| Term 
 
        | What is pain? Is it subjective or objective? |  | Definition 
 
        | What the patinet says it is. It is ALWAYS subjective |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Is pain understood greatly? Do we undertreat or overtreat pain? |  | Definition 
 
        | Processes are poorly understood, and it is actually undertreated |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the different types of pain? |  | Definition 
 
        | Nociceptive, visceral, and neuropathic pain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the types of nociceptive pain? |  | Definition 
 
        | Somatic and visceral Somatic: Noxius stimulation of periphery (nerve fibers)
 Visceral: noxius stimulation of visceral nerve fibers (internal organs)
 =referred pain
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is another name for visceral pain? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is neuropathic pain? Where does it occur (periphery or cns)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pain caused by abnormal processing of sensory information Either in periphery or CNS
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Types of neuropathic pain: |  | Definition 
 
        | Lower back pain Neuropathy
 Guillian-Barre Syndrome
 Heavy metal toxicity
 HIV/AIDS neuropathies
 Multiple sclerosis
 cancer pain (often)
 Trigenimal neuroalgia
 Post herpetic neuralgia
 Post stroke central pain
 Trauma
 -Carpal tunnel syndrome
 -Cervical or lumbar radiculopathy
 -Spinal cord injury
 -Stump pain (phantom limb)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the role of the pharmacist in pain management? |  | Definition 
 
        | Drug-drug interactions Adverse drug reactions
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main step in acute pain managment? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which NSAIDS are salicylates? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acetyl Salicylic Acid Diflusinal
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which NSAIDS are arylalknoic acids? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which NSAIDs are propionic acids? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ibuprofen Naproxen
 Ketorlac
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which NSAID is an oxicam? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which compound discussed in the NSAID lecture is NOT an NSAID? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How are NSAIDs classified? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the main actions of NSAIDs? (3) |  | Definition 
 
        | Anti-inflammatory Anti-pyretic
 Analgesia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Inflammation is a nonspecific immune response to damaged tissue or infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the hallmark signs of inflammation? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What prosteglandins are associated w/ inflammation? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do NSAIDS work to stop inflammation? |  | Definition 
 
        | They block the production of PGE2 and PCI2, which cannot increase vascular permeability and release cytokines, cgrp, substance P and lead to an AP-->Pain. All of this is blocked
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What part of the brain regulates body temperature? What happens when you get a fever? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hypothalamus The temp set point is elevated when you get a fever
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Infection, tissue damage, inflammation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | IL1 will induce PGE2 production, which makes the hypothalamus increase the temperature. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do NSAIDs reduce fever? |  | Definition 
 
        | Block Il1 stimulation of PGE2, so the hypothalamus is not induced, and no fever ensues |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of pain do NSAIDs treat? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two ways that NSAIDs treat pain? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Reduce inflammation and edema, and decrease pro inflammatory mediators 2. Inhibit PGE2, PGF2, and PGD2, which have been shows to stimulate pain receptors on free nerve endings
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of pain are NSAIDs good for treating? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDS? |  | Definition 
 
        | They ihibit COX (reversibly or irreversibly--ASA) which converts arachidonic acid to PG |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is the MOA of ASA different than other NSAIDs? |  | Definition 
 
        | It irreversibly inhibits COX by acetylating SER530 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do the physiological and pathological actions of prosteglandins compare? |  | Definition 
 
        | Temperature control: Fever GI Motility: Diarrhea
 Gastric secretions: Ulceration
 Uterine contraction: Dysmenorrhea
 Etc
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What NSAID is a good tocylitic agnet. Why? |  | Definition 
 
        | Indomethacin It inhibits synthesis of PG, especially PGF2, which is responsible for uterine contractions.
 This drug is a good tocylitic agent
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | COX1 or COX 2: Uterine contractions? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What NSAID can be used ot close the ductus arteriosus? Why? |  | Definition 
 
        | Indomethacin and Ibuprofen PG play an important role in maintaining the patency of the ductus arteriosus during development
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What NSAID can be used to trat Bertters syndome? What is the disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | Indomethacin (along w/ K sparing diuretics and K supplement) COX 2 is induced, so increased PGEs
 This disease causes hyperplasia of the kidneys and increased Barttin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of cancer prevention is associated w/ NSAIDS? What drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | 50% reduction in colon cancer ASA and NSAIDS
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of NSAID has a greater reduciton in colon cancer? Why? |  | Definition 
 
        | COX 2. Link beteen inhibition of COX2 and decreased polyp formation has beedn made in the GI |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What NSAID is associated w/ cardioprotection? Why? |  | Definition 
 
        | Low dose aspirin Low dose does not cause a significant increase in bleeding, but does inhibit blatelets.
 Also associated w/ decreased circulation of C-reactive protein
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where are NSAIDS absorbed? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rapidly from the GI tract |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Phase 1 cyp Phase 2 glucoronidaiton
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How are NSAIDS eliminated? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a large reason for drug-drug interactions with NSAIDS? |  | Definition 
 
