1hr 3 or more joint areas affected
 Arthritis of the hands
 Symmetric joint involvment
 Presence of HA nodules
 Elevated RA RF
 Radiographic changes
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which 4 criteria of the 7 for diagnosis in RA MUST be present? (ALL RA pt will have these) |  | Definition 
 
        | Morning stiffness >1hr 3 or more joint areas
 Arthritis of hands
 Symetrical
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long must the 4 primary criteia for RA be present for a diagnosis of RA? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the three main types of deformities in LONG STANDING RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Swan neck Bootenier
 Ulnardeviation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the treatment goals of RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Relieve pain improve quality of life
 maintain structure
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is first line for RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Methotrexate!  Unless contraindicated |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are contraindications to Methotrexate? |  | Definition 
 
        | CrCl Pregnacy
 Chronic liver disease
 Immuno suppresion
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can you add to initial treatment of RA (Methotrexate) to help with symptomatic control? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Will NSAIDs help reverse RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | No, it will only help control sx, pain in joints etc |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Important side effects of NSAIDs |  | Definition 
 
        | GI intolerance (use PPI) Fluid retntion
 HTN
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some comlications of steroids use in RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Osteoporosis, peptic ulcer disease, wt gain, buffalo hump, moon faced, inc risk of infxn, hyperglycemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the non-biologic DMARD of choice? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where does MTX action occure in RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dihydofolate reductase inhibitor which inhibits the formation of cytokines |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When should pt begin MTX uppon diganosis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should be administered w/ MTX and why? |  | Definition 
 
        | Folic acid, because folate reductase is being inhibited thus reducing folic acid prodxn |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are adverse rxn of MTX? |  | Definition 
 
        | pulmonary fibrosis, hepatotoxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two non-biologic DMARDs are used second line (but seperately either/or) to MTX? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hydroxychloroquine and Sulfasalixine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where is Steroids site of action in RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | tcells and inflammation both |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how often should hepatic monitoring be done with MTX? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is an important thing to monitor with Sulfasalizine? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Should sulfasalizine be used longtem? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a benefit of Hydroxqychloroquine? |  | Definition 
 
        | No renal tox, hepatotox or bone marrow supression.  Not a great drug for RA though |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long must a person be on hydroxychlorquine before you can determin it a failed therapy? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should hydroxychloroquine be taken with? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs are non-biologic DMARDs? |  | Definition 
 
        | MTX, hydroxychloroquine, sulfasalazine, leflunamide |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs are biologic DMARDs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab, golimumab, cetolizumab, anakinra, abatacept, rituximab,anti- IL-6 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs are TNA alpha agonsits? |  | Definition 
 
        | Etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab, golimumab, cetolizumab |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is a IL-1 inhibitor? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is a Co-stimulation modulator? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is an Anti-CD20? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does leflunomide do? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inhibits T-lymphocytes.  This shuts down the entire inflammatory process |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Leflunamide interaction/problems |  | Definition 
 
        | Cholestyramine- removes drug from body Also don't use in hepatic disease or alcholics
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the order of drugs used to treat RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | MTX then Sulfasalzine/hydroxqycholoquine/leflunamide.  IF pt wants/has money they can go straight from MTX to biologic DMARDs though |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do TNF antagonists work? |  | Definition 
 
        | Binds to soluble or membrane bound or bother TNF alpha preventing it from being able to bind to TNF alpha receptors. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What conditions should etanercept not be used with? |  | Definition 
 
        | Heart failure (fluid ret) MS (demyelanting neuropathy)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does preventing TNF alpha from binding to the TNF alpha receptor site do? |  | Definition 
 
        | Eliminates abnormal B-lymphocyte activity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which biologic DMARDs act at soluble and bound TNF? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cetolizumab, Golimumab, Adalimumab, Infliximab, Etanercept  (ALL TNF alphas!) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which biologic DMARD needs to be given w/ MTX and why? |  | Definition 
 
        | Infliximab, because it's partly murine AB (chimeric) so there's mouse components.  Needs to be immunosupressed |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What therapy might you consider coadministering with all TNF alph inhibitors to lessen inj site rxns? |  | Definition 
 
        | H1/H2 receptor antagonists and corticosteroids to reduce problems |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | TNF alpha antaogists will be the first ones to use/add on after MTX has failed |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of drug is Anakinra and whom is it indicated in? |  | Definition 
 
