| Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Stenosis is a complete obstruction of blood vessels. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 2 types of stenosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Rapid stenosis = Thrombus/embolism 2. Gradual stenosis = Atheroslerosis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Stenosis of the vessels going to the brain cause ___, while stenosis of does going to the heart cause ____. |  | Definition 
 
        | Brain = stroke Heart = Myocardial ischemia or infarction |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The 3 basic component of blood vessels include: |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Endothelial cells 2. Smooth muscles cells 3. Extracellular matrix eg. elastin, collagen and glycosoaminoglycans |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: To withstand the pulsatile flow and higher blood pressures in arteries, arterial walls are generally thinner than the walls of veins. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: To withstand the pulsatile flow and higher blood pressures in arteries, arterial walls are generally thicker than the walls of veins. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Arterial wall thickness gradually _____as the vessels become smaller, but the ratio of wall thickness to lumen diameter ___. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In normal arteries, the ____consists of a single layer of endothelial cells with minimal underlying subendothelial connective tissue. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The intima is separated from the media by a dense elastic membrane called the ___. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Diffusion from the lumen is inadequate for the outer portions of the media in large and medium-sized vessels, therefore these areas are nourished by small arterioles called ____, arising from outside the vessel coursing into the outer 1/2 to 2/3rds of the media. |  | Definition 
 
        | vasa vasorum, literally “vessels of the vessels” |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Arteries are divided into three types: |  | Definition 
 
        | (1) large or elastic arteries, including the aorta, its large branches (particularly the innominate, subclavian, common carotid, and iliac), and pulmonary arteries;  (2) medium-sized or muscular arteries, comprising other branches of the aorta (e.g., coronary and renal arteries); and  (3) small arteries (less than approximately 2 mm in diameter) and arterioles (20 to 100 μm in diameter), within the substance of tissues and organs. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The relative amount and configuration of the basic constituents differ along the arterial system due to local adaptations to __ or ___ |  | Definition 
 
        | mechanical or metabolic needs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Structural variations in the vessels, from location to location, are principally in the ___ and ___. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In muscular arteries the media is composed predominantly of ___  or ___ arranged smooth muscle cells. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In the muscular arteries and arterioles, regional blood flow and blood pressure are regulated by changes in lumen size through ___, controlled in part by ___ system and by local ___ factors. |  | Definition 
 
        | Smooth muscle cell contraction (vasoconstriction) or relaxation (vasodilation), controlled in part by the autonomic nervous system and in part by local metabolic factors and cellular interactions. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Reducing the diameter of a vessel by 1/2 leads to ___, therefore small changes in the lumen size of small arteries caused by structural change or vasoconstriction can have a profound effect. Thus, ____ are the principal points of physiologic resistance to blood flow. |  | Definition 
 
        | 16-fold increase in resistance to flow (vasocontriction);   Arterioles  = principle points of physiologic resistance to blood flow |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Capillaries, approximately the diameter of a red blood cell (7 to 8 μm), have an endothelial cell lining but no ___. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Blood from capillary beds flows initially into the postcapillary venules and then sequentially through collecting venules and small, medium, and large veins. In many types of inflammation, vascular leakage and leukocyte exudation occur preferentially in _____. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: because of their poor support, veins are predisposed to irregular dilation, compression, and easy penetration by tumors and inflammatory processes. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ____ constitute an important pathway for disease dissemination through transport of bacteria and tumor cells to distant sites. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Atherosclerosis affects ___, hypertension affects ____, and specific types of ____involve different vascular segments. |  | Definition 
 
        | Atherosclerosis = elastic and muscular arteries 
 Hypertension = small muscular arteries and arterioles 
 Vasculitis = vascular segments |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 major processes that characterize blood vessel formation and remodeling are: |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Vasculogenesis -de novo formation of blood vessels during embryogenesis  2. Angiogenesis - process of new vessel formation in the mature organism. 3. Andarteriogenesis - remodeling of existing arteries in response to chronic changes in pressure or flow, and results from an interplay of endothelial cell–and smooth muscle cell–derived factors. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___is critical for maintaining vessel wall homeostasis and circulatory function. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___and ___ a protein localized to interendothelial junctions) can be used to identify endothelial cells immunohistochemically. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Important functions of endothelium are: |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Maintain homeostasis and circulation 2.Non-thrombogenic blood-tissue  3. Modulate vascular resistance 4. Metabolize hormones 5. Regulate inflammation, and affect the growth of other cell types, particularly smooth muscle cells. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is defined as an altered phenotype that impairs vasoreactivity or induces a surface that is thrombogenic or abnormally adhesive to inflammatory cells. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | As the predominant cellular element of the vascular media, _____ cells play important roles in normal vascular repair and pathologic processes such as atherosclerosi |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ____ cells are also responsible for the vasoconstriction or dilation that occurs in response to physiologic or pharmacologic stimuli. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the 6 smooth muscle growth promoters and the 3 growth inhibitors. |  | Definition 
 