        | They are highly bound to plasma proteins. Must watch for D-D interactions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the primary SE of NSAIDs? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hypersensitivity in NSAIDS? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rare but serious that does not appear to be an immune rxn, rather inhibition of COX pathway shunts AA over to teh LT pathway for an asthma like rxn |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the rationale behind GI SE of NSAIDs? |  | Definition 
 
        | NSAIDs inhibit COX1, so there is a decrease in PGE2 and PCI2 which produce cytoprotective cells. Acidic molecules cna irriate gastric mucosa
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which NSAIDs have higher risk of gastric SE? Which have a lower risk? |  | Definition 
 
        | Higher: Indomethacin, Meloxicam, Salicylates Lower: Ibuprofen, diclofenac, COX 2 selective agents
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How can you decrease GI SE with NSAIDs? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Decrease the dose 2. Use PPI or PG analog (misoprolol)
 3. Use enteric coated formulations
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Renal Side effects of NSAIDs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Individuals with pre existing Heart problems, loop diuretics, or hypovolemia may suffer compromised renal function in the form of reduced renal blood flow and reduced GFR.  These can lead to renal failure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some other SE of NSAIDs? |  | Definition 
 
        | -Hypersensitivity/Bronchospasm -Gouty symptoms
 -Reye's syndrome
 -Increased hemorrhage
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Hepatic injury and encephanopathy in children with viural infection (ie chicken pox).  Link to ASA although association is not clear |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What population are NSAIDs CI'd in? Why? What should you use instaed? |  | Definition 
 
        | Asthmatics Shift AA metabolism to form LT, which can constrict the airways
 Use APAP
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens durin a salicate toxicity? What are the SE? |  | Definition 
 
        | Uncoupling of Oxidative Phosphorylation (which leads to a metabolic shutdown) -Respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, hyperpyrexia, vomiting, hearing loss
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are two common drug NSAIDs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Warfarin and ASA: Bleeding Methodrexate and NSAIDs: Decrease renal blood flow/uric acid buildup/gout
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the gold standard NSAID? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the driving force for the anti-thrombotic effect of ASA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Platelet effect on TXA2, which inhibits platelet aggregation and vasodilates |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two things are inhibited by ASA? How do they contradict each other? |  | Definition 
 
        | TXA2 is an inhibitor of platelet aggregation and a vasoconstrictor PCI2 (prostacyclin) is an inhibitor of PGI2, whcih causes vasodilation.
 
 TXA2 works primarily on platelets, while PGI2 works on the endothelium.  Plts are irreversibly inhibited so the effect lasts longer there
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most potent NSAID? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | COX 1 vs COX 2 -Inducers?
 -Location
 -Produces
 -Repressed by?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | COX 1: -Found throughout the body (mostly GI, Kidney, and plts)
 -Constituitavely expressed
 -Produces PGE2 and PCI2
 COX2
 -Derived from prostaglandins
 -Inducable
 -Found @ site of inury
 -Induced by IL 1beta, TNF alpha, growth factors
 -Repressed by anti-inflammatory agents (IL4, IL10, IL13, glucocorticoids)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is APAP effective at treating? |  | Definition 
 
        | Antipyretic and analgesic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Not clear, most likely acting centrally (but fewer GI effects) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does hypatotoxicity occur w/ APAP? |  | Definition 
 
        | Primary metabolism is glucoronidaiton. However, secondary is via cyp and then scavenged by glutathione.
 W/ OD, depletion of glutathione. Buildup of the ROS/RNS that cause hepatotoxicity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How much glutathione must be depleted in order to have APAP OD? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does glutathione depletion lead to a buildup of? |  | Definition 
 
        | N-acetyl p-benzoquinonequine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does one treat an APAP OD? |  | Definition 
 
        | -Induce vomiting -Administer N-acetylcystenine (an antioxidant and a glutathione prescursor)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why do you not give glutathione for an APAP OD? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bc it can't get into the cells. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What must opioids do in order to be an effective pain reliever? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Do opioids act centrally or peripherally? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the three classes of analgesic agents? What type of pain does each treat? |  | Definition 
 
        | Non opioid: mild Opioids: severe
 Analgesic adjuvants: little analgesic effect alone (ex. muscle relaxants, antidepressants, anti anxiety)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the three classes of analgesic agents? What type of pain does each treat |  | Definition 
 
        | Non opioid: mild Opioids: severe
 Analgesic adjuvants: little analgesic effect alone (ex. muscle relaxants, antidepressants, anti anxiety)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 opioid receptor subtypes? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some examples of strong opioid agonists? What about weak? Antagnist? Mixed agonist/antagonist? |  | Definition 
 
        | Strong=morphine/fentanyl Weak=codeine
 Antagonist=naloxone/natrexone
 Mixed=nalbuphine/butorphanol
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What receptor are most opioids agonists at? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the SE of opioids that bind @ kappa recceptor? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do delta receptors do? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are enkephalins? What are they naturally slective for? Where are they located? |  | Definition 
 
        | derived from pro-enkaphalin Throughout CNS
 Bind to delta selective
 Located in catecholamines and in synthetic terminals in adrenal glands
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are endorphins? What do they naturally bind to? Where are they located? |  | Definition 
 
