| Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What the drug does to the body. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What the body does to the drugs. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 4 different types of bonds from strongest to weakest |  | Definition 
 
        | covalent, ionic, hydrogen, van der waals |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | The strongest bond   Two bonding atoms share electrons |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 2nd strongest bond   atoms with an excess of electrons (imparting an overall negative charge on the atom) are attracted to atoms with a deficiency of electrons (imparting an overall postive charge on the atom) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 3rd strongest bond   Hydrogen atoms bound to nitrogen or oxygen become more positively polarized allowing them to bond to more negatively polarized atoms such as oxygen, nitrogen, or sulfur. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Least strongest bond   shifting electrons density  in areas of a molecule, or in a molecule as a whole, results in the generation of transient positive or negative charges- these areas interact with transient areas of opposite charge on another molecules. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the six major types of drug-receptor interactions   |  | Definition 
 
        | Transmembrane ion channel, Transmembrane linked to intracellular G protein, transmembrane with enzymatic cytosolic domain, intracellular, extracellular enzyme, adhesion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Whate are the major pharmacodynamic relationships between drugs and their targets? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How would you explain pharmacodynamics and impacts it? |  | Definition 
 
        | How the drug effects the body |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How would you explain pharmacokinetics? What influences this? |  | Definition 
 
        | What the body does to the drug.   Aging- kidney function decreases, less muscle mass, Liver function decreases, lungs function decreases   Patients with renal disease, cardiac disease   Other medications |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Makes more enzymes, the drug is metabolized too quickly/excreted too quickly   Increased transcription or translation   Decreased degradation   Induction by another drug or autoinduction |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Drugs not getting excreted so the drug can become toxic. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does it mean when we have a high volume of distribution |  | Definition 
 
        | Highly distributed into non-vascular compartments.  Distribute very well to various sites of action.     Most of the drug is free and able to be used.         |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | The drug is available for the body to use |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | There are bonds that are reversible (competitve) which bond is usually is not? |  | Definition 
 
        | Covalent- electrons are shared equally, usually is not reversible.     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | You can knock them off of the receptor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | It will not move them off of a receptor. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Protects our patients stomach |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Non-selective.  It can affect the COX 1 and the COX 2 enzymes.  It can affect the stomach lining. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the CYP 450 enzyme system and why do we as APRN's care? |  | Definition 
 
        | Metabolizes drugs.   Approx. greater than 75% go through the CYP 450 system.   If this enzyme is not present they may not respond to the drug you are giving them.   Grapefruit juice interferes with CYP 450.     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Water-loving/water soluble Polar- usually ionized Renal excretion Requires transport mechanism to cross cell membranes & BBB Forms H+ bonds   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Fat loving/ water insoluble Lipophilic Non-polar, usually not ionized Passively diffuses across cell membranes and BBB |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Blood Brain Barrier (BBB) |  | Definition 
 
        | Antihistimine makes them sleepy - the drug is crossing BBB   If you have an infection in the brain- you need a medication that is going to cross the BBB |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hydrophilic drugs can penetrate the CNS via all of the mechanisms listed below except:   A. active transport B. Facilitated transport C. Intrathecal administration D. Passive Diffusion |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Drug binds with Receptor - DR*  (*- illicits a response)   full response   Ex. Morphine   What happens if you keep increasing the dose?  CNS/Respirations become more depressed.  You have a higher risk of going into toxic/lethal dose.   Causes maximal change in cellular activity of target   Stabilizes DR*   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | DR and DR*   Drug binds with a receptor and illicits a response- it also responds to receptors and doesn't illicit a response.   You will not get a full affect like you do with morphine.  This helps with drug withdrawels.   Ex. Buprenorphine   Activates receptor without maximal efficacy   Stabilizes DR and DR* |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Stabilizes DR in the case of R*   If you have a drug that responds to a receptor and you have a low response or no response   Cancer drug- shrink tumor   Inactivates free active receptors. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Competitve-Reversible binding blocks agonist at active or allosteric site   Stabilizes DR, Prevents DR*   Non-Competitive- Irreversible binding blocks agonist at active or allosteric site   Stabilizes DR, Prevents DR*     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Competitive v non-competitive antagonists. |  | Definition 
 
        | Competitive antagonists bind reversibly to the active site, and non competitive antagonists bind irreversibly to the active site or alosteric site. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | the effective dose that produces a quantal effect (all or nothings) % of the population that takes it.  Standard dose selected for initial tx. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | median toxicity dose in 50%   Ex. Diarrhea |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Effective dose and toxic dose |  | Definition 
 
