Term
| Carrier of genetic information |
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Definition
| Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) |
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Term
| Determined the structure of DNA |
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Definition
| James Watson and Francis Crick |
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Term
| Determined the fact that in a DNA molecule the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine. Considered to be a universal law |
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Definition
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Term
| Within the limits of experimental error, the ratios of A/T and G/C are equal to ______ |
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Definition
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Term
| The purine nitrogenous bases _________ and ____________, the pyrimidine nitrogenous bases ____________ and __________, the pentose sugar deoxyribose, and phosphoric acid are the components of DNA |
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Definition
| Adenine, guanine; cytosine, thymine |
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Term
| Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is composed of the same building blocks as DNA, except that the pyrimidine _________ is substituted for thymine and the pentose sugar ribose is present rather than deoxyribose |
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Definition
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Term
| All carbon atoms associated with the pentose sugars are characterized by ________ ________, whereas all carbon atoms of the nitrogenous bases are _____ _____________ |
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Definition
| Prime numbers, whole numbers |
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Term
| For both DNA and RNA the purine and pyrimidine nitrogenous bases are linked to the deoxribose or ribose at the __________ carbon atom to form nucleosides, whereas the phosphate is attached to the sugars at the ________ carbon atom to form nucleotides |
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Definition
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Term
| DNA and RNA are linear polymers in which successive nucleoside residues are linked to one another through _________,_________- phosphodiester bridges |
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Definition
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Term
| X-ray diffraction patterns of crystalline DNA revealed the presence of a _______ ________ that indicated a stacking of purine and pyrimidine bases at distance of 3.4 A |
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Definition
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Term
| The distance of a single twist of the double helix is ________ and the molecule is _______ wide |
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Definition
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Term
| The two strands of the DNA molecule are _________________, which means that the polarity of one strand is oriented opposite to that of the opposite strand. Each strand of DNA contains a sequence of nucleotides that is exactly complementary to the nucleotide sequence of its partner strand |
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Definition
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Term
| The nitrogenous bases are always arranged in such a fashion that the A-T pair has _________ hydrogen bonds, while the G-C pair has ___________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The pairing between the respective purines and pyrimidines is so accurate that the bond distance does not deviate from the ________ - _________ average |
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Definition
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Term
| The DNA molecule is also characterized by the presence of a __________ and _________ groove along the length of its surface. The coiling of the two strands around each other creates the two grooves in the double helix. |
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Definition
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Term
| DNA is a(n) _________ molecule because of the availability of one phosphoric hydroxyl group to dissociate, which will occur at physiological pH. In the chromosomes of eukaryotic cells, the negative charges of the DNA molecule are counter balanced by the presence of basic proteins called histones |
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Definition
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Term
| DNA and their associated histones, collectively, form complex macromolecules called ___________ |
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Definition
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Term
| Histones are basic in nature because of the rich number of basic amino acids such as ______ and __________. These molecules are positive and only occur in eukaryotes |
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Definition
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Term
| Allowed scientists to obtain physical dimensions of the DNA molecule (20 A: width of DNA; 3.4 A: distance between bases; 34 A: distance for a complete turn of the double helix). Fundamental technique that allowed scientists to study the structure of DNA |
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Definition
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Term
| Permitted direct observation of DNA and confirmation of the predicted dimensions. If the width and molecular weight of DNA is known, it is possible to calculate the length of the molecule |
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Definition
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Term
| Light scattering, viscosity, sedimentation rates, and diffusion have yielded results that confirm the predictions of the model. DNA is a somewhat stiff, unbranched rod and not a highly flexible polymer |
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Definition
| Studies of the properties of DNA in solution |
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Term
| DNA does not assume the properties of a flexible polymer when the molecule is ____________ by a variety of agents, such as a low pH or by heat |
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Definition
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Term
| There is a _______ ___________ in the relative absorbance of ultraviolet radiation (at 260 nm) for DNA that occurs over a narrow pH or temperature range as the molecule denatures |
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Definition
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Term
| The change in ultraviolet absorption is called the __________ __________ and results from an initial breaking of hydrogen bonds which enhances the breaking of bonds in adjacent regions of the molecule |
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Definition
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Term
| The _______ ________ of DNA will vary depending upon the G+C content. The greater the G+C content the higher the temperature required to denature the molecule |
