| Term 
 
        | alpha 1; cause contraction |  | Definition 
 
        | found in most vascular smooth muscle |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | alpha 1; causes contraction (dilation of pupils) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | found in pilomotor smooth muscle |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | alpha 1; causes contraction |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | alpha 1; increases force of cardiac contractions |  | Definition 
 
        | found in the heart although not the main receptor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | alpha 2; cause aggregation |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | alpha 2; cause inhibition of transmitter release |  | Definition 
 
        | found at adrenergic and cholingergic nerve terminals |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | alpha 2; cause contraction |  | Definition 
 
        | found on some vascular smooth muscle; cause contraction |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | found on fat cells; inhibition of lipolysis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | beta 1; increases rate and force of cardiac contractions |  | Definition 
 
        | main receptor found in the heart |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | beta 2; promotes smooth muscle relaxation |  | Definition 
 
        | found in respiratory, uterine, and vascular smooth muscle |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | beta 2; promotes potassium uptake |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | beta 2; activates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | fat cells; activates lipolysis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | dopamine 1; dilates renal blood vessels |  | Definition 
 
        | found in the kidneys along with beta 1 which cause renin secretions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | dopamine 2; modulates transmitter release |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta receptors only; not subtype specific |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta 2 selective; uterine relaxant stops premature labor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta 1 and alpha 1 selective; analog of dopamine but is inactive at dopamine receptors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | alpha 2 agonist; can act centrally |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | alpha 2 agonist; can act cetrally |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | alpha 2 agonist; can act centrally |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | alpha 2 agonist; can act centrally |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | developed from methyldopa for vasoconstriction properties to be given with local anesthetics by dentists |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | related to clonidine; used as decongestant and eye drops; not centrally acting like clonidine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | used as decongestant and eye drop; related to clonidine; not centrally acting like clonidine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | amphetamine/methamphetamine |  | Definition 
 
        | powerful stimulant, alertness, enhanced athletic performance, euphoria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | methamphetamine and dextroamphetamine |  | Definition 
 
        | have relatively more CNS and less peripheral actions; tolerance develops rapidly |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | used to treat ADHD but removed from market due to hepatic failure as well as psychotic and cardiac side effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | psychosimulant for narcolepsy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | nonselective alpha and beta agonist; congener of amphetamine that will cause severe cardiac problems if take too much; similar effects as phenylephrine but doesn't cause rise in bp; cause vasoconstriction which can shrink mucous membranes and relieve congetstion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | phenylpropanolamine/hydroxyamphetamine |  | Definition 
 
        | similar to ephedrine with even fewer CNS effects; discontinued in US |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | direct acting alpha agonists; short duration only |  | Definition 
 
        | to control superficial bleeding you would want to use what type of medications? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | cardiac arrhythmias; appendages |  | Definition 
 
        | some anesthetics can cause? dangerous in ? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | phenyleprine, pseudoephedrine, and oxymetazoline |  | Definition 
 
        | if want to treat nasal decongestion, need local vasoconstriciton which can me provided by what medications which come in various drops, sprays, and aerosols? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | if you use too much nasal decongestants, what is the main problem/systemic effects that can occur when you quit taking the drug? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | I-epinephrine, levonordefine |  | Definition 
 
        | medications that are used to cause vasoconstriction to limit diffusion; used commonly by dentists |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | systemic effects and tissue necrosis |  | Definition 
 
        | what do you want to watch for if get repeated injections of I-epinephrine or levonordefrin? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | noepinephrine, phenylephrine, or methoxamine |  | Definition 
 
        | what should be used to treat acute hyptoension to preserve cerebral and coronary blood flow while iv fluids are given? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | is shock, bp fall but ? is an issue |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | reducing peripheral resistance as opposed to increasing peripheral resistanc; dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol |  | Definition 
 
        | the treatment of shock depends on the cause and may require ? instead of ? and ? can be used |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | selective beta 2 agonists; inhalations (so as to not get in the blood stream and effect the beta 2 receptors in the heart); albuteral, salmeterol, terbutaline |  | Definition 
 