        | The further apart the better.  The wider the therapeutic window. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Lethal dose in 50% of the population. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Effective dose: 200mg-800mg   The higher the dose the closer they are going to be to the toxic dose.   Less likely to get adverse affects if you can get them by on the smaller dose. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following is the most desireable PD for a medication?   Low LD 50 LOW TI High TI Low TD 50 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | PO (oral meds)   First pass effect |  | Definition 
 
        | Goes through GI tract- liver   First pass effect- going to absorb a little of the drug   Transdermal- bypasses the liver.  Doesnt have a first pass effect.  Lower dose needed.   Oral drugs are higher in dosing.     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Ex. Codeine   It has to be metabolized.  It is not active until it is metabolized to its active form (morphine)   Only give PO because it has to be metabolized (first pass effect)     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Irratic absorption   not the same first pass effect as oral. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Nonionized, lipophilic drugs favored for oral absorption   Weak acids are best absorbed in the stomach   Weak bases are best absorbed in the small intestine. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True regarding protein binding |  | Definition 
 
        | Drugs must be free (non protein bound) in order to reach its site of action and be metabolized and eliminated   Druges with a Low Vd may be highly protein bound and more likely to remain in the plasma compartment. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Phenytoin and warfarin interactions |  | Definition 
 
        | dilantin occupied the protein and made more free coumadin increasing his INR   phenytoin can decrease or increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin an decrease is attributed to hepatic enzyme induction, and an increase to displacement of warfarin from protein binding sites.   Vitamin K interferes with warfarin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | On target adverse (intended tissue) |  | Definition 
 
        | Dose too high   Chronic activation or inhibition effectsEx. Increased blood pressure with pseudoephedrine [alpha-1 agonist] given for nasal decongestion
   
  Cough from lisinopril [ACE inhibitor] given for blood pressure control |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | off target adverse (intended tissue) |  | Definition 
 
        | Unintended receptor   Incorrect receptor is activated or inhibited |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | on target adverse (unintended tissue) |  | Definition 
 
        | correct receptor but incorrect tissue   Dose too hight   Chronic activation or inhibition effects   Ex. Benadryl |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | off target (unintended tissue) |  | Definition 
 
        | incorrect receptor is activated or inhibitied   Ex. Beta Blocker |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following describes an off-target effect. |  | Definition 
 
        | Metiprolol (beta- 1 blocker) given for HR control, causes bronchoconstriction in respiratory tract |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Swelling itchy and has a rash   Drug toxicity?   Drug class?   what type of reaction is seen in a positive tb skin test? |  | Definition 
 
        | Type 1- anaphylactic   PCN   TB- Type 4 Cell mediated   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Tissue: Heart   Action: Increased force and rate of contraction   Antagonist: Beta Blocker- decrease BP and HR |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Tissue: Respiratory, uterine, vascular smooth muscle   Actions:  Promotes smooth muscle relaxation   Tissue: Skeletal Muscle   Actions: Promotes potassium uptake   Tissue: Liver   Action:  Activates glycogenolysis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Tissue: Fat Cells   Action: Lypolysis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Tissue: Smooth muscle   Action: Dilates renal blood vessels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Tissue: Nerve endings   Action: Modulates transmitter release   Used in Parkinsons |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Low dose- increase renal perfusion   High dose- increases blood pressure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Muscarinic Effects Mnemonic   SLUG BAM |  | Definition 
 
        | SALIVATION/SECRETIONS/SWEATING LACRIMATIN URINATION GASTROINTESTINAL UPSET BRADYCARDIA/BROCHOCONSTRICTION//BOWEL MOVEMENT ABDOMINAL CRAMPS ANOREXIA MIOSIS   DIARRHEA EMESIS |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ANTICHOLINERGIC SIDE EFFECS; MNEMONIA |  | Definition 
 
        | KNOW THE ABCD'S OF ANTI-CHOLINERGIC SIDE EFFECTS   OR CAN'TS   ANOREXIA  BLURRY VISION CONSTIPATION/CONFUSION DRY MOUTH SEDATION/STASIS OF URINE   CAN'T PEE CAN'T SEE CAN'T SPIT CAN'T SHIT |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | COMMON ANTICHOLINERGIC EFFECTS INCLUDE |  | Definition 
 
        | BLURRED VISION, DRY MOUTH, ILEUS, URINARY RETENTION, TACHYCARDIA |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | MIXED ALPHA AND BETA AGONIST   A1=A2   B1=B2   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Increased mental activity Brochiolar Dilation Increased Resp Rate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | SNS Primary neurotransmitter |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Building blocks of catecholamines |  | Definition 
 
        | Amino acids   Tyrosine and phenylalanine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Non selective sympathomimetic drugs   Epinepherine |  | Definition 
 