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Definition
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Term
| The reason for the relationship between G+C and the melting point is based upon the fact that there are __________ hydrogen bonds associated with guanine and cytosine as compared to __________ hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine. There are also stronger stacking interactions between guanine and cytosine (greater hydrophobic interactions) |
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Definition
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Term
| Within the genome of higher organisms a number of genes are present in _________ _______, while other genes appear to be present in only ________ ________ |
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Definition
| Multiple copies, one copy |
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Term
| There is a great deal of __________ within the genome of higher organisms with many, many copies of specific genes. Most of the DNA does not code for protein at any one point in time. One method of determining the relative amount of this is by conducting reannealing studies |
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Definition
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Term
| Fragment the DNA by sonication into segments which are approximately 1,000 base pairs in length. Denature the DNA fragments by heating to 100°C. Allow the solution to cool to 60°C in the proper buffer and salt concentration, The salt concentration is very important. The scientist can determine the extent of redundancy by plotting the percent genome reassociation as a function of C0t values (C0 is the initial concentration of DNA, while t is the incubation time in seconds) |
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Definition
| Procedure for Reannealing Experiment |
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Term
| Positive charges. Unique to eukaryotes. Associated with lysine and arginine |
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Definition
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Term
| The DNA of eukaryotes is always associated with basic proteins called histones, which are designated as ______,________,_____________,_________, and _________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The electron microscope has shown chromatin to be in the arrangement of spherical particles that are joined by a thin fiber. The particles, called _______ _______ or _____________, are approximately 100 A in diameter |
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Definition
| Nu particles, nucleosomes |
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Term
| The histones have undergone very little change in sequence during the course of evolution, thus indicating the important role of histones in the formation and stability of ___________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The tissue is exposed to an acid which hydrolyzes the deoxyribose and permits it to react to Schiff's reagent. The subsequent Feulgen reaction gives rise to a purple color and indicated the presence of DNA. This method is specific to DNA. Both DNA and RNA react with basic dyes such as methylene Blue and Toluidine Blue |
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Definition
| Analytical means of determining the presence of DNA in tissue |
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Term
| Both DNA and RNA absorb ultraviolet light with great intensity in the 240-280 nm region. Maximum absorption is at 260 nm |
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Definition
| Analytical means of determining the presence of DNA in solution |
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Term
| Has proven to be a very important mechanism for scientist who require large amounts of a particular gene or high concentrations of the gene's protein product |
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Definition
| Genetic Engineering (Recombinant DNA) |
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Term
| Repair breaks in DNA by joining together the loose ends of the molecule. Repair nicks by synthesizing a phosphodiester bond between adjoining nucleotides (phosphates join to the sugars at the 5' and 3' carbons) |
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Definition
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Term
| Cause breaks in the two DNA strands are a means of the bacteria recognizing foreign DNA. The breaks take place several nucleotides away from each other |
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Definition
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Term
| Many of the restriction enzymes are able to recognize specific types of base sequence called __________ __________, in which there is a rotational symmetry such that the nucleotide base sequence reads the same in the 5' to 3' direction along both strands |
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Definition
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Term
| Relatively small enclosed circles of DNA found in bacteria that are independent from the bacterium genome. They are capable of independent replication and contain few genes. The are important to medicine because they possess genes that are linked to antibiotic resistance. They can be passed from one bacterium to another |
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Definition
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Term
| A methods of breaking and joining DNA molecules that are derived from different species. A suitable gene carrier (vector: either a plasmid or a virus) that can replicate both itself and a foreign DNA segment that has been linked to it. A means of introducing the composite DNA molecule into a functional cell. A method of selecting from a large population of cells a clone of recipient cells that has acquired the composite DNA molecule |
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Definition
| Elements required for genetic engineering |
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Term
| The objective of the investigation is to isolate and clone the gene responsible for the production of pig insulin. DNA from the pancreatic cells of the pig is isolated. A selected restriction enzyme is exposed to the mammalian DNA. It chemically reads a particular sequence (palindromic) and cuts the two strands of the DNA molecule at specific sites. A specific plasmid is exposed to the same restriction enzyme which will cleave the plasmid DNA at the same site as those of the mammalian DNA. The DNA fragments from the plasmids and the pig are combined in a text tube. Ligase enzymes are added to the solution in order to join the DNA fragments. Several hybrid combinations of DNA will result from the joining of the DNA fragments, including plasmid and plasmid, plasmid and pig, and pig and pig. The hybrid DNA fragments are then taken up the a host cell (bacterium) through the use of a high salt solution which makes the cell's membrane permeable to the DNA molecules. The bacteria are cultured in a media that contains an antibiotic. Only those bacteria that have obtained a plasmid will survive. The surviving bacteria are cultured and the protein product (insulin) is collected after it is secreted by the bacteria |