        | Deriphed from proopiomelanocortin Beta endorphin has analgesic activity
 Bind to the mu receptor
 Pituiatary and hypothalamus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do endorphins cause? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are dynorphins? What do they bind to? Where are they located? |  | Definition 
 
        | Derived from prodynorphin Potent analgesic
 Binds selectively to the Kappa receptor
 Receptors are localized in the pituitary and hypothalamus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do opioid receptors in the brainstem mediate? Medial thalamus?
 Spinal Cord?
 Hypothalamus?
 Non-CNS?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Brainstem: respiration, cough, anusea, vomiting,pupillary diameter Medial thalamus: Deep pain
 Spinal cord: Integrate of incoming sensory information
 Hypothalamus: neuroendocrine
 Non CNS: GI tract
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens to the pharmacolgic actions of opioids when you are on them for prolonged periods?  Which are exeptions to this? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tolerance develops to most effects, except constipation, miosis, and pruritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What conditions are opioids contraindicated? |  | Definition 
 
        | Head injury Bronchial asthma
 Convulsive disorders
 Drug-drug interactions
 (also pancreatitis, alcohol intoxication, hypovolemic shock-use IV, hypothyroidism, hepatic failure
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of pain should opioids NOT be used in? |  | Definition 
 
        | Chronic, non-malignant pain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some therapeutic uses for opioids? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acute pain Cancer pain
 Dyspnea and pulmonary edema
 Open heart surgery
 Decrease fear in dying
 Control withdrawal symptoms (methadone)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main concern with chronic opioid use? |  | Definition 
 
        | Prevention of substance abuse |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where does pain processing occur in the body? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the MOA of opioids at the spinal cord level? |  | Definition 
 
        | Afferent pain inhibited at presynaptic and postsynaptic terminals Presynapticlaly: Decrease CAMP, whihc decreases intracellular Ca, so this decreases the release of NT release (mu, kappa, and delta are here)
 -Postsynaptica: bind to receptor, causing an influx of K ions into the neuron leading to hyperpolarization of the neuron and evoking an inhibitory pos synaptic potential (mu receptors only)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the supraspinal MOA of opiates? |  | Definition 
 
        | Via mu receptors to inhibit the inhibitory action of GABA ant hus stimulate the actiivty of adrenergic and serotenergic pahtways |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Do opioids put you to sleep? |  | Definition 
 
        | No they are sedating, but are NOT hypnotics |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of pain are opioids better at treating? What type of pain is resistant? |  | Definition 
 
        | Better at treating prolonged burning pain than sharp shooting pain Neuropathic pain is often resistant
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why do rewarding effects of opioids occur? |  | Definition 
 
        | Due to an interaction between opioids and DA in the nucleas accumbens |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which agonists are rewarding? Which are aversive? |  | Definition 
 
        | Mu and delta are rewarding Kapa and my antags are aversive
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Respiratory Depression: -What part of brain
 -Therapeutic doses
 -Combination
 -Death?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | -Driect effect on respiratory centers in medulla -Thx doses depress all phases of respiration (rate, minute volume, tidal exchange)
 -Effects compounded (GA, tranquilizers, alcohol, sedative-hypnotics
 -Opioid death almost always from respiratory depressions
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Effect of opioids on cough? |  | Definition 
 
        | Depress cough centers in the medulla |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are opioids effect on pupils? What receptors do this? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pinpoint pupils Mu and kappa receptors
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs will antagonize pupulliary constriciton? |  | Definition 
 
        | Naloxone Atropine
 Ganglionic blockers
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Directly stimulate the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in the area postrema activating the vomiting center |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What opiods is muscle rigidity commonly observed with? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can muscle rigidity in opioids also lead to? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decreased respiratory function,m because muscles become stiff and can't brethe |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which drugs can dysphoria and agitations occur infrequently with? |  | Definition 
 
        | Meperidine Codeine
 Hydrocodone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Can opiates be used when someone has had a head injury or has an elevated ICP? |  | Definition 
 
        | No. Decreased ventillation can increase PaCO2 and even raises ICP further
 Pupil effect (meiosis) may mask changing neurological signs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do opioids do to CV funciton? |  | Definition 
 
        | Vasodilation and HOTN (decrease in symp tone) Bradycardia (stiulating vagal nerve)
 Little/no effect on myocardium
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If someone has hives/itching near injection site for an opioid what has happened? |  | Definition 
 
        | Not a true allergy, which are very rare Histamine has been released non-immunologically
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why are facial itching and warmth a common efect following administration of opioids? |  | Definition 
 
        | NOT histamine release, because of the change in blood flow |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the primary effect of opioid action on the SM in the intestine and stomach |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs can be used to treat diarrhea? |  | Definition 
 
        | Poorly absorbed opioid agonists Diphenoxylate (rx)
 Loperamide (OTC)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Since opioids cause constipation, do they have an effect on the urinary system? |  | Definition 
 
        | Yes, can cause urinary retention |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens with opioids and the biliary system? |  | Definition 
 
        | They cause contraction of the sphinctor of ODDI, increased pressure, which can ppt or exacerbate biliary colic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Preggerz chicks and opiates? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cross the placenta, not teratogens May go through withdrawal
 But if given during labor, can cause respiratory depression in the baby
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two long term effects of opioid use? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tolerance Physcial dependence
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the withdrawall symptoms of opioids? |  | Definition 
 