        | Direct Acting   alpha 1= alpha 2   betal 1 = beta 2 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Direct acting   alpha 1= alpha 2   Beta 1 >> Beta 2 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Direct Acting   D1/D2, B1, Alpha 1 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Amphetamine, methamphetamine, methylphenidate |  | Definition 
 
        | Indirect Acting   Enhance the release of catecholamines |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
Normal BP <120 systolic and <80 diastolicAll persons with BP >120/80 should initiate “Lifestyle Modifications”Treatment thresholds/goals
<140/90 without DM or kidney disease<130/80 with DM or kidney disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
First-line therapy is thiazide diuretic unless there is a “compelling indication.”Most patients will require at least two medications to reach goal.In many cases, it is more effective to add a second agent from a different drug class than to increase the dose of the first agent. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
Heart failure: Thiazide diuretic, β-blocker, ACEI, ARB, aldosterone antagonistMI: β-blocker, ACEI, aldosterone antagonistHigh CVD risk: Thiazide, β-blocker, ACEI, CCBDiabetes: Thiazide diuretic, β-blocker, ACEI, ARB, CCBChronic kidney disease: ACEI or ARBRecurrent stroke prevention: Thiazide diuretic, ACEIIsolated systolic hypertension: Thiazide diuretic, CCB |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
Diastolic pressure >120 with evidence of progressive end organ damageGoal: decrease DBP to 100-105 within 24 hrsClonidine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 
Diastolic pressure >120 with evidence of end organ failureGoal: decrease DBP 100-105 asapNitroprusside, NTG, Labetalol, Fenoldopam |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Drug Class, Indications, Contraindications |  | Definition 
 
        | 
| Drug Class | Indications | CI |  
| Diuretics | Heart failure, systolic HTN | Gout |  
| β-blockers | CAD, heart failure, migraine, tachyarrhythmias | Asthma, heart block |  
| α-blockers | BPH | Heart failure |  
| CCBs | Systolic HTN | Heart block |  
| ACEIs | Heart failure, previous MI, diabetic nephropathy | RAS, pregnancy, hyperkalemia |  
| ARBs | ACEI-associated cough, diabetic nephropathy, heart failure | RAS, pregnancy, hyperkalemia |  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Down regulation of sympathetic tone |  | Definition 
 
        | 
β1-blockersα1-blockersα2-agonists |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Modulation of vascular smooth tone |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Calcium-channel blockerPotassium-channel openers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | reduction of intravascular volume |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Modulation of renin-angiotensin-aldosteron system |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index.  What does this mean? |  | Definition 
 
        | Proceed very carefully.  Patient can get into trouble quickly. You must monitor these drug levels closely.   Drug interactions can cause this, decreased renal fx, n/v, burn, decreased albumin/protein.   What are your free drug levels? This is the amount of drug that can act |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | High Volume of Distribution   Low Volume of Distribution |  | Definition 
 
        | High volume: highly distributed into non-vascular compartments.  Distribute very well to various sites of action 
 Low volume: retained within vascular compartment (plasma) does not distribute well.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1st line for treatment of HTN |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | HCTZ 
 C.MOA: competitive antagonism of NA CL transporter in distal tubule
 I.AE: hypokalemia
 E.Less effective is Crcl < 30
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Triamterene, amiloride A.MOA: NA channel blockade in collecting duct, increased K reabsorption
 F.Often used with HCTZ
 J.AE: Hyperkalemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Furosemide, bumetanide, torsemide Work in loop of henle
 Indicated more for HF
 -ide
 B.MOA: inhibit Na-K-Cl cotransporter in loop of henle
 G.Alleviate congestive sxs of HF
 H. AE: dose related ototoxicity, decrease Mg, Decrease Ca, "sulfa" allergy
 I.AE: hypokalemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Indicated more for HF -one
 D. MOA: competitive antagonist at aldosterone receptor; inhibits mineralcorticoid receptors
 J.AE: hyperkalemia
 G.Alleviate congestive sxs of HF
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hypertensive patient with asthma on low dose Metoprolol (Lopressor). |  | Definition 
 
        | Beta Blocker. It is selective for B-1. 
 Patient Education: selected a medication that is in theory only to affect heart, but it could affect breathing
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Good choice for someone with HTN and BPH |  | Definition 
 
        | alpha 1 blocker 
 Prazosin or Tamulasin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Start on Methyldopa- drug of choice for pregnancy. 
 (Now they are using Beta Blockers for pregnant women)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | MOA: Decrease sympathetic outflow from vasopressor centers in the brain stem 
 Advantages? Renal blood flow maintained, good for renal insufficiency.  Ok in pregnant women.
 