        | Promoters include: 1. PDGF 2. Endothelin-1 3. Thrombin 4. Fibroblast growth factor (FGF) 5. Interferon-γ (IFN-γ) 6. Interleukin-1(IL-1). 
 Growth Inhibitors include: 1. Heparan sulfates 2. Nitric oxide 3. TGF-β.  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A typical response to vascular injury is ___ . |  | Definition 
 
        | The thickening of the intima |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Healing of injured vessels is analogous to the healing process that occurs in other damaged tissues  and in vessels, it results in the formation of a ___. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Explain the process that occurs during response to vessel injury. |  | Definition 
 
        | After injury, endothelial cells migrate from uninjured area to injured area, or is made from circulating precursors. Also, precursor from media smooth muscle cells and precursors cells will migrate into the intima, where they proliferate and synthesize extracellular matrix, forming a Neointima. The accumulation of neointima in the vessel leads to obstruction of blood flow. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give and describe the 8 factors that regulate blood pressure. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Blood pressure (BP) = Q * PR (Q or PR is increased = increased BP) 2. Cardiac output (Q -- 100ml/s) = BV * Heart Function 3. Blood volume (BV) = fluid intake * fluid secretion (loss) 4. Heart function (HF) = Heart rate (HR) * Stroke Volume (SV) 5. Pressure gradient (change in BP) / PR = Flow = Q 6. Peripheral resistance = or < metabolic needs and nervous system. 7. Conductance (Q/change in BP) = 1/PR i.e as conductance increases, peripheral resistance decreases or vice-versa. 8. Increase in hematocrit = increase in PR     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the regulatory feedbacks for blood pressure? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Bloo pressure is down = Stroke volume increases, large venous reservoirs contract to push more blood and peripheral resistance increases. 2. Nervous system = has fast/immediate action during low BP. 3. Kidneys = delayed action  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the 4 major factors that influence blood pressure.   |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Age 2. Gender 3. BMI  4. Diet (salt intake) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Peripheral resistance is mediated by ___ |  | Definition 
 
        | Sympathetic nervous system - catecholamines (epinephrine) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 5 factors that decreases peripheral resistance (dilation). |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Increased Nitric oxide 2. Increased Prostacyclin 3. Increased Kinins 4. Increased Atrial natriuetic peptide (decreases blood volume) 5. Decreased neural factors (beta-adrenergics)   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 3 factors that decreases cardiac output. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Decreased blood volume (increased ANP) 2. Decreased heart rate 3. Decreased contractility |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 3 factors that increases cardiac output. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Increased heart rate 2. Increased contractility 3. Increased blood volume (aldosterone) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 5 factors that increases peripheral resistance (constriction) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Increased Catecholamines (sympathetic NS--> epinephrine) 2. Increased Angiotensin II (from liver; needs renin from kidney) 3. Increased thromboxane 4. Increased endothelin 5. Increased neural factor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the autonomic nervous system process that leads to vasoconstriction and vasodilation. |  | Definition 
 
        | Increased blood pressure= Norepinephrine binds and stimulates alpha-1 and epinephrine on beta-1 receptor in the smooth muscle (vasoconstriction occurs).   Decreased blood pressure (Vasodilation) =  Norepinephrine binds to alpha-2 receptor and Epinephrine binds and beta-2 receptors on the muscle muscle.   Note: Epinephrine binds the Beta-1 and 2, while Norepinephrine binds alpha-1 and 2 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Stimulation of this receptor cause increased sodium reabsorption. |  | Definition 
 
        | Alpha-1 stimulation by norepinephrine = increased Na reabsorption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Stimulation of this receptor in the kidney causes increased renin production and therefore increased cardiac output. |  | Definition 
 
        | Beta-1 stimulation by epinephrine = increased renin from kidney = increased angiotensin II and aldosterone = increase cardiac output     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the process that leads to hypertension via Renin, Angiotensin and Aldosterone. |  | Definition 
 
        | Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is released from the heart and causes vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure, then to avoid renal stenosis due to low volume, the blood pressure has to increase and this happens when the kidney releases renin and the liver releases angiotensinohgen. The renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I, which is converted to angiotensin II by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE). Some Angiotensin II is converted to aldosterone in the adrenal gland, where aldosterone cause reabsorption of water and increased blood volume, the remaining angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Increased sympathetic tone would lead to ___ |  | Definition 
 
        | Increased sympathetic tone = vasoconstriction = increased resistance = increased pressure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the definition of hypertension according to the National Heart, Lung and Blood institute of USA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Sustained systolic pressure greater than 139 mm Hg and diastolic of 89 mm Hg.     Normal = less than 140/90 mmHg   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | __ % of individuals in the general population are hypertensive. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ leads to 1/3 of all stroke, ischemic heart attack or congestive heart failure and 50% mortality rate if left untreated. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is a multifactorial disorder resulting from the combination of genetic and environmental factors. |  | Definition 
 