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Definition
| Steps involved in a genetic engineering experiment |
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Term
| This is a very basic lab. Organisms under investigation normally exchange DNA in their environment |
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Definition
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Term
| This facility is similar to a P1 facility but there is a requirement for the use of an autoclave. Investigators wear a gown, gloves, and work under a hood |
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Definition
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Term
| The level of safety elevate dramatically. Air locks separate labs. Each facility has an independent ventilation system. Potentially dangerous organisms are investigated, but there are vaccines available |
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Definition
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Term
| This is the highest level of physical containment and safety. The labs are completely isolated. Air locks and independent ventilation systems are required. Investigators wear isolation suits. Deadly organisms are investigated, but there are no vaccines available |
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Definition
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Term
| An important method of amplifying DNA. The technique is designed to clone large numbers of DNA fragments. Requires the use of a unique form of DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase) that has been isolated from the microbe, Thermus aquaticus, which is normally found in hot springs. The polymerase can function at high temperature which would denature conventional forms of DNA polymerase |
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Definition
| Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) |
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Term
| DNA to be amplified must be fragmented into strands that are 50-2000 base pairs long. The reaction mixture contains synthetic oligonucleotide probes that are complementary to the 3' end of the DNA to be amplified. THe oligonucleotide probes are known as primers which are needed because DNA polymerase can not recognize single stranded molecules. Also present is the heat stable Taq polymerase and nucleotides, which are the building block of the DNA. The reaction mixture is heated to 95°C to denature the target DNA. Subsequent cooling to 37°C enables the primers to hybridize to complementary sequences in the target DNA. Then , when the mixture is heated to 72°C the TAq polymerase extends the complementary strands from the primers. The first cycle results in the production of two copies of the target DNA and each cycle only takes 5 minutes |
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Definition
| Polymerase Chain Reaction Procedure |
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Term
| DNA analysis is conducted after the molecule has been cleaved into smaller pieces normally by the use of _____________ ________________ |
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Definition
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Term
| Can be employed to separate the fragments on the basis of their length. The DNA fragments are loaded onto an agarose or polyacrylamide gel. A voltage is applied across the gel slab and the negatively charged DNA fragments then migrate toward the positive electrode. The larger fragments move more slowly than the shorter fragments. The DNA bands, which are invisible, can be detected by exposing the gel to a dye that fluoresces in the presence of ultraviolet light |
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Definition
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Term
| By comparing the sizes of the DNA fragments produced from a particular region of DNA after treatment with a number of different combinations of restriction nucleases, a physical map of the region can be constructed known as a ______ __________ |
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Definition
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Term
| DNA sequencing scheme which is conducted in the presence of chain-terminating dideoxyribonuleoside triphosphates. DNA polymerase is used to make partial copies of the DNA fragment to be sequenced. These reactions are performed under the conditions that ensure the new DNA strands terminate when a given nucleotide (A,G,C, or T) is reached. This method produces a collection of different DNA copies that terminate at every position in the original DNA, and thus differ in length by a single nucleotide |
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Definition
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Term
| Since four different bases are found in the message and the code is based on a three letter system, the the total possible combinations are ________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The genetic code is featured by its _________ which relates to the fact that many amino acids are selected by more than one codon |
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Definition
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Term
| When the first two nucleotides of a codon are identical, the third nucleotide can be either ___________ or ___________ and the codon will still code for the same amino acid. Often __________ and ________ are similarly interchangeable |
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Definition
| Cytosine, Uracil; Adenine, Guanine |
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Term
| The codon degeneracy and especially the frequent third place equivalence of Cytosine and Uracil or Guanine and Adenine illustrates why the AT/GC ratios can show __________ variations without correspondingly large chains in the relative proportions of amino acids found in organisms |
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Definition
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Term
| The code is comma less - there are no indicators that separate individual codons. The reading frame is established at the first codon. There is one start codon: ________ and three stop codons: ________, _________, and __________ |
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Definition
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Term
| To explain the fact that tRNAs could not recognize several different codos the ___________ _________ was devised. The base at the 5' end of the anti-codon is not as spatially confined as the other two bases, thus allowing it to form hydrogen bonds with any of several bases located at the 3' end of a codon |
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Definition
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Term
| Found to be associated with several anti-codons. A fifth base |
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Definition
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Term
| A change in the base sequence of a gene that results in an altered product |
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Definition
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Term