        | IL-1 antagonist, used in pt who've failed non-biologic and a TNF alpha antagonist.  Don't use w/ TNF antagonist because of increased infxn risk |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of drug is abatacept? |  | Definition 
 
        | Costimulation modulator- which prevents tcell from signaling the lymphoctese and stop response from antigen. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When might a patient be put on abatacept in RA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Moderate to sever disease (RA) after pt fails MTX/non-biologic and TNF alpha  Can be administered w/ TNF alpha though |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What RA drugs are relatively safe in pregnancy? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is an anti-CD20? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should be coadministered with Rituximab? |  | Definition 
 
        | Methotrexate, it's chimeric so it has murine components |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Causes B-lymphocyte depletion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two drugs might you administer w/ MTX and why? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rituximab and Infliximab because they are chimeric |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Rituximab can cause inj site rxns.  What might you coadminister to prevent this? |  | Definition 
 
        | Corticosteroids and H1/H2 antagonists |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When might you use Rituximab? |  | Definition 
 
        | Failed MTX/nonbiologic and TNF alpha |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of drug tocilizusamba? |  | Definition 
 
        | anti-IL-6 antibody.  Binds at IL-6 preventing binding to receptor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When might you use tocilizumab and what can it cause an increase in? |  | Definition 
 
        | When MTX/non-biologic and TNF fail Might increase LFTs (hepatic monitoring q6mo)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy for RA? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long must someone DC MTX before trying to become pregnant? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long must someone DC leflunamide before attempting to become pregnant? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What category are NSAIDs in the 1st and 2nd trimest? How about the 3rd? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cocroft and gault equation for CrCl |  | Definition 
 
        | ((140-age)x wt(kg))/ (SrCr(mg/dl)x72) multiply by 0.85 in women
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Osteoporosis is a scilent disease |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Risk factors for osteoporosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Age (men-70(unless other RF) , women-postmenopausal(surg included)) Family Hx
 Smoking
 Alcohol use
 Female
 Diet (low Ca and Vit D)
 Small frame
 Caucasian
 Previous fracture
 Low BMI
 Low bone mineral density
 Chronic glucocoriticoid
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why is Vit D vital to osteoprosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Because Ca can't be absorbed with out it! Also people have much lower vitamin D levels than once though. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What level of glucocorticoid use is considered to be of risk? |  | Definition 
 
        | High oral- 5mg prednisone Inhaled oral (not as important as oral, monitor, pseudo RF)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What medications/medical condidtions that can increase risk of osteoporosis |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does osteoporisis occure? |  | Definition 
 
        | one of two imbalances: Building slows down and break down is maint at same level OR Building is the same but increased in breakdown |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What process does most of our drugs target in osteoporosis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | At what age is the bone in the body most dense? |  | Definition 
 
        | 25-35, this is what age group is used to determine a bone density/ Tscore |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the only time your Tscore and Zscore the same? |  | Definition 
 
        | person of same gender w/o OP about 30yr old |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the presentation of OP? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pain, usually at the site of a fracture/microfracture W/o fracture is asymptomatic
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the Tscore for diagnosis of OP? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Identified cause (Glucocorticoids, medication, medical conditions etc, RF present) this is most of your pts |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Idiopathic, no known cause |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is considered normal in T scores? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the Tscore range considered "Osteopenia"? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Fracture assement for risk ages 40-90 gives 10yr probability of fracture Useful as a screening tool
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommended Ca intake? Men age 65>, Women 51> and postmenopausal, Women >65 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1500mg 1000 when on estrogen, 1500mg no on est
 1500
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the vitamin D daily req for pt age less than 50 and greater than 50 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why can't pt take 1500mg Ca at once? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How much elemental Ca can the body absorb at one time? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Os-cal products have how much elemtal Ca? |  | Definition 
 
        | 500mg except "ultra"=600mg |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cacarbonate only has about 40% elemental by mg weight |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Caltrate has how much elemental Ca? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Citrical has roughly how much elemental Ca |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is important to counsel pt about with Ca carbonate? |  | Definition 
 
        | GERD/PPI notice that PPI decreases the absorption of Ca carbonate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you improve absorption of Ca carbonate? |  | Definition 
 
        | Eatfood, that increases GI secretion of acid |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is another option for OP pt on PPI to get Ca other than Calcium carbonate |  | Definition 
 
        | Calcium Citrate, no acidic absorption needed! |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some Ca supplemented foods? |  | Definition 
 
        | Orange juice, butter, brocolli, etc |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the importance of fall risk in OP pt? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a risk for fall in alot of elderly pt's home? |  | Definition 
 