        | what kind of meds should be used to cause bronchodilation? what route should they be delivered by? and what are some possible medications that could be used? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | what medication should be used to treat allergic reactions and anaplylaxis? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | physiologic antagonists to histamine and other allergic mediators |  | Definition 
 
        | when treating allergic reactions and anaphylaxis, the adrenergics act as what? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | amphetamines; appetite supression |  | Definition 
 
        | what class of drugs are used to treat narcolepsy and adhd; what can they cause? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | alpha 1 stimulant; radial; phenylephrine |  | Definition 
 
        | can cause mild pupil dilation by giving what type of drug which causes stimulation of what muscle of the eye? Name a madication that can be used for this? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | alpha 2 agoinsts; bromonidine and apraclonidine |  | Definition 
 
        | can get reduction of intraocular pressure by reducing aqueous humor production and increasing outflow by giving what type of medication? two example meds? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | are cholinergics or adrenergics more effective as opthalmics? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ritodrine; beta 2 selective agoinst |  | Definition 
 
        | what is good medication to cause uterine relaxation by relaxing uterine smooth muscle which will prevnet premature labor? what type of drug is it? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | selective alpha 2 agonists; methyldopa, clonidine, guanabenz, and guanfacine |  | Definition 
 
        | type of drug that is CNS active and can be used to decrease sympathetic outflow and decrease cardiac outflow? name four of them although they are not used as fequently as they used to be because there are many different things to choose from? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | complex group of natural and synthetic drugs first derived from rye fungus; used for actions unrelated to the sympathetic blockade |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | serotonin, dopamine, and alpha adrenergic receptors |  | Definition 
 
        | ergot alkaloids exhibit agonism and antagonism at what three types of receptors? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | phenoxybenzamine blocks both pre and post junctional ? receptors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | covalently (irreversibly); long (days) |  | Definition 
 
        | phenoxybenzame binds ? and has a ? duration of action |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | causes a decline in compensatory responses and can potentiate be receptor effects of norepinephrine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | competitive, similar effects as phenoxybenzamine but shorter duration of action |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | parenterally; tissue necrosis |  | Definition 
 
        | phentolamine is administered ? and can prevent ? after norepinephrine extravasation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | dilation; decreases; reflex |  | Definition 
 
        | phentolamine causes vaso? and ? TPR; can also cause ? cardiac stimulation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine are both primarily used in the treatment and diagnosis of what |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ergot alkaloids, phenoxybenzamine, phentolamine are what type of drug? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | major anti hypertensive that is alpha 1 selective |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | major anti hypertensive that is alpha 1 selective |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | major anti hypertensive that is alpha 1 selective |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | prazosin, terazosin, and doazosin ? both arteries and veins causing ? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | postural hypotension; cardiac stimulation; fainting; orthostatic hypotension |  | Definition 
 
        | with doxazosin, prazosin, and terazosin there is less ? and ? but do have to worry about first dose ? and ? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | alpha 1A subtype selective antagonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | prazosin, terazosin, and doxazosin are all selective antagonists of what type of receptor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | tamsulosin is used to treat? with little effects on BP due to it being selective for the alpha 1A receptor; also less first dose effect and postural hypotension |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | yohimbine is a selective angtagonist of what type of receptor? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | pheochromocytoma, hypertension, BPH, and erectile dysfunction |  | Definition 
 
        | selective alpha antagonists are commonly used to treat what four conditions? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta antagonists are mostly ?philic and some have ? agonist actions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta antagonists ? cardiac output and can cause an ? in TPR due to unopposed sympathetic alpha effects (reflex) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta blockers antagonize ? release from the kidney (which contains beta 1 receptors) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | decreasing blood pressure |  | Definition 
 
        | in the long term, beta antagonists are used for what purpose and are good at treating heart failure as well by decreasing the workload on the heart |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta antagonists will ? VLDL and ? HDL |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | since beta antagonists will also antagonize beta 2 receptors in the lung, must be cautious in giving these medications to patients with ? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | some beta antagonists can decrease the production of the aqueous humor so is a good treatment for ?; beta receptors increase intraocular pressure so if you block them it will decrease this pressure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta blockers can cause a reflex tachycardia which is dangerous in patients who have ? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | propranolol; non selective (blocks all three types of beta receptors but effects are most noticeable at beta 1 and beta 2) |  | Definition 
 