        | Vomiting Diarrhea
 Cooseflesh
 Mydriasis
 Drug seeking
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effects does opiate tolerance develop more rapidly to? |  | Definition 
 
        | Analgesia, Respiratory depression, Euphoria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some symptoms of acute respiratory failure with Opioids? |  | Definition 
 
        | TRIAD: Coma, miosis, cyanosis Asyphyxia (pinpoint pupils) Biliary spasms Pulmonary edema Muscle twitches, peripheral vasodilation-->HOTN, shock Respiratory failure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Overdose of opiois symptoms? |  | Definition 
 
        | Coma Miosis
 Respiratory depression
 HOTN
 Shock
 Hypothermia
 Pulmonary edema
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens if you OD on meperidine? |  | Definition 
 
        | May cause mydriasis (antimuscarinic effects) Seizures
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens if you OD on a high potench opiate such as fentanyl? |  | Definition 
 
        | You may get acute muscular rigidity, that may impair chest movement and exacerbate hypoventilation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should you do to treat an opiate OD? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. ABC's 2. Naloxone/Naltrexone
 3. Monitor
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is naloxone administered, what is is DOA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Administered IV, short DOA (1-4 hours) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens when you use opioid antagonist in someonone who is physically dependent? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Drug drug interaction of opiates: Which ones increase CNS depressant effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | MAOI's Tricyclics
 Phenothiazines
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When you use opioids with CNS depressants, what shoudl you do? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Drug-Drug interactions of opioids: Which ones increase effects of morphine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amphetamines Anti-histamines
 Hydroxyzine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens when you combine miperidine and an MAOI? |  | Definition 
 
        | Excitation* Delerium*
 Hyperhyrexia
 Convusions*
 Severe resp depresion
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Rapid absorption, wide distribiution, and rapid clearance High first pass effect
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Can morphine cross BBB? Why/Why not? |  | Definition 
 
        | Only 0.02% crosses BBB because of hydrophliic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Secondary metabolite 6- glucoronide morphine is active |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is morphine eliminated? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Can heroin cross the BBB? Why/why not? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lipid soluble and crosses BBB faster than morphine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens when heroin is administered IV? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Metabolized to morphine in the brain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Readily absorbed orally. 60-87% reaches the plasma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Receptor affinity of oxycodone? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is oxycodone often combined with? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Pure oxycodone inside a polymer/acrylic matrix that allows for CR |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why do abusers like oxycontin better than oxycodone? |  | Definition 
 
        | You can crush it and get more. There are no non-narcotics (pure oxy)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens if you try and crush the new improved tamper rsistant oxy formulation? |  | Definition 
 
        | If crushed, naloxone is acutely released to counteract the effects of the oxycodone, resuling in withdrawal symptoms in the abuser |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | A ge;l capsule that utulizes controlled release, but is crush resistant |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Synthetic narcotic w/ actions similar to morphine (w/ few exceptions) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What differs between morphine and meperidine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Meperidine: no anti-tussive and may dilate pupils |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the metabolite of meperidine, what does this do? |  | Definition 
 
        | Normeperidine: strong stimulant and convulsant |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which receptor does meperidine act on? agonist or antagonsit? What does this mean? |  | Definition 
 
        | Agonist @ kappa receptors (dysphoria) Large dose can cause msucle twitches, tremors, and rarely convulsions
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When can fentanyl be used? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is oralet? Why was it removed from the market? |  | Definition 
 
        | Fentanyl pops for kids Kids bit the sucker, and OD
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is actiq? What is it used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Fentanyl pop for cancer patinets, for breakthrough pain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Transdermal fentnyl -Primary use
 -DOA
 -Absorption
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Chronic malignant pain DOA: 72 hours
 Absorption can be variable and lead to increased SE and OD otptential (fever, wound)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why shouldn't fentanyl patches be used in someone that have not been on opioids before? |  | Definition 
 
        | They are a high dose, you can get a lower dose patch, though |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does methadone differ from morphine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Less sedation, euphoria, emesis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is methadone used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Treat heroin withdrawal and pain of terminal cancer |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where does methadone act? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | DOA of morphine compared to methadone? |  | Definition 
 
        | Methadone is longer (T1/2 is 15-55 hours) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | DOA/Peak effect of the following: Methadone
 Fentanyl
 Morphone
 Merperidine
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Morphine/Meperidine: Middle Methadone: Long
 Fentanyl: Fast
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What % and where is codene converted to morphine? |  | Definition 
 
        | 10% After it crosses the BBB
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main use of codeine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Anti-tussive. Moderate pain |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Max analgesia of codeine compared to morphine? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the single most highest prescribed drug in the US? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens with high doses of D-propoxyphene? |  | Definition 
 