 AE: sedation, impaired concentration, nightmares, depression, vertigo, EPS, lacatation in men
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Decrease HR, can produce resting bradycardia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | lisinopril, catopril, ramipril, enalapril, fosinopric, quinapril, benazepril MOA: blocks ace from converting angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 Clinical Use: Diabetes with proteinuria, HTN, benefits for Heart Failure AE: Cough (caused by build-up of bradykinin), angioedema, hyper K+  CI: Pregnancy, Renal artery stenosis Use of ibuprofen can interfere with hypertensive meds...it interferes with bradykinin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ARB (angiotensin receptor blocker) -sartan
 |  | Definition 
 
        | -sartan 
 MOA: competitive binding (to angiotensin 2) results in decrease peripheral vasoconstriction
 
 AE: hyperkalemia, headache, diarrhea
 
 CI: Pregnancy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Direct Renin Inhibitors -Tekturna
 |  | Definition 
 
        | works at beginning. 
 Well tolerated- very few adverse effects
 
 CI: pregnancy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CCB (Calcium Channel Blockers) -pine
 |  | Definition 
 
        | MOA: block entry of extracellular Ca which is necessary for contraction 
 Metabolized by CYP3A4 - watch other drugs for competitivity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Selectivity for smooth muscle over cardiac muscle 
 decreased PVR
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Nondihydropyridines Verapamil, diltiazem
 CCB
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Can be used for HTN, antiarrythmic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | a.HCTZ c.Furosemide (lasix)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | B.Spironolactone H.Losartan
 D. Aliskiren (Tekturna)More risk with ACEI
 E.Lisinopril
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | D.Gives off NO-arteriovenous dilation in smooth muscle F.Renal and hepatic insufficiency- risk of cyanide toxicity
 J. avaiable in parenteral form
 K.used in HTN urgency/emergency
 
 Given IV or sublingual
 They need a vacation from it because the drug builds up and it needs to be taken off then put back on.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | A. Stimulates NO formation in endotehlial cells-arteriole dilation H.Adverse effect- SLE
 I.Rapid first pass metabolism
 J.Available parenteral form
 K.Used in HTN uregency/emergency
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | G. D1 stimulation-Diuresis, naturesis J. Available Parenteral form
 K.Used in HTN urgency/emergency
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | B. Used for alopecia as well as HTN C. K+ Channel openers
 E. Active metabolite can cause hypotensive effects for 24hrs despite short t1/2
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | when you should use it...came from research |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | thiazide, BB, ACEI, ARB, aldosterone antag |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | BB, ACEI, aldosterone antag |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | thiazide, BB, ACEI, ARB, CCB |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Indications: heart failure, systolic HTN 
 CI: gout
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Indications: CAD, heart failure, migraine, tachyarrhythmias 
 CI: asthma, heart block
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Indications: BPH CI: Heart failure   MOA: Inhibitor peripheral vasomotor tone, reducing vasoconstriction, decreasing SVR   Precaution: 1st dose effect- postural hypotension Na/H20 retention when given without a diuretic   Hepatically metabolized non -CYP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Indications: systolic HTN 
 CI: heart block
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Indications: heart failure, previous MI, diabetic nephropathy 
 CI: RAS, pregnancy, hyperkalemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ACEI- assoc cough, diabetic nephropathy, heart failure 
 CI: RAS, pregnancy, hyperkalemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | C.Digoxin is a narrow therapeutic index drug D.Digoxin increases parasympathetic outflow.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | mild asthma, Type II DM, headaches |  | Definition 
 
        | Diuretic and an ACE Inhibitor 
 Labs: Potassium, Renal Function, Hgb A1C
 
 Counseling: Diet (Diabetic, low sodium), exercise
 Avoid NSAIDS interferes with ACEI
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ACEI- build up on bradykinin 
 put him on an ARB, put on cholesterol medication
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Come off of ARB, Selective BB, HCTZ is not working anymore, its not effective when patients Cr Cl < 30.  Change his diurectic to loop (lasix is preferred) or aldosterone antagonist. He has left ventricular hypertrophy- we dont use non
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 51 year old hypertensive stable angina
 
 Erectile dysfuction
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Nitrates- patch, sublingual, etc 
 A-aspirin, antianginals
 B-blood pressure, beta blockers
 C: Cholesterol, cigarettes
 D: Diet, Diabetes
 E: Education, exercise
 
 Can he take viagra? No its contraindicated, it can cause hypotension.  Tx with phenylepherine.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ST elevation 
 Medication: thrombolytic
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | No st elevation 
 IV medication-heparin, gPIIb/IIIa
 