        | ? was the first beta blocker invented and it is ? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | propranolol ? cardiace output and can cause a reflex ? in TRP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | chronic use of propranolol ? BP and there is also some CNS ? activity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Beta 2; bronchoconstriction; asthma |  | Definition 
 
        | since propranolol is non selective it will block the ? receptors in the lungs as well which can cause ? and should be used with caution in patients with ? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | timolol (also and non selective beta antagonist) |  | Definition 
 
        | is similar to propranolol but is used in ophthalmic solutions to treat glaucoma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta 1 selective antagonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta 1 selective antagonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta 1 selective antagonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | beta 1 selective antagonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | selective beta 1 antagonists are a major class of ? agents |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | selective beta 1 antagonists |  | Definition 
 
        | what type of drugs are used to treat angina, hypertension, migraine, MI and tremor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | selective beta 1 antagonists |  | Definition 
 
        | ? are a large family that differ in lipophilicity, membrane stabilization, and sympathomimetic activity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ? are mixed alpha and beta antagonists |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | mixed alpha/beta antagonists (labetolol and carvedilol) combine nonselective ? with selective ? blockate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | mixed alpha/beta antagonists (labetolol and carvedilol) differ in ration of beta to alpha activity, but this ratio is much ? for carvedilol |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | carvedilol also has what kind of activity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | competitive inhibitor of tyrosine hydroxylase which is the rate limiting enzyme that convertes tyrosine into L-DOPA in the synthesis of NE |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | metyrosine has some use in ? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Metyrosine inhibits the synthesis of what three neurotransmitters in the CNS as well as the periphery |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | prevent the destruction of catecholamines by prolonging and enhancing their actions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | MAO inhibitors have a paradoxial ? of BP although it is not used as an antihypertensive |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | MAO inhibitors have a major use in what type of medicine? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | guanethidine, reserpine, metyrosine, MAO inhibitors |  | Definition 
 
        | name four neuron blocking drugs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | uncoupled excitation release, inhibits the release of tranmitter via various mechanisms; discontinued in the united states |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | guanethidine blocks at the ? ganglionic neuron and blocks ? release |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | hypertension and arrythmia |  | Definition 
 
        | guanethidine has a historic use for treating what |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | these types of drugs have few therapeutic uses but their net effect is to block adrenergic neuron and inhibit NE release |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | M1/M3 agonist used to treat xerostomia(dry mouth); commonly prescribed; stimulates muscarinic receptors on salivary glands |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | partial nicotinic agonist used for smoking cessation; stimulates nicotinic receptors but not as well as nicotine; produces nausea in 30% of patients |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | selective agonist of muscarinic receptors; found in mushrooms; ? times more effective than Ach; not broken down in the body |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | pilocarpine; xerostomia; sweating |  | Definition 
 
        | selective agonist of muscarinic receptors; useful in the initial treatment of open - angle glaucoma, producing a rapid and long - lasting (4-8 hours) decrease in pressure; can also be used to treat ?; can trigger intense ? when administered systmically |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | toxic substance present in tobacco products; selective agonist of nicotinic receptors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | acetylcholine, methacholine, carbachol, bethanechol, cemimeline, varenicline, muscrin, nicotine, and pilocarpine |  | Definition 
 
        | name the direct agonists of the cholinergic nervous system |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | edrophonium and ambenonium |  | Definition 
 
        | two competitive acetylcholinesterase inhibitors; quanternary ammonium compounds that compete with ach for the anion binding site on ache; used as a diagnostic tool in myasthenia gravis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | physostigmine, pyridostigmine, neostigmine, and carbaryl |  | Definition 
 
        | name 4 acetylcholinesterase inhibitors that are carbamate inhibitors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | echothiophate, parathion, and nerve gas agents |  | Definition 
 
        | name 3 drugs that are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and are irreversible inhibitors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | rivastigmine, donepezil, and galantamine |  | Definition 
 