        | CNS stiulation: convulsions, respiratory depression, hallucinations, confusion, coma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is D-propoxyphene related to structurally? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Analgesis of D-Dorpoxyphene comparatively? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1/2 analgesic potency of codeine (weak) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is pentazocine? Potency?
 recepotr activity?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Opioid mixed agonist antagonist 1/3 as potent as morphine
 Agonst: Kappa
 Antagonist: Delta, Mu
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is beprenorphine? Receptor activity?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Potent, long activing phentherene deriviative Mu and kappa partial agonist
 delta antagonist
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is naloxone? Receptors?
 Purity?
 Uses?
 DOA?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Antagonizes most opioid receptor agonist (barbitruates @ high doses) Almost a pur antagonist
 Used to reverse coma/resp depression in OD
 DOA is short
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is naltrexone? Purity?
 DOA?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Opioid antagonist--pure Longer DOA than naloxone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What have recent studies show about combinations of opioid antag's w/ agonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | Don't antagonize it, but actually enhance opioid |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | An emetic thjat acts @ CTZ and in a dopaminergic agonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does dextraomethorphan relieve? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Act centrally May bind to receptors and inhibit reuptake of NE/5HT
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the basic structure of a local anesthetic? |  | Definition 
 
        | -Hydrophobic ring -Linker=ester/amide
 -Tertiary amine group
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the purpose of the aromatic ring in LA? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the importance of the ester and amide linkers in LA? Where is each metabolized? |  | Definition 
 
        | They are the primary spot for metabolism Esters: in the plasma by pseudocholinesterases
 Amides: in the liver by CYP450
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What role to thet tertiary amines play in LA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lipophilict Cationized to quat amine, hydrophylic and soluble
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Intervere w/ the increase in Na permeability that subserves thedepolarizing phase of an AP, therefore blocking generation of nerve impulses |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do we need to take away from the MOA of LA? |  | Definition 
 
        | It bascially makes it more difficult for AP to be propogated and fired. Block axonal conduction |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens to the AP when an LA is used? |  | Definition 
 
        | It is squished, less Na enters, so less depolarized, and takes more time |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do LA do to the threashold potential of AP? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What form of an LA will block Na channels? |  | Definition 
 
        | The cationized form Neutral form has weak effiacy at blocking: Benzocaine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What form of LA can cross where within the body, how does this effect the MOA? |  | Definition 
 
        | -Neutral has to be able to cross CM -Cationized has to block Na channels
 Must be in neutral form first, and then convert to the cationic form
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of channels do LA block? (primiary) |  | Definition 
 
        | Voltage gated, use dependent channels (NOT resting channels or closed ones)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Besides Na, what other things do LA's block? Which can related to ADR? |  | Definition 
 
        | K, Ca, nicotinic receptor mediated conductance, and substance P (which can releate to ADR's) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of pH on LA? |  | Definition 
 
        | As pH increases, LA shifts to neutral form (which is more readily absorbed, but can't block Na channels) As pH decreases, shifts to cationized form (which cannot cross the membrane, and therefore cannot block Na channels)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What effect does increased blood flow have on LA activity? What about SE? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increased blood flow can move LA away from injection site, which can lead to less activity in the are -More systemic absorption-->SE
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What role does decreased blood flow have on LA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Keeps the LA at the site of injection, so less systemic SE.. and increased efficacy of the drug |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which nerve fibers are effected by LA first? Which are effected last? |  | Definition 
 
        | Unmylenated (C fibers) are first Alpha motor neurons are least effected (large mylenated)
 Based on size/mylenation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Order of sensory block/return? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Pain 2. Cold
 3. Warmth
 4. Touch
 5. Deep pressure
 6. Motor fxn
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Topically to treat dermatitis and itching |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Reduce bleeding in oral surgery (constrictive properties) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CNS SE of LA? Too high/too low of a dose? |  | Definition 
 
        | low doses: CNS stimulation (restlessness/tremor/convulsion) high doses: CNS depression (sedation, respiratory depression, loss of consciousness)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Act on the myocardium to decrease excitability, conduction, and contraction Vasodilate (all but coke)
 Toxicity=HOTN/Arrythmias
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Ventricular tachydardia Ventricular fibrillation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Excitatory conditions from catecholamines |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | anti-arrythmic properties |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Stimulatory effects on the heart |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some SE from severe LA toxicity? |  | Definition 
 
        | Circum-oral tongue numbeness Lighheadedness
 Tinnitis
 Visual disturbances
 Respiratory arrest
 Mucular twitching
 Convulsions
 Unconsciousness
 Coma
 CV Collapse
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Rare, but not unheard of Allergic to easter derived metabolite PABA
 They may also be allergic to stabalizers/adjuvants
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the therapeutic use of cocaine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Provides vasoconstriction and anesthesia in oral surgeries |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which LA are esters and can cause allergic rxn? |  | Definition 
 
        | Procaine Tetracaine
 Articaine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why isn't procaine as common amymore? |  | Definition 
 
        | Low potency Slow onset
 Short DOA
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Administration of procaine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Confined to infiltration anesthesia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Lidocaine: -DOA
 -Administration
 -Other fun facts
 |  | Definition 
 
