Term
| What are the central functions of oligodendrocytes and schwann cells? |
|
Definition
| Their main function is the insulation of axons via production of myelin sheaths |
|
|
Term
| What does the Nerst Equation allow us to calculate? |
|
Definition
| The Equilibrium Potential (Vm) |
|
|
Term
How is the resting potential of Vm
= - 60 mV maintained? |
|
Definition
| Due to the fact that neural membrane is selectively permeable to potassium at all times and due to the fact that Na+/K+ pump uses ATP to move 3 Na+ out, 2 K+ in |
|
|
Term
| If the Na+/K+ pumps of a neuron were poisoned would effect would that have on the Vm of said cell? |
|
Definition
| No effect, at least not initially. The ionic concentration gradients can maintained for sometime allowing for a relatively stable Vm of -60mV. Once these concentration gradients deteriorate Vm is no longer controlled. |
|
|
Term
| In the context of neurobiology what two types of channels allow permeabilities of ions to change? |
|
Definition
| Ligand-gated and Voltage-gated channels. |
|
|
Term
| What is the average duration of an action potential down an axon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What device is used to measure voltage membrane potential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Invertebrates have large, uninsulated nerve cells. Why would having large diameter, uninsulated nerves be a good thing? |
|
Definition
| Larger diameter: ion channels regenerate current and higher passive flow allows fewer channel openings/closings faster! |
|
|
Term
| What is the vertebrate strategy for speeding up action potentials? |
|
Definition
| Saltatory conduction via ion channels clustered at the nodes of Ranvier resulting in electric current traveling quickly through cytoplasm and less time for ions to open and close |
|
|
Term
| What neurobiological change is closely correlated with the progression of Alzheimer's Disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of response does ACh elicit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of response does serotonin elicit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of response does dopamine elicit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of response does glutamate elicit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of response does norepinephrine elicit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of response doe glycine and GABA elicit? |
|
Definition
| inhibitory (opens Cl- channels) |
|
|
Term
| Where is the decision of whether or not an action potential will be fired occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a ionotropic receptor do? |
|
Definition
| Because the receptor protein itself is a part of the ion channel it binds to a NT and causes a direct change in ion movements |
|
|
Term
| metabotropic sensory detection |
|
Definition
| The receptor protein is linked to a G-proteins that activates a cascades of events that eventually open or close ion channels |
|
|
Term
| Attributes of Merkel's disks? |
|
Definition
| A surface mechanoreceptor on the skin that adapts slowly and provides continuous information |
|
|
Term
| Attributes of Meissner's corpuscles? |
|
Definition
| A surface level mechanoreceptor on the skin that adapts rapidly and is functional in sensitive touch |
|
|
Term
| Attributes of Ruffini corpuscles? |
|
Definition
| A deeper level mechanoreceptor in the skin that adapts slowly and senses low frequency vibrations |
|
|
Term
| Attributes of Pacinian corpuscles? |
|
Definition
| A deeper level mechanoreceptor in the skin that adapts quickly and senses high level vibrations |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| any of the numerous cone-shaped units that make up the compound eyes of some arthropods |
|
|
Term
| What factor determines whether you are near-sighted or far-sighted? |
|
Definition
| Eyeball shape (elongation versus compression) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
an impairment of the ability to produce
and/or comprehend language, due to brain
damage |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between Broca's and Wernicke's aphasia? |
|
Definition
Broca's aphasia is different from Wernicke's aphasia, which is characterized by damage to more posterior regions of the left hemisphere. Wernicke's aphasia results in a more pronounced impairment of comprehension. Thus, while speech
production remains normal grammatically, it is nonetheless often roundabout, vague or meaningless. People suffering from damage to Broca's Area
may be unable to create grammatically-complex sentences: their speech is often described as telegraphic and contains little but content words. Patients usually are aware that they cannot speak properly |
|
|
Term
| What effect does the plant extract, curare, have on the nervous system? |
|
Definition
| Curare paralyzes muscles by blocking ACh from its receptors at the neuromuscular junction, resulting in no muscle contraction/no diaphragm contraction thus asphyxiation. |
|
|
Term
| What are some symptoms of multiple sclerosis? |
|
Definition
| numbness, poor coordination, poor vision, and paralysis |
|
|
Term
| What are major symptoms of Parkinson's Disease? |
|
Definition
tremor, muscle rigidity and
weakness, speech difficulties, dementia,
and a blank, mask-like facial expression |
|
|
Term
| Schizophrenia is related to what neurotransmitter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug stimulates dopamine release and can produce symptoms like those of schizophrenia? |
|
Definition
| Amphetamine ("speed"); induces dopamine release |
|
|
Term
| LSD is an agonist to what neurotransmitter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cocaine inhibits the transporters of what two neurotransmitters? |
|
Definition
| Dopanmine and Norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A protein that keeps myosin filaments in register |
|
|
Term
| Circadian rhythms are not affected by what factor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Q10 is defined as the rate of a reaction
at a particular temperature (RT)divided
by the rate of that reaction at a temperature 10°C lower |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of thermogenin in brown fat cells? |
|
Definition
| uncouples proton movement in the mitochondria from ATP production, so that heat is produced instead of ATP |
|
|
Term
| What is a endogenous pyrogen and when is it produced? |
|
Definition
| Pyrgogens are fever-inducing agents created by the immune system in response to an attack; pyrogens cause the hypothalamic "set-point" to be reset and the body adjust its temperature to that new point. Low grade fevers are effective in combating pathogens, but too intense of a fever can cause irreversible damage and even brain death |
|
|
Term
| In what three ways do antimicrobial complement proteins in vertebrates provide defense? |
|
Definition
1.They attach to microbes,
helping phagocytes recognize and destroy them.