| An alteration that causes a codon specific for a given amino acid to specify another amino acid. 60 possibilities |
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Definition
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Term
| The change to a chain termination codon. Given the existence of only 3 chain termination codons, most mutations involving single base replacements are likely to result in mis-sense mutations |
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Definition
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Term
| A change in the reading frame as a result of the addition or deletion of a base |
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Definition
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Term
| The means by which organisms grow in size and mass. In essence, both the nucleus and cytoplasm undergo a doubling. A cell reproduces by conducting an orderly sequence of events in which it duplicates its contents and then divides in two. Not only are the chromosomes replicated, but the organelles, including mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, and membrane systems undergo division |
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Definition
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Term
| Half of each parent molecule is conserved in each daughter cell so the daughter DNA consists of one old chain and one new one |
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Definition
| DNA is replicated semi-conservatively |
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Term
| All mitochondria replicate by a process of ______ |
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Definition
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Term
| In prokaryotes, DNA synthesis may take place ________, primarily because there are no membrane bound nuclei |
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Definition
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Term
| In eukaryotes, chromosome replication may take ________ _______ with different parts of chromosomes replication asynchronously |
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Definition
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Term
| Cells that retain __________ _________ for division and exhibit little or no special differentiation. They serve principally as reserves for tissue replacement. An example would be the stem cells of the human body |
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Definition
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Term
| Cells that exhibit considerable ____________ ___________, such as liver cells. They are, however, still able to replicate |
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Definition
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Term
| Cells that when mature have ___________ their capacity to replicate. These are cells with extreme structural or biochemical specialization, such as neurons or muscle cells |
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Definition
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Term
| To ensure correct progression through the cell cycle, which is divided into four phases, eukaryotes have evolved a complex network of regulatory proteins that are collectively known as the _______ ________ __________ _________. The core of this system is and ordered series of biochemical switches that controls the main events of the cycle. To coordinated these activities, the cell cycle response to various signals from inside and outside the cell |
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Definition
| Cell cycle control system |
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Term
| Characterized by the processes of mitosis and cytokineseis, or cytoplasmic division. Takes approximately one hour to complete |
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Definition
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Term
| Generally the period of time between one M phase and the next is called __________. This is the period of time when the cell is conducting its normal activities. A cell continues to transcribe genes, synthesize protein, and grown in mass |
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Definition
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Term
| Represents the vast majority of the the time that a cell is in interphase. Provides the time for the cell to grow and duplicates its cytoplasmic organelles. Also the phase in the life of a cell in which it is performing the biochemical and physiological activities that characterize the cell type. The time spent in this phase may vary enormously |
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Definition
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Term
| A time when the cell replicates its nuclear DNA |
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Definition
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Term
| The interval between the end of S phase and the beginning of M phase. This phase is characterized by the synthesis of replication related proteins that are necessary for progress through mitosis |
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Definition
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Term
| The cell cycle control system regulates the process of cellular division through specific _________. Enable the cell to determine whether the conditions are acceptable for it to progress into the next phase. Feedback from the intracellular events of the cell, as well as signals from the cell's environment, determine whether the control system will pass through these |
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Definition
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Term
| The cell cycle control system governs the cell cycle machinery by cyclically activating and then inactivating the key proteins and protein complexes that initiate or regulate DNA replication, mitosis and cytokinesis. The reactions that control the cell cycle are carried out by a specific set of _________ ______. Switching these on and off at the appropriate times is partially the responsibility of a second set of protein components of the control system (the cyclins) |
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Definition
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Term
| The kinases of the cell cycle control system are known as _________ ____ __________ |
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Definition
| Cyclin-dependent protein kinases (Cdks) |
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Term
| The cyclin that helps drive cells into M phase is called _______ and the active complex it forms with its Cdkk is called _______ |
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Definition
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Term
| The molecular mechanisms for stopping cell cycle progression are poorly understood, but it is known that _________ __________ __________ are involved. They block the assembly or activity of one or more cyclin-Cdk complexes |
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Definition
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Term