 After: what drugs: ASA or clopidogrel, B Blocker, Lipid lowering agent, ACEI, aldosterone antag, antiplatelet, anticoag.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | A.Moderate open Na channel blockade B. Decrease upstroke velocity
 D.Prolong repolarization/QT
 F.K+ blockade-Prolonged QT- Risk for TdP
 G.Anticholinergic effects
 J.AE's include lupus, thrombocytopenia, inotropy
 K.Prolongs AV node conduction/PR
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | B.Decrease upstroke velocity C.Mild open and inactivated Na channel blockade
 E. Not effective for SVT
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | I.Use w/BB's produces additive negative inotropy B.Decrease upstroke velocity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Class 2 Antiarrhythmics 
 AKA Beta Blockers
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Beta receptors 
 Esmolol is injectable
 
 Negative inotropic effect
 
 Slow conduction through the AV node
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Class III antiarrhythmics |  | Definition 
 
        | K+ channels 
 sotalol- has B Blocking action
 
 Dofetilide and Ibutilide cause Torsades de pointes due to the refractory period
 
 Dofetilide must be administered by a provider specifically cerified by the drug company
 
 amiodarone has drug interactions with warfarin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | What drug blue/gray discoloration?  Amiodarone- blocks potassium channels 
 Monitoring/tests? Pulmonary fx test, thyroid, PST, LfT, TFT, eye exam
 
 AE: bradycardia, GI upset, corneal depoists, photo sensitivity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Ca++ Channels 
 Slowed conduction through AV node
 
 The non DHP CCB's are primarily used such as verapamil, diltiazem.
 
 Cannot be used to treat ventricular tachycardia
 
 CI: Heart failure 2nd to ionotropic effects
 
 AE: Excessive AV blockage, bradycardia, hypotension
 
 verapamil-constipation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Prolong QT- delay cardiac cell repolarization |  | Definition 
 
        | A.Quinidine B.Procainamide
 C.Lidocaine
 F.Dofetilide
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | A. Lupus, neutropenia, anemia: Procainamide D.Pulmonary toxicity: Amiodarone
 E.Torsades de Pointes: Ibutilide
 F.Seizures: Lidocaine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | NSAID and Antihypertensives |  | Definition 
 
        | It can cancel some of the effectiveness of the antihypertensives. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Adverse effects of diuretics might be |  | Definition 
 
        | Thiazides: Hypokalemia Potassium Sparing: Hyperkalemia
 Loop: Ototoxicity, hypomag and hypocalcemia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ARB Angiotensin receptor blocker
 Used when coughing (bradykinin) from ACE
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Narrow therapeutic window 
 excreted by kidneys
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Hyper Tension/ Rate control / antiarrythmic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Na+ Channel, Beta Blockers, Potassium, Calcium, |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Taken Viagra- Blood pressure bottoms out
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Clinical Use: MI, ischemic stroke, atrial fib, prosthetic heart valves |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Arterial Thromboses: Antiplatelet Matching
 A. Binds irreversibly
 B. Pro-drug
 C. Metabolized by 2C19
 D. Causes Thrombocytopenia
 E. Causes Neutropenia
 F. Very weak platelet inhibitor
 G.Insufficiently reversed with platelet
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Aspirin: A Clopidogrel:B,C,A
 Ticlopidine:B,D,E
 Dipyridamole:F
 Abciximab: A,H,D
 AE: Increased risk of bleeding
 Eptifibatide,Tirofiban:D, G, H
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | reversed with Vit K 99% Albumin Bound
 Narrow Therapeutic Index
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Preexisting protein C or Protein S deficiency are more prone to skin necrosis. Micro bleeding under the skin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | You give hepain until the warfarin gets to its therapeutic effect because it takes 3-4 days. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 82yr old male with a PMH of atrial fib on warfarin. reports a 3 day hx of bright red bleeding from his rectum.  Which of the following is the most likely cause of his bleeding episode? |  | Definition 
 
        | B. His recent course of antibiotics for URI |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Monitoring: aPtt Route of administration: Parenteral, SubQ
 Half Life: 1-2 hrs
 AE: HIT, bleeding, aminiotransferase levels, Hyperkalemia
 Antidote: Protamine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Monitoring: generally unneccesary. Can measure antifactor xa Route: Parenteral, SubQ
 Half-Life: 4-5 hours
 AE:
 Renally excreted
 Clinical Use:
 Larger therapeutic index
 Used in pregnancy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can help break up an existing clot: |  | Definition 
 
        | B. Fibrinolytics tPA, streptokinase, urokinase
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | -Want this number to be low Will not be treated the same in all cases.  Diabetics- treated
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Want this number to be high |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Take at night because our bodies make cholesterol at night.  It is made in the liver. 
 Block HMG CoA Reductace
 