2.They activate the inflammation
response and attract phagocytes to the site of infection.
3.They lyse invading cells |
|
|
Term
| What types of cells are important in inflammation response and allergy response? |
|
Definition
| Mast cells because they release histamine when damaged |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main groups of white blood cells? |
|
Definition
| Phagocytes and Lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of lymphocytes and their functions? |
|
Definition
| B cells and T cells; B cells differentiate to form antibody-producing cells and memory cells; T cells kill virus-infected cells and regulate activities of other white blood cells |
|
|
Term
| Where do T cells migrate to for maturation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do the B cells collect and what do they do? |
|
Definition
| They circulate and collect in lymph vessels, making antibodies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Antigens are organism or molecules that are specifically recognized by antibodies and/or T cell receptors. The sites on antigens that the immune system recognizes are the antigen determinants (or epitopes) |
|
|
Term
| What two responses does the immune systems have against invaders? |
|
Definition
| The humoral immune response and the cellular immune response |
|
|
Term
| Explain the humoral immune response. |
|
Definition
| Involves the secretion of antibodies that defend against pathogens and toxins in extracellular fluid. (B Cells) |
|
|
Term
| Explain the cell-mediated immune response. |
|
Definition
| Defends against infected cells, cancer cells, and transplanted tissues. (T Cells) |
|
|
Term
| What is the "Clone Selection Theory"? |
|
Definition
| When a B cells binds the antigen specific to its antibody, the B cells divides and differentiates into many plasma cells, which produce and secrete antibodies, and a few memory cells (clones) that divide at a slow rate |
|
|
Term
| What is the "Clone Selection Theory"? |
|
Definition
| When a B cells binds the antigen specific to its antibody, the B cells divides and differentiates into many plasma cells, which produce and secrete antibodies, and a few memory cells (clones) that divide at a slow rate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Acquiring an immune response within the organism by inoculation with an antigen |
|
|
Term
| What is passive immunity? |
|
Definition
| Transferring antibodies from a person/organism who is immune to someone who is not; examples include across the placenta, in mother's milk, anti-toxins. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of a Helper T cell? |
|
Definition
| To assist B cells in finding antigen determinants so that differentiation can occur; to stimulate B and Tc cells to divide; assist in recognition of MHC II proteins |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of a Cytotoxic T cell? |
|
Definition
| "Killer T cells" recognize virus-infected cells and kill them by secreting PERFORIN, which causes them to lyse |
|
|
Term
| What is a major difference between antibodies and T cell receptors? |
|
Definition
| T cell receptors bind only to an antigen determinant presented on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell while antibodies will bind free-floating antigens or antigens on the surface of a cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome caused by infection of CD4-expressing TH cells by HIV |
|
|
Term
| Why has it been so difficult to make a vaccine for HIV? |
|
Definition
| Because it has evolving surface antigens |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of an IgE in allergy reactions? |
|
Definition
| IgEs cause mast cells to secrete histamine which stimulates the dilation in the blood vessels throughout the body, fluid leakage (blood pressure drop), mucus secretion and bronchiole constriction (coughing and singing) |
|
|
Term
| What qualification do successful transplantations share? |
|
Definition
| MHC molecules must match, otherwise these same molecules will act as antigens. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of Rubisco? |
|
Definition
| Fixes carbon in the calvin cycle of photosynthesis |
|
|
Term
| What are secondary metabolites? |
|
Definition
Secondary metabolites are
special chemicals that are not
used for cellular metabolism;
they may attract pollinators
and/or repel/poison predators.
They are frequently stored in
the large vacuoles of plant cell |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of abscisic acid? |
|
Definition
| Maintains seed dormancy and winter dormancy; closes stomata |
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of auxins? |
|
Definition
| Promote stem elongation, adventitious root initiation, and fruit growth; inhibit lateral bud outgrowth and leaf abscission |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of ethylene? |
|
Definition
| Promote fruit ripening and leaf abscission; inhibit stem elongation and gravitropism |
|
|
Term
| Explain ethylene's role in the "Triple Response". |
|
Definition
If stems pushing up through soil
encounter a stone, they release
ethylene from their tips, which:
1.Slows stem elongation
2.Thickens the stem to make it stronger
3.Makes the stem grow horizontally |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important auxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List some advantages that closed circulatory systems have over open systems? |
|
Definition
–Blood flow, nutrient delivery and waste removal are more rapid.
–Closed systems can regulate blood flow to specific tissues.
–Cellular elements and large molecules that aid in transport can be
kept within the vessels. |
|
|
Term
| Where in the body are red blood cells broken down? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A genetic disorder in which clotting factors do not work properly, making minor cuts or bruises life-threatening. |
|
|
Term
| Characteristics of cardiac muscle. |
|
Definition
Cardiac muscle cells are myogenic
(spontaneously contract) and are
electrically coupled by gap junctions to
allow coordinated contractions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The primary “pacemaker” of the heart is
the sinoatrial node (SA) located at the
juncture of the superior vena cava and
the right atrium. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The primary “pacemaker” of the heart is
the sinoatrial node (SA) located at the
juncture of the superior vena cava and
the right atrium. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The atrioventricular node (AV) is stimulated by depolarization of the atria; after a ~0.1 sec delay the AV generates action potentials that are conducted to the ventricles via specialized bundles of muscle
fibers called the "Bundle of His" and
thence to the left and right Bundle
branches.
The Bundle branches spread throughout the
ventricular muscle mass as "Purkinje
fibers."
Purkinje fibers evenly distribute the action
potential throughout the ventricular muscle |
|
|
Term
| What is a myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
|
|