        | -Intermediate DOA -Patches, SC, IM, iV (wide range clinically)
 -Class 1C anti-arrythmic
 -Drug and metabolite are a primary source of severe toxic effects
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What LA can produce prolonged anesthesia for procedures such as the post OP period? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | More cardiotoxic than equi-effective lidocaine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | As potent as bupivacaine w/ less cardiotoxic effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug was developed as an alternative to bupivacaine? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | DOA/Type of Link of Ropivacaine? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Potency/CV of ropvacaine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Slightly less potent than bupccacaine w/ less CV effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is bupvacaine used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Continuous influsion (epidural) lasts for days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of anesthesia is Ropivacaine used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Both regional and epidural |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of anesthesia is tetracaine used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Topical preps and spinal anesthesia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which LA should not be usd obsterically due to neonate toxicity? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Mepivacaine: DOA/Type of link |  | Definition 
 
        | Amide Intermediate DOA (simialr to lidocaine w/ 20%>>>potency
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Prilocaine: Link type and DOA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amide w/ intermediate DOA |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the drug of choice of IV regional blocks (LA)? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which LA has a SE of methemoglobinemia? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What LA has both an amide and an ester group? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Dental surgeries, rapid onset (1-6 minutes_ |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which LA is poorly soluble so it can be used topically? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which LA is in many OTC meds? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which LA is not a benzoate, ester, or amide? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Goals of general anesthesia? |  | Definition 
 
        | -Analgesia -Amnesia
 -Hypnosis
 -Muscle relaxation
 -Inhibition of autonomic reflexes
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What pharmacokinetic property is most important to look at when using general anesthetics? (ADME) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | DO you want a general anesthetic to have a fast or slow induction rate? Is it better to keep the patient on anesthesia for a long period or short period? |  | Definition 
 
        | Fast Short period-->Better recovery
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Are IV GA given all at once or over a period of time? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe distribution of the drug after adimistration of a GA? |  | Definition 
 
        | It first distributes to areas of high blood flow and low volume (like the brain), and then it goes to areas of lower blood flow and higher volume (ex. adipose/muscle) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | General anesthetic flow in body: (frst-->last) |  | Definition 
 
        | Blood-->Brain/viscera-->Lean muscle-->adipose |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | GA relationship of T1/2 and DOA? |  | Definition 
 
        | May have a long T1/2 but they all have a fairly short DOA comparitavely |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does one prolong the effect of a GA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Redosing, duration is dose dependent |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Who may need less of a GA dose? Why? |  | Definition 
 
        | The elederly, because they have a smaller Vd. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most frequently used IV inducing GA? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | DOA of thiopental? What is it usually used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ultrashort acting (5 minutes) Inducing agent, then start another gas agent
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the gold standard GA inducing agent? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Thiopental: -Induction
 -Unconscious rate
 -Amnesia quality
 -Analgesia quality
 -Muscle relaxation qty
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Pleasant induction Rapid unconsciousness
 Good amnesia
 Poor analgesia, Poor muscle relaxation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of thiopental? |  | Definition 
 
        | Binds to GABAa recepor, increases Cl influx into cell. This stimulates inhibitory neuronal systems
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What CNS effects does thiopental have? |  | Definition 
 
        | It decreases cerebral metabolism and O2 utilization It decreases cerebral blood flow and ICP
 Therefore it protects the brain against hypoxic/ischemic injury
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Direct cardiovascular effects of thiopental? |  | Definition 
 
        | Peripheral vasculature: decrease BP, vascular resistance, CO, venodilation (HOTN,Schock), venodilation occurs due to increased venous capitance Myocardium: direct depressant. Lowers contractility
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Indirect CV effects of thiopental? |  | Definition 
 
        | HR is increased via barostatic reflex |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does the anesthesiologist know that thiopental is working well? |  | Definition 
 
        | HR is increased via barostatic reflex |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What happens to people who have a high sympathetic tone when placed on thiopental? What can be done to comabet this?  What causes this? |  | Definition 
 
        | They experience a profound drop in BP (hypovolemia, HF, CAD, BB block) Often take an anti-anxiety prior to reduce the tone.
 This is caused by a redistribution of CO
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Respiratory effects of thiopental? |  | Definition 
 
        | Respiratory depression occurs in a dose-dependent fashio |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Do you need muscle relaxants alng w/ thiopental? |  | Definition 
 
        | Yes, because you still have trachael/laryngeal reflexes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If you have asthma, can you use thiopental? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Renal/GI/Liver effects of thiopental? |  | Definition 
 
        | No significant effects upon short term use: should continue to monitor RBF |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Some action at GABAa Enhances Cl conductance @ glycine
 But the MOA is not fully known
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Decreases cerebral blood flow and metabolism |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Decreased BP, vascular resistance, HR, CO, Central venous pressure is unchanged Greater degree of Bp reduction than thiopental
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Propofol vs Thiopental: Which has more CV depression? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which GA burns on injection? What makes it do that? |  | Definition 
 
        | Propofol: Phenol component |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Time to take effect of propofol: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which GA is the one where the patinets can resume conversation in recovery w/o pause? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Can propofol be used for maintenence, or is it only a good inducing agent? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Euphoria or dysphoria of propofol? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Activates GABAa receptors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the primary indication for etomidate? |  | Definition 
 
        | Used in patients @ risk of HOTN |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CNS effects of etomidate: |  | Definition 
 