 Works in hepatocytes
 
 Can cause muscle pain, rhabdomyo (monitor CPK) Elevation of transamines, LFT
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Bile Acid Sequestrants: Work in small intestines |  | Definition 
 
        | Cholestyramine, Colesevelam, colestipol Basic drug
 GI releated AE: bloating, dyspepsia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Zetia- Plant Sterols 
 Works in small intestines
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Downside of having patients lower their cholesterol through diet? Patients would have to eat large quantities of fruits and vegetables. 
 Foods are enhanced with plant sterols.
 
 Metabolized by glucoronization
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Fibrates -act on PPAR alpha 
 -fibr
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Increase HDL and decrease triglycerides. 
 AE: GI discomfort, increased transaminases, rare myopathy, arrhythmia
 
 Drug Interation: Warfarin-displaces it from albumin and increases the free warfarin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Most effective on decreasing triglycerides and increasing HDL 
 Causes- flushing
 
 Predose with asparin or nsaids to prevent flushing
 
 Use with caution in diabetes- causes impaired insulin sensitivity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 44yo male PMH of DM II, HTN Total chole: 260/210 (after 6 wks)
 LDL: 180/105
 HDL:35/35
 Triglycerides: 350/340
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Lifestyle changes (exercise, quit smoking, eating better), Start him on a -Statin. 
 After six weeks add a fibrate or a nitrate.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long does it take to see a change in cholesterol level? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Reduces cholesterol absorption in the small intestines. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which qualities of a substance allow for passive diffusion across the BBB and other membranes? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Non ionized, Lipophilic Drugs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A patient who abruptly stops long-term (> 2 weeks) systemic steroids is at risk for developing: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The difference between Long Acting Beta Agonists (LABA) and Short Acting Beta Agonists (SABA) is as follows |  | Definition 
 
        | LABA’s have a slow onset of action, while SABA’s peak in under an hour |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is an example of first line therapy for ALL asthmatics?
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This anti-gout medication is excreted in both the bile and the urine and therefore can interact with many other medications: |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following statements regarding CORTICOSTEROIDS is TRUE? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inhaled doses are much smaller because the avoid first pass effect |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | As an NP in a busy Allergy practice, you know the following to be true regarding omalizumab (trade name Xolair ): |  | Definition 
 
        | 2.It is a SQ injection given q 2-4 weeks 
 3. It binds IgE and prevents degranualation of mast cells
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | lthough cromolyns stabilize mast cells and have a quick onset of action, they are not considered rescue medications for the following reason: |  | Definition 
 
        | They do not relieve an allergic response after it has begun |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | All of the following are true regarding colchicine, EXCEPT: |  | Definition 
 
        | It significantly decreases uric acid levels in the treatment of gout. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which drug does NOT work on the arachidonic acid pathway |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Dipenhydramine (Benadryl) can treat all of the following conditions EXCEPT |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The major difference between COX1 and selective COX2 inhibitors is the following |  | Definition 
 
        | COX 1 inhibitors inhibit platelet function and selective COX 2 inhibitors do not |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | TRUE OR FALSE?  Anticholinergic effects are more prominent with 1st generation than with 2nd generation H1 antihistamines? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are drug(s) of choice for an ACUTE GOUT attack |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which statement about 2nd generation antihistamines is FALSE |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following seem to be important in absence seizures |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following have significant anticholinergic effects and may cause cardiac conduction abnormalities? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is considered an adequate trial for most antidepressants? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Over time, a patient’s response to levodopa will |  | Definition 
 
        | Decrease primarily due to the development of tolerance |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | All of the following are used as migraine prophylaxis EXCEPT |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When educating your patients about NON-OPIOID analgesics, include all of the following, EXCEPT: |  | Definition 
 
        | Constipation is a chronic side effect |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What distinguishes ASA from other NSAIDS? |  | Definition 
 
        | A Single dose can precipitate an asthma attack |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | All of following are characteristics of full opioid agonists EXCEPT |  | Definition 
 
        | All are metabolized in the liver by the CYP 450 pathway |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following is the best choice to treat pain in an ESRD patient? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Regarding NSAIDS: All of the following are true except |  | Definition 
 
        | They block conversion of arachadonic acid to prostaglandin via the lipo-oxygenase pathway |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In comparing acetaminophen with ASA, the following characteristics are specific to acetaminophen |  | Definition 
 