        | RUGS! (really? did we really go there in class? ugh) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is first line treatment for OP? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs are bisphosphonates? |  | Definition 
 
        | Alendronate, ibandronate, risdronate, zoledronic acid |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is dosing for Alendronate (fosamax)? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the dosing for Ibandronate (Boniva)? |  | Definition 
 
        | 150mg PO 1 monthly 3mg/3ml inj
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the dosing for Risedronate (Actonel) |  | Definition 
 
        | 5mg qd 35mg qw
 75mg two consecutive days monthly
 150mg once monthly
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Zolendronic acid (Zometa) dosing |  | Definition 
 
        | 5mg/100ml IV infusion once yearly |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs are estrogen receptor modulators? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is raloxifene indicated for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Postmenopausal osteoporosis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the dosing of Raloxifene (Evistia) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a calcitonin supplement? |  | Definition 
 
        | Calcidonin salmon/micalcin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Micalcin/calcidonin-salmon dosing |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is important to note about Micalcin dosing? |  | Definition 
 
        | Alternate nostrils daily for nasal spray |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the dosing for Teriparatide (Forteo) |  | Definition 
 
        | 20mcg SQ daily in the thight or abdominal wall |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What OP drugs might you use in men? |  | Definition 
 
        | Alendronate/risedronate first line Teritide second line
 Micalcin third line
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the important counseling points for bisphosphonates? |  | Definition 
 
        | GI is most common SE.  Can't take food to help with this though! (Decreases absorption) If you eat w/ it you might as well pitch it.  Take on empty stomach, first thign in the morning with a full glass of water, no additional medications |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the most common side effect of raloxifen? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug class is reloxifene in? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What might happen if you use calcitonin in the same nostil consecutive days? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increased nasal side effects (nose bleed, dry nostil, congestion) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the concern with longterm use of bisphosphonates? |  | Definition 
 
        | Necrosis of the jaw (rare).  Usually seen in IV drugs more than orals |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Nonpharmacologic things you can do for osteoporosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Exercise (Wt bearing), Aerobic exercise will not strengthen bone mineral density. Increse Ca in diet, fall prevention, quit smoking, Ca/Vit D supplementation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is first line treatment of OP in both men and women? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bisphosphonate (only 2 for men) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is second line treatment for OP in both men and women? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is third line treatment for OP in women? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is fourth line for OP in women? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a nice side effect of Calcitonin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decreases pain in the spine, better to go w/ bisphosphonate and treat the pain but if DQ from bis this is good |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some contraindications in bisphosphonate therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | Can't stand or sit up for 30min |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is a big side effect of Ca to remeber? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What will an X-ray show for osteopenia/OP? |  | Definition 
 
        | A black spot where it's supposed to be white |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Painful, arthritic type of pain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs might cause gout? |  | Definition 
 
        | Thiazide type diuretics and Niacin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some risk factors for gout? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Type of arthtiris caused be uric acid crystal build up |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Severe pain Swelling
 Warmth
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What might a tophi indicate in gout? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does gout to do WBC count? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you determine if a pt is an over producer or an under excreter? |  | Definition 
 
        | 24hr urine collection >800mg uric acid = over producer
 <600mg uric acid = underextreter
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the disired outcomes in gout? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rapid/effective pain relief Maint joint fxn
 prevent disease complications
 provide coset effective therapy
 improve QOL
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Non-pharmacologic therapy for gout pts |  | Definition 
 
        | Immobilization Ice
 Hydration
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the pharmcologic therapy options for gout? |  | Definition 
 
        | NSAID Colchicine (Colcrys!)
 Corticosteroids
 Antihyperuricemics
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some NSAIDs used for gout? |  | Definition 
 
        | Fenoprofen, Flurbiprofen, Ibuprofen, Indomethacin, Ketoprofen, Meclofenamate, Naproxen, Piroxicam, Sulindac, Celecoxib, Meloxicam |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 100mg QID D1 then 50mg QID thereafter |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 750mg initially then 250mg q8h |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Colcrys (Colchicine) dosing |  | Definition 
 
        | 1.2mg at onset and 0.6mg 1hr later |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Corticosteroid injections for gout |  | Definition 
 
        | Methylprednisolone, prednisone, triamcinolone 10-40-60-60
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What three drugs are considered antihyperuricemics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Allopurinol, Febuxostat, Probenecid |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the dosing for allopurinol |  | Definition 
 