| DNA damage causes and increase in both the concentration and activity of a _________ __________ _______ called ________, which activated the transcription of a gene encoding Cdk inhibitor protein called ______. This protein binds to G1/S-Cdk and S-Cdk, preventing them from driving the cell into the S phase |
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Definition
| Gene regulatory protein, p53, p21 |
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Term
| Mutations in the ______ _____ are found in about half of all human cancers |
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Definition
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Term
| If cells are no longer needed, they commit suicide by activating an intracellular death program, known as ______ ________ __________, which is derived from the Greek word meaning "falling off" as leaves fall from a tree |
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Definition
| Programmed cell death (apoptosis) |
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Term
| In adult tissues, cell death exactly balances ___ ________. If this didn't happen, tissues would grow or shrink |
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Definition
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Term
| Cells that die as a result of acute injury typically swell and burst, spilling their contents all over their neighbors, a process called __________ _________. This eruption causes a potentially damaging inflammatory response. A cell that undergoes apoptosis dies without damaging its neighbor |
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Definition
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Term
| Characterized by a collapse of the cytoskeleton, the nuclear envelope disassembles, and the nuclear DNA breaks up into fragments |
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Definition
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Term
| Apoptosis, whose control is similar in all animals, is carried out by a family of protesases called _____________. They are made ads inactive precursors called to signals that induce apoptosis. The activated ones cleave, and thereby activate other members of the family, resulting in an amplifying proteolytic cascade |
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Definition
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Term
| The proteolytic cascade is not only destructive and self-amplifying, but also _______________ |
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Definition
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Term
| Organ and body size of animals are determined by three fundamental processes: _______ _________, ___________ _________, and _______ ____________. Each of these processes is regulated by signals from other cells in the body, combined with programs intrinsic to the individual cell |
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Definition
| Cell growth, cell division, cell death |
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Term
| Extra-cellular signaling molecules that stimulate cell proliferation, primarily by overcoming the intracellular braking mechanisms that tend to block progression through the cell cycle. Most are secreted signal proteins that bind to cell surface receptors. When activated by this type of binding, these receptors activate various intracellular signaling pathways that stimulate cell division |
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Definition
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Term
| Stimulate cell growth (increase in cell mass) by promoting the synthesis and inhibiting the degeneration of proteins and other macromolecules. The growth of an organism depends on cell growth as much as on cell division. Cell growth does not depend upon the cell cycle control system. In fact, nerve cells and most muscle cells do most of their growing after they have permanently stopped dividing |
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Definition
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Term
| Promote cell survival by suppressing apoptosis. Animal cells need signals from other cells not only to grow and proliferate, but even to survive. If deprived of such survival factors, cells activate their intracellular suicide program and die by apoptosis. This requirement for signals from other cells for survival helps to insure that cells survive only when and where they are needed |
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Definition
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Term
| Controlling when and how often a given gene is transcribed. Controlling how the RNA transcript is spliced or otherwise processes. Controlling RNA transport. Selecting which mRNAs are translated by ribosomes. Selectively activating or inactivating proteins after they have been made |
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Definition
| Eukaryotic gene expression |
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Term
| Control of regulating gene expression occurs primarily through the regulation of __________ |
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Definition
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Term
| The regulatory systems of prokaryotes are heavily oriented toward __________ efficiency in the utilization of resources to achieve ____________ rates of cell replication |
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Definition
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Term
| The evolution of mult-cellular organisms from unicellular organisms depends upon the development of mechanisms that efficiently ________and ____________ cell replication |
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Definition
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Term
| The difference in structure and function among cells of multi-cellular organisms arise through ___________ gene expression in the various tissue types |
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Definition
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Term
| The initial binding site of the enzyme RNA polymerase which is responsible for the subsequent formation of a mRNA molecule. Includes and initiation site where transcription actually begins, and a sequence of approximately 50 nucleotides that extends "upstream" from the initiation site for both bacteria and eukaryotic genes. |
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Definition
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Term
| Used to switch the gene on or off. May be as short as 10 nucleotide pairs (bacteria) to more than 10,000 base pairs in eukaryotes |
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Definition
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Term
| Bind to DNA and control transcription |
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Definition
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Term
| A collection of adjacent nucleotides that code for single mRNA molecules and is under the control of a single promoter. May direct the production of several proteins all of which are collectively needed for a particular activity or function, such as the degradation or synthesis of a molecule |
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Definition
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Term
| Those substrates whose introduction into a growth media specifically causes an increase in the amount of an enzyme |