        | No anti-inflammatory effects There is a maximum daily dose
 It should be used cautiously in patients on INH
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The BOXED warning for NSAIDS |  | Definition 
 
        | Applies to the entire class except aspirin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which statement is correct with regard to FULL agonists and PARTIAL agonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | Partial agonist are less likely to cause dependence |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | You know the following to be TRUE regarding ETOH ABUSE AND WITHDRAWL treatment: |  | Definition 
 
        | Diazepam (Valium) is beneficial due to fast onset and long  T ½ |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The main side effect of methotrexate is _____________ and it can be treated with ____________ |  | Definition 
 
        | Megaloblastic anemia; folic acid |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the following is/are TRUE regarding tramadol (Ultram): |  | Definition 
 
        | t is indicated for moderate to severe pain 
 It blocks re-uptake of NE and 5HT
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | With regard to NSAIDS, the renal adverse effects of this drug class |  | Definition 
 
        | decrease synthesis of renal vasodilator prostaglandins |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following can be used as adjuvant analgesics—most commonly for neuropathic pain? |  | Definition 
 
        | Venlafexine (Effexor), corticosteroids, capsaicin cream, gabapentin (Neurtontin) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In the parasympathetic nervous system, the PRIMARY neurotransmitter is |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Non-selective adrenoreceptor agonists include: 1. Norepinephrine, 2. Clonidine, 3. Terbutaline, 4. Epinephrine |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ____________ is an autoreceptor, present on the adrenergic neuron and its stimulation results in negative feedback |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Most BETA antagonists are used to decrease CO and BP; however timolol and betaxolol are used to treat __________ by decreasing ___________________ |  | Definition 
 
        | Glaucoma/aqueous humor production |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Common anticholinergic effects include: |  | Definition 
 
        | Blurred vision, dry mouth, ileus, urinary retention |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which would be useful in a patient with heart failure and hyperkalemia |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Phenylephrine is used to treat vasodilatation r/t concurrent PD5 inhibitor and isosorbide dinitrate administration. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following AE: Drug combinations is/are correct? |  | Definition 
 
        | Fever, joint pain and hepatomegaly: Procainamide 
 
 Exacerbation of HF : Flecainide
 
 
 Tinnitus : Quinidine
 
 
 Pulmonary toxicity : Amiodarone
 
 
 Torsades de Pointes : Sotalol
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following accelerate cardiac cell repolarization? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lidocaine 
 
 Mexiletine
 
 
 Tocainide
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following statements regarding digoxin’s therapeutic effects are true? |  | Definition 
 
        | Digoxin increases urine production by increasing renal blood flow 
 
 Digoxin’s arterial effects lead to a reduction in release of renin, aldosterone and angiotensin II
 
 
 Digoxin reduces sympathetic tone via the baroreceptor reflex
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A patient's digoxin level is 1.9. Which is NOT is a likely cause? |  | Definition 
 
        | Beta Blocker used to treat his AV block |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following delay cardiac cell repolarization, thus increasing the risk of Torsades de Pointes? |  | Definition 
 
        | Quinidine 
 
 Procainamide
 
 
 Sotalol
 
 
 Bretylium
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When considering the compelling indications, which of the following would be appropriate drug therapies? |  | Definition 
 
        | A pt with DM taking HCTZ and Captopril. 
 
 A pt with CKD taking Valsartan
 
 
 A pt with a h/o MI taking Metoprolol, Lisinopril and Spironolactone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following are considered “kidney protective” and used in diabetic patients? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following patient counseling is inappropriate? |  | Definition 
 
        | Explaining that the diarrhea and flatulence related to ezetimibe will decrease with time
 Response Feedback:
 No GI AE’s with cholesterol absorption inhibitors.
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following regarding the clinical use of unfractionated heparin is FALSE? |  | Definition 
 
        | It is the DOC for outpatient DVT prevention post hip and knee replacement surgery |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the MOA of lipid-lowering agents? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ezetimibe (Zetia) reduces cholesterol absorption by the gallbladder. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A 69 y/o male patient who has been taking Coumadin for three yrs for a-fib shows up in your office with a 3-day history of bright red bleeding from his rectum. Which of the following is the most likely cause? |  | Definition 
 
        | recent course of antibiotics for URI |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Diastolic >120 with evidence of progressive end organ damage Goal: Decrease BP to 100-105 within 24 hours
 TX: Clonodine
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Diastolinc pressure >120 with evidence of end organ failure Goal: Decrease DBP 100-105 asap
 Nitroprusside, NTG, labetalol, fenoldopam
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Down regulators of sympathetic tone |  | Definition 
 
        | B1 Blick, Alpha 1 block, alpha 2 Agonist |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | diuretics, aldosterone antag, venodilators |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ACE I, B Blockers, Vasodialators |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Cardiac Glycosides, sympathomimetic amines, phosphodiasterase inhibitors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Venous Thromboses Coagulation Factors affected by:
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Unfractionated Heparin: xa, IIa (Thrombin) (Direct thrombin inhibitor- Argatroban: X, Xa, IIa (thrombin- negligible)
 Selective Factor Xa- Fondaparinux: Xa
 Direct thrombin inhibitor- Dabigatran: Xa, IIa (Thrombin)
 Warfarin: II, VII, IX, X
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) or fish oils 
 Reduce TG biosynthesis and increase fatty acid oxidation in the liver
 