        | name three drugs that are reversible ach inhibitors and are used in the treatment of alzheimers and other dementias |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | name the two muscarinic antagonists that are called "belladonna alkaloids"; these are competitive antagonists at muscarinic receptors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | some ? have anti muscarinic actions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ipratropium, tiotropium; COPD |  | Definition 
 
        | muscarinic antagonists when inhaled, the effects are localized to the mouth and airways because they are quaternary ammonium compounds and are poorly absorbed; useful in the treatment of ?; synthetic muscarinic antagonists |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | synthetic muscarinic antagonist that is a quanternary ammonium drug administered parenterally to decrease secretions in GI and pulmonary symptoms |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | homatropine, cyclopentolate, tropicamide |  | Definition 
 
        | three short acting, synthetic muscarinic antagonists that cause mydriasis and cycloplegia (paralysis of accomodation) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | darifenacin and solifenacin |  | Definition 
 
        | synthetic muscarinic antagonists that are M3 selective and used to treat urinary incontinence |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | muscarinic antagonist used in the treatment of parkinson's disease which is a loss of dopaminergic neurons |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | glaucoma, elderly, hyperthermia |  | Definition 
 
        | don't want to give patients with ? muscarinic antagonists because they can increase intraocular pressure; also don't want to give muscarinic antagonists in what patient population because it can decrease cognitive abilities; can also increase risk of ? because they inhibit sweating |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | tachycardia, bowel sounds |  | Definition 
 
        | ? is the earliest and most reliable symptom associated with anticholingergic (muscarinic antagonist) poisoning, along with decreased ? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | competitive nicotinic receptor antagonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | non competitive nicotinic receptor antagonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | d-tubocurarine, pancuronium, rocuronium, vecuronium, atracurium |  | Definition 
 
        | non depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ibuprofen; blurred vision |  | Definition 
 
        | NSAID with anti inflammatory activity similar to aspiring; analgesia commonly occurs at doses lower than those required for inflamation; similar side effects to other NSAIDs except also get ?; also comes in many different formulations |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAID that is chemically related to ibuprofen; has a long half life of 14 hours which allows for twice a day administration; night time doses relieve the morning stiffness of arthritis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAID whose long half life permits once daily dosing; maximal therapeutic effects take two weeks to develop; much higher risk of GI disturbances when the dose exceeds the therapeutic does of ? mg daily |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAID that can also be used to treat gout; lots of side effects and is not generally well tolerated; has similar side effects as other NSAIDS but they are more severe; can also get aplastic anemia, vertigo, depression, psychosis, suicidal potential etc.; 30 - 50 % have serious side effects and 20% must discontinue therapy; use for the reversal of ? disorders; few doses and night time dosing preferred; can be used to treat gout, pericarditis, and closure of patent ductus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAID that is a prodrug and requires metabolism to become active sulfide; less GI disturbance because GI tract is exposed to less of the active form of the drug; enterohepatic recycling gives this drug a long half life of ? - ? hours |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | NSAID usually used for systemic uses (IV or IM) in post surgical or other inpatient issues; can be used to treat mild to moderate post surgical pain; use of longer than ? days is not recommended; contraindicated in patients with ? insufficiency because it is excreted by the kidneys and are toxic to the kidneys (as are other NSAIDs) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | the only non - weak acid NSAID; it is a ketone; must be metabolized to weak acid in order to be active; equal affinity for COX I and COX II; half life of more than ? hours; ? insufficency increases its half life; photosensitivity and pseudoporphyria are reported side affects along with normal side effects associated with NSAIDs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | acetaminophen; COX; fever |  | Definition 
 
        | not an NSAID; has limited effects on peripheral COX; ineffective in treating edema or vascular changes associated with inflammation; no GI toxicity, bleeding, of hypersensitivity reactions; effective analgesic for mild to moderate pain possible due to central ? inhibition; can also be used to reduce ? through a central mechanism s |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 24 - 48; acetylcystein (Mucomyst) |  | Definition 
 
        | the development of the APAP toxic metabolite may take ? to ? hours to occur; ? is an antidote to napqi toxicity |  | 
        |  |