        | CrCl > 90ml/min = 300mg qd CrCl 60-90ml/min = 200mg qd
 CrCl 30-60ml/min = 100mg qd
 CrCl >30ml/min  = 50mg qd
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How would you adjust dosing of Allopurinol? |  | Definition 
 
        | Adjust based on uric acid levels with a max of 800mg/day |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Febuxostat dosing for gout |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Febuxostat dosing for gout |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug works well for underexceters? |  | Definition 
 
        | Probenicid.  Blocks tubular reabsorption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is important to note in respect to renal fxn and probenecid? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for acute gout in pt with normal renal fxn and no ulcer risk? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1st line- NSAID 2nd line- Colchicine
 Consider corticosteroid
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for acute gout in pt w/ normal renal fxn and at risk for GI ulcer? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for gout in pt with renal insuficency and a risk for GI ulcer? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When might you consider prophylactic treatment for gout? |  | Definition 
 
        | 2 or more atacks/yr OR tophi present OR joint errosion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for chronic gout with renal insufficency OR uric acid stones? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for chronic gout in pt with no renal fxn problems and no uric acid stones? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1st line- Allopurinol 2nd line- Probencid |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What form of hyperuricemia is allopurinol treating for? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What's the MOA of Allopurinol? |  | Definition 
 
        | inhibits xanthine oxidase which blocks oxidation of hypoxanthine to xanthine to uric acid |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug might you consider for a pt w/ HTN and gout? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug might you consider for pt w/ gout and dyslipidemia |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two drugs for treating other disorders have hypouricemic effects? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is notable about uloric/febuxostat? |  | Definition 
 
        | No dosage adjustment for mild to mod renal dysfxn |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should be used along with Febuxostat/uloric? for how long? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why should a pt be on colchicine or NSAID for 3-6mo during initation of Uloric? |  | Definition 
 
        | because of potency/rapid uric acid rdxn which causes other problems |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does febuxostat/uloric work? |  | Definition 
 
        | xanthine oxidase inhibitor.  Inhibits the pathway leading to uric acid prodxn. Totally unrelated to allopurinol, but same MOA |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two drugs are at risk for potentiation from concament dosing with Allopurinol? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two drugs are at risk for potentiation from concament dosing with Allopurinol? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Azathioprine and Mercaptopurine metabolism is inhibited by concomitant administration with what? What is the "fix" for this problem? |  | Definition 
 
        | Allopurinol Reduce dose by 75%
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is tumor lysis syndrome? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rapid cell destruction associated with chemo that results in higher uric acid content from breakdown of nucleotides/purines |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a very severe reaction that can occure with Allopurinol? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When can rxn on Allopurinol occure? |  | Definition 
 
        | Any time but normally the first 3mo |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should pt on probenecid be monitored for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Fever, nausea, rash.  Also significant urine decrease (more than 50% in 24h) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should you monitor for in allopurinol pt? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the diuretics that can increase likeliehood of gout? |  | Definition 
 
        | acetazolamide, bumetanide, chlorthalidone, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, indapamide, metolazone, thiazides, triamterene |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What immunosuppresants might increase the likelihood of gout occuring? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What lipid altering drug might cause increased probability of gout? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name three other drugs that can cause gout |  | Definition 
 
        | ethambutol, levodopa, pyrazinamide |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should pt increase when taking anti-hyperuricemics (especially probenicid(renal))? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What might you use to treat tumor lysis syndrome? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What lab might you monitor uloric/fuboxestat for? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why do you never use IV colchicine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Horrible toxicity/side effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the systemic toxicity problems for colchicine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Myopathy, bone marrow suppression and neutropenia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why isn't colchicine normally used 1st line? |  | Definition 
 
        | Toxicity/serious side effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some common side effects of colchicine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Nause and vomiting 80% of the time |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is it best to start gout treatment? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some side effects of corticosteroids? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increased appetite, hyperglycemia, stimulation/wired |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do you do for asymptomatic gout? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Can low dose ASA cause gout? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some long term effects of gout? |  | Definition 
 
        | joint destruction, tophi, nephrolithiasis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a really new formulation of antihyperuricemic drug? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the role of krystexxa in gout? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is krystexxa administered and why is this significant |  | Definition 
 
        | IV, because most IV gout drugs historically have anaphylactic rxns |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the black box warning for Krystexxa? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the starting dose for allopurinol? |  | Definition 
 
        | 100mg qd titrating up according to response (serum uric acid level at goal or no more gout symptoms) |  | 
        |  |