 OTC (13-63%) RX: Lovaza 84%
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ATP III Guidelines for Cholesterol 
 Step 1
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Step 1: Determine lipoprotein levels- obtain complete lipoprotein profile after 9-12 hour fast |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | LDL Cholesterol- Primary Target of Therapy |  | Definition 
 
        | <100 Optimal 100-129 Near Optimal/Above Optimal
 130-159 Borderline high
 160-189 High
 >=190 Very High
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | <200 Desirable 200-239 Borderline High
 >=240 High
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Identify presence of clinical atherosclerotic disease that confers high risk for coronary heart disease (CHD) events (CHD risk eqivalent) 
 Clinical CHD
 Symptomatic carotid artery disease
 Peripheral arterial disease
 abdominal aortic aneurysm
 
 Note in ATP III Diabetes is regarded as a CHD risk equivalent
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Determine presence of major risk factors (other than LDL) Cigarette Smoking
 Hypertension (>=140/90)
 Low HDL cholesterol (<40)
 Family history of premature CHD (CHD in male first degree relative <55 years; CHD in female first degree relative <65 years)
 Age (men >=45; women>=55)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | If 2+ risk factors (other than LDL) are present without CHD or CHD risk equivalent, assess 10 year short term CHD risk.  Three levels of 10 year risk: >20%- CHD risk equivalent; 10-20%; <10% |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Determine risk category 
 Establish LDL goal
 Determine need for therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC)
 Determine the need for drug therapy
 LDL Cholesterol Goals and Cutpoints for Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) and Drug Therapy in Different Risk Categories.
 
 Risk Category	LDL Goal (mg/dL)	LDL at Which to Initiate TLC (mg/dL)	LDL at Which to Consider Drug Therapy (mg/dL)
 CHD or CHD Risk Equivalent (10-year risk > 20%)	<100
 (optimal < 70)	 ≥100	 ≥130
 (100-129: drug optional)
 2+ Risk Factors
 (10-year risk ≤20%)	<130	 ≥130	 10-year risk 10-20%
 ≥130
 10-year risk < 10%
 ≥160
 0-1 Risk Factor	<160	≥160	 ≥190
 (160-189: drug optional)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Diet – low saturated fat, low cholesterol Weight management
 Increased physical activity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Step 7: Consider adding drug therapy if LDL exceeds levels shown in Step 5 table |  | Definition 
 
        | Consider drug simultaneously with TLC for CHD and CHD equivalents Consider adding drug to TLC after 3 months for other risk categories
 See Table in ATP III Guidelines
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Step 8: Identify metabolic syndrome and treat, if present, after 3 months of TLC |  | Definition 
 
        | Metabolic Syndrome (any 3 of the following) 
 Abdominal obesity: based on waist circumference
 Elevate triglycerides: ≥ 150 mg/dL
 Low HDL: men < 40 mg/dL; women < 50 mg/dL
 Blood pressure ≥130/≥85 mmHg
 Fasting glucose ≥ 110 mg/dL
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Step 9: Treat elevated triglycerides |  | Definition 
 
        | Primary aim of therapy is to reach LDL goal Intensify weight management
 Increase physical activity
 
 If triglycerides are ≥ 200 mg/dL after LDL goal is reached, secondary goal is non-HDL cholesterol (total cholesterol minus HDL)
 
 Non-HDL goal is 30 mg/dL higher than LDL goal
 
 Risk Category	LDL Goal (mg/dL)	Non-HDL Goal (mg/dL)
 CHD or CHD Risk Equivalent (10-year risk > 20%)	<100	 <130
 
 2+ Risk Factors
 (10-year risk ≤20%)	<130	 <160
 
 0-1 Risk Factor	<160	<190
 
 If TGs 200-499 mg/dL after LDL goal is reached, consider adding drug if needed to reach non-HDL goal:
 
 Intensify therapy with LDL-lowering drug
 Add nicotinic acid or fibrate
 |  | 
        |  |