        | Decrease cerebral blood flow/ICP Decrease O2 metabolic rate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Minimal ventilatory depression Lower incidence of apnea
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Minimal changes in all parameters Well suited for pts w/ CV risk factor
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the GA drug of choice for pts w/ heart problems? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Etomidate: Muscluloskeletal system? How do you fix this? |  | Definition 
 
        | Myoclonus Controlled though adjuct txy: midrazolem
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of Ketamine? What is special about this? |  | Definition 
 
        | Antagonist of NMDA: non competative |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What GA is the only one that acts by inhibition of stimualtory neuronal systems? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which GA causes a "dissociative" feeling where you are out of body? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What population is ketamine used in? |  | Definition 
 
        | Patients at risk for HOTN and bronchospasm |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What muct you be sure to give along with ketamine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Something that causes amnesia, they are not asleep, just dissociated from their body |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are CNS SE of ketamine? |  | Definition 
 
        | -Unpleasant dreams: reduced by benzo's barbs and N2O -Increase in cerebral blood flow and ICP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CV effects of Ketamine?  What patinets are these good in, CI? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increased HR, BP, CO due to sympathetic stimulation. Good in pts who get HOTN during anesthesia
 Bad for pts who are at risk for MI
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What GA is the most effective bronchodilator? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Small dsoes=minimal ventilatory depression Profound analgesia reduces airway reflexes (intubation)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Other random SE of ketamine? |  | Definition 
 
        | -Salivary tracheobronchal secretions increased Non purposeful tonic/clonic/ athenoid movements
 Nystigmuc/phonation occur
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What opioid medication is used as an GA? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | WHy are opioids used as GA NOT reliable for? What are they used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amnesia Used for pre-op/induction/maintenence/post-op pain
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the shortest acting opioid? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What GA is the one exception to the rule of distribution? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is remifentanil metabolised? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What GA stops actions after 8 minutes of turning it off? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are 2 things to consider when choosing an inhaled general anesthetic? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most potent inhaled GA? What is the weakest inhaled GA (maybe not considered GA)
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | WHy is solubility important when choosing an inhaled GA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Because drug must get to the brain Directly coorelated w/ the blood:gas ratio.
 But if it gets absorbed from the lung-> blood (high ratio stays there) so it takes longer to get to the brain. Delays induction
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the physiochemical properties of inhaled general anesthetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Highly lipid soluble Ethers: except halothane
 -low metabolism
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which inhaled general anesthetic is not an ether? Why is this important? |  | Definition 
 
        | Halothane Important bc of toxicities (breaks down faster)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | IGA that smell good (names) How do you administer them?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | -Halothane -Sevoflurane
 -Can give from beginning to end: pleasant induction
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | IGA that smell bad (names) How do you give them?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Desflurane Isoflurane
 Give IV and transfer
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What population will you be most concerned with the smell of IGA? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Halothane: Blood gas portion, induction rate, recovery
 |  | Definition 
 
        | High rate: Slow induction, slower recovery |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 60-80% by lungs Remaining to liver: froms TFA (necrosis ensues)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Can depress SA Node and sensitize the heart to catechol induced arrythmias -So after surg. HR is already high and symp is activated. Ectopic areas by cathechols. SA not workin-->Arrythmias.
 Can help treat this by giving a BB
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the perferred IGA for neurocsurg procedures? |  | Definition 
 
        | Isoflurane: Less decrease in ICP and cerebral blood flow |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What IGA is used in patinets w/ compromised myocardial fxn? |  | Definition 
 
        | Isoflurane: Potent coronary vasodilator and CO is maintained |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Isoflurane: Blood gas partition, induction, recovery |  | Definition 
 
        | Moderate Blood gas partition Faster induction and recovery than halothane
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Desflurane: Blood gas partition, induction, recovery, metabolism, maintenece or induction? |  | Definition 
 
        | Low blood gas partition Fast induction and recovery
 99% metbaolized in the lungs
 Widely used for maintenance NOT induction
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sevoflurane: Blood/Gas partition, induction, recovery, maintenence or induction? |  | Definition 
 
        | Low blood gas parition Fast induction and recovery
 Widely used for surgical maintenance, and induction (mostly throughout in kiddos)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Nitrous oxide: Potency, what is it good for, % concentrations rationale |  | Definition 
 
        | Not potent as an anesthetic Good for analgesia and sedation
 50% in dental surg
 80% upper limit (bc must have 20% O2)
 70% is common
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | WHat is the #1 to remember about nitrous oxide? |  | Definition 
 
        | It makes everything work better Use less of the drug
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug class are good adjuvants to general anesthesia, why? Which 2 drugs from this class? |  | Definition 
 
        | Benzo's. Good amnesic agnents Lorazapam, Midazolam
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Therapeutic uses of Skeletal muscle relaxants: What does this do to the amount of drug needed for anesthesia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Adjuvant to surgical anesthesia Less anesthetic drug needed
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What other procedures are skeletal muscle relaxants good for besides adjuvants? |  | Definition 
 
        | Orthapedic procedures, ie dislocations |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where do most skeletal muscle relaxants act? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ach and nicotinic receptors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two classes of skeletal muscle relaxants? |  | Definition 
 