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Definition
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Term
| Corresponding enzymes to inducers |
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Definition
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Term
| Biosynthetic enzymes whose amounts are reduced by the presence of their end products |
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Definition
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Term
| Those end product metabolites whose introduction into a growth media specifically causes a decrease in the amount of a particular enzyme |
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Definition
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Term
| Involved in gene regulation. They help determine when mRNA molecule which code for inducible and repressible enzymes are made. Each blocks the operation of a specific operon |
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Definition
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Term
| The genes which code for the repressor molecules |
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Definition
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Term
| Cells that produce inducible and repressible enzymes regardless of their need |
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Definition
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Term
| All known repressors bind at specific sites on the DNA molecule and block the initiation of transcription. Particular nucleotide sequences that bind repressors are called _____________ |
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Definition
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Term
| Must be at least 10-12 base pairs long in order to interact specifically with the appropriate hydrogen bond forming groups of the repressor. This prevents random binding. |
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Definition
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Term
| Will occur if a mutation occurs at the operator site (prevents binding of repressor protein) |
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Definition
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Term
| The attachment of an inducer ___________ the repressor, while the binding of a co-repressor changes that repressor into a(n) __________ form |
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Definition
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Term
| It has been determined that even in the presence of an inducer (lactose) that neutralizes its repressor, a protein mediated __________ control signal also must be present for the lac operon to be activated |
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Definition
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Term
| One of the metabolites of glucose degradation (intermediate of glycolysis) acts by lowering the intracellular concentration of _____ ________ that is required for the transcription of all operons inhibited by glucose catabolism |
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Definition
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Term
| cAMP does not act directly on lac mRNA synthesis, but instead functions by bind to the ____ ____ ____ ______. The protein is a dimer with a molecular weight of approximately 44,000 Daltons. Has no influence on transcription until cAMP is bound to it. The positive control element for all glucose sensitive operons |
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Definition
| Catabolite gene activator protein (CAP) |
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Term
| When co-repressor or inducer molecules are added or removed from growing bacteria, the rate of synthesis of the respcetive proteins is altered ____________. This is possible because growth requires the continual synthesis of new mRNA since these molecules are metabolically unstable |
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Definition
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Term
| The average lifetime of many E.coli mRNA molecules at 37degreesC is approximately ______ _________ |
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Definition
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Term
| Bacteria contain a single type of RNA polymerase, while eukaryotes possess three: ________, ___________, and _________ |
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Definition
| RNA polymerase I, RNA polymerase II, RNA polymerase III |
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Term
| Transcribe genes that encode for tRNA, rRNA, and small RNAs that are involved in catalytic role |
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Definition
| RNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase III |
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Term
| Transcribes the vast majority of eukaryotic genes, including those that encode proteins |
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Definition
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Term
| Eukaryotic RNA polymerase requires the assistance of a large set of proteins which must assemble at each promoter site along with the polymerase before transcription can occur |
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Definition
| General transcription factors |
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Term
| General transcription factors position the RNA polymerase correctly at the ___________, aid in pulling apart the two strands of DNA to allow transcription to begin, and allow RNA polymerase to leave the promoter as transcription begins |
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Definition
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Term
| Binding of the transcription factors permits RNA polymerase and several other proteins to form a __________ __________ ____________ at the promoter. RNA polymerase is incapable of binding to promoter in the absence of transcription factor |
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Definition
| Transcription initiation complex |
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Term
| Each gene or related genes employ a(n) _________ transcription factor. There are three different kinds of sequences in eukaryotic promoters: The TATA Box, The CAAT Box, and the GC Box |
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Definition
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Term
| Located 25-30 base pairs upstream from where transcription starts, directs RNA polymerase to the initiation site |
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Definition
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Term
| Located approximately 50 base pairs upstream from the TATA box and directs the binding of a specific transcription factor to the initiation site-some genes lack this |
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Definition
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Term
| Positioned between 80 to 160 base pairs upstream from the starting point of transcription, promotes the binding of transcription factors |
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Definition
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