        | Deopolarizing Non-depolarizing
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Depolarizing Skeletal muscle relaxant: -Drug name
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Succinyl choline: Onset/ Duration
 MOA
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Fast onset: 1 minute Ultrashort duration: 5-8 minutes
 Act as a reversible but persistent agonist of ACH @ nicothinc receptors ant NMJ of skeletal muscles (binds initally, contracts, doesn't release, then relaxes, but molecule still bound. Irreversible. No antidote)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the drug of choice for trachael intubation (skeletal muscle relaxant) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of nondepolarising skeletal muscle relaxants? |  | Definition 
 
        | Act as ach antagonist @ nicotinic receptors. Bulky quat amine structure
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What reverses action of non-depolarizing skeletal muscle relaxants? |  | Definition 
 
        | Duraction of action is decreased by cholinesterase inhibitors: But not reversible. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How are skeletal muscle relaxants administered? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Succinyl choline metabolism? |  | Definition 
 
        | Plasma esterases, NOT acetyl cholinesterase. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can happens if a person has a pseudocholinesterase deficiency and is placed in succinylcholine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Can't break it down as quickly.. Short acting drug can last hours, this is a medical emergency. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How are most non-depolarizing agents metbaolized? Which 2 drugs are exeptions, and where are they metabolized? |  | Definition 
 
        | Liver. Atracronium. Mivacronium: Hofmann degredation and are hydrolyzed by plasma esterases
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When are the agensts  atracurium and mivacurium preferred? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cases of hepatic and renal insuficciency |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How would one reverse the blockade from a non-depolarizing agent? |  | Definition 
 
        | -Increase the concentration of the noraml NT at the nicotinic receptor -Cholinesterase inhibitors 9neostigmine/pyridostigmine)
 -Muscarinic antagonist (glycopyrrolate) is given to offset the adverse effect of increase in cholinergic activity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main SE of succinyl choline? (when is CI).  What is another SE? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hyperkalemia CI in pts w/ burn or spinal cord injury
 
 Autonomic ganglia/adrenal medulla are stimulated leading to bradycardia and HOTN
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which skeletal relaxant elicits histamine release the most as a SE? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which skeletal muslce relaxant is a sympathomimetic which elicits tachycardia and htn? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When you you ventilate when person is on a skeletal muscle relaxant? |  | Definition 
 
        | ALWAYS. Respiratory parapysis. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which skeletal muscle relaxant can cause neuromalignant fever? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What age of people is epilepsy most likely to occur? Why? |  | Definition 
 
        | <<18: rapid evvelopment >>60: neurodegenerative
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most common cause of seuzires? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are sources of seizure incidents that are secondary to a primary factor? |  | Definition 
 
        | Changes in blood flow or supply to a brian region Tumor growing in a region of the brain
 Traumatic injury
 Neurodegeneration
 Immune response to an infection
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Difference between generalized an partial seizures? |  | Definition 
 
        | Partial: often get an aura before Generalized: no aura, full hemisphere
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of the brain is affected in absence seizures? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What age group do absence seizures occur most in? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe what happens during an absence seizure? |  | Definition 
 
        | Altered conscioiusness: stare/gaze during activities Occur during many times during the day, but only last a few seconds
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Who is more likely to get myoclonic seizures? Children or adults? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a myoclonic seizure? |  | Definition 
 
        | Characterized by short, jerking contractions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Rigidity (tonic) with intermittent periods of jerking movements (clonic) Usually last for a few minutes
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
 
        | Medical emergency Tonic/clonic seizure that last for a longer period of time w/ no cesssation in contraction activity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anti-convulsants are highly protein bound? |  | Definition 
 
        | Phenytoin Fosphenytoin
 Carbamazepines
 Benzodiazepines
 Tiagabine
 Valproic Acid
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | For Na channel blocking drugs: What state of the channel do they promote? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of Ca channels does ethosuximide and valproic acid block? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anti-convulant drug increases the duration of the GABA channel opening? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anti-convulsant drug increases the frequency of GABA channel opening? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of tiagabine |  | Definition 
 
        | Increases GABA in the synapse by inhibiting GAT-1 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If SE occur w/ an anti-convulsant drug, is it better to switch to a new drug or use an adjuvantagent? |  | Definition 
 
        | Due to complinace, it is preferred to switch to a different monothx before adding adjuvants |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you apporach treatment of seizures? |  | Definition 
 
        | Therapy is symptomatic, often initial treatment is not effective, trial and error, must be adjusted or changed, only 50% achieve complete control |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anticonvulsants are prodrugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Fosphenytoin Oxcarbezpeine
 Some barbs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Know which anticonvulsants have no metabolic interactions w/ other anticonvulsant drugs? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anti convulsant drugs cause hepatotoxicity |  | Definition 
 
        | Lamotrigine Valproic Acid
 Felbamate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anti-convulsants cause CNS depression? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anti-convulsants cause renal stones? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anti-convulsants cause teratogenicity? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anti-convulsants cause stevens johnsons syndrome? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lamotrigine Phenytoin
 Fosphenytoin
 Carbamazepine
 Barbitruates
 Benzo's
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which anti-convulsants cause aplastic anemia? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  |