        | Hypertensive vascular diseases - etiology is a combination of genetics and environment |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe important facts about Malignant hypertension. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Also known as Accelerated hypertension 2. Has to be 200/120 mm Hg sustained for a long time + renal failure + Retinal hemorrhage and Exudate +/- Papilledema.   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What pathogenesis in arteries lead to hypertension? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Atherosclerosis 2. Hyaline Arteriolosclerosis - when plasma components leak into the walls of the artery. 3. Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis - occurs in kidney and is cause of Malignant hypertension. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Intermittent Claudication? |  | Definition 
 
        | Atheresclerosis of the lower extremities |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Some portion of the glomeruli has fibrosis (due to injury/vascular damage?) that causes the lumen to be enlarged, impairing and compressing capillaries. This reduces the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Elimination or altered of this receptor in the proximal tubule epithelium of the kidney would decrease or control  hypertension caused by the kidney. What is this receptor. |  | Definition 
 
        | AT1 receptors for angiotensin II. Remember angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction of the blood vessels (in this case, those in the kidneys) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The ___ in kidney is the key component of RAS and is also the source of angiotensinogen and angiotensin II in the kidney. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ can cause exaggerated changes in blood pressure in a substancial subset of human population. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Explain hypertensive vascular disease as an autoimmune disease. |  | Definition 
 
        | In mice, when the RAG-1 gene that codes for B cells and T cells were disrupted or altered, the mice became resistant to hypertension. Why? Because the T cell infiltrates the adventitia (outer layer of blood vessel) where it releases NADPH oxidase and IL-17 causing increase in blood pressure. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ and ____ expression in T cells cause elevation of blood pressure. |  | Definition 
 
        | NADPH oxidase and IL-17   Also note: this occurs when T-cells enters the adventitia of the blood vessel |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | New therapy of vaccination against hypertension targets this hormone. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 3 areas of target for treatment of hypertension. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Lifestyle modification and dietary regimen change 2. Vaccines against angiotensin II 3. Renal denervation in those with refractory hypertension |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ nervous system regulates peripheral resistance and the kidney. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cardiac out depends on __ and ___ |  | Definition 
 
        | Mycardial contractility and Ventricular filling pressure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main function of the kidney? |  | Definition 
 
        | Maintenance of normal body fluid volume and electrolyte balance |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the normal filtration rate of the kidney? |  | Definition 
 
        | GFR about 120 ml/min = 99% of the filtered fluid and electrolytes are reabsorbed via active and passive transport and urine production is about 1 ml/min. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Basic urine-forming unit that is composed of the glomerulus (where filtration occurs) and the tubules (where reabsorption and conditioning occurs). |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The ___ brings blood into the nephron, which is then filtered and excreted via the ____. |  | Definition 
 
        | Afferent brings blood in  Efferent removes the filtered blood |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Reabsorption is greatest at the ___ and decreases towards  the ____ |  | Definition 
 
        | Proximal tubule = highest reabsorption Collecting duct = lowest reabsorption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Majority of the sodium is reabsorbed at the ___, which is also highly permeable of H2O.   |  | Definition 
 
        | Proximal tubule = 65% of Na+ reabsorbed |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 25% of Na+ is reabsorbed in the ___ |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the properties of the thin descending limb of the nephron? |  | Definition 
 
        | Water is absorbed but not Na+ or urea          [image] |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the property of the thin ascending limb? |  | Definition 
 
        | Na+ and urea absorption but no water reabsorption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the property of the thick ascending limb? |  | Definition 
 
        | Main segment of the loop of Henle for Na+ reabsorption. - No water reabsorption, only Na+ |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main function of the late distal tubule and distal convoluted tubule? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Na+ reabsorption is controlled by ___ |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | H2O reabsorption is controlled by the ___ |  | Definition 
 
        | Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The main function of the late distal tubule and collecting tubule (duct) are? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Fine control of ultrafiltrate composition 2. Volume control |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is a major determinant of extracellular fluid volume in the body? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ increases the rate of urine flow and Na+ and Cl- excretion out of the kidney. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The initial blood pressure-lowering effect of diuretics is due to ____ |  | Definition 
 
        | Increase Na+ excretion and reduction of extracellular fluid volume. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Chronic blood pressure-lowering effect of diuretics is because of the reduction of ____. |  | Definition 
 
        | Reduction of peripheral resistance = chronic (long term) reduction in blood pressure (mechanism is not yet fully understood). |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Site of action of loop (high ceiling) diuretics is the ___ |  | Definition 
 
        | Thick Ascending limb of the loop of Henle (25% Na reabsorption occurs here!!) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of action for loop/high ceiling diuretics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Direct inhibition of Na+/K/Cl symporter/reabsorption. Indirect inhibition of Ca2+ and Mg2+ reabsorption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the 2 main urinary and hemodynamic effects of loop diuretics. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Very high increase in urine flow (output) a. increase in Na/Cl/K/Ca2+/Mg2+ excretion  b. Increase in uric acid excretion (if used acutely) and decrease in uric acid excretion if used chronically.   2. Reduced blood volume and blood pressure (initially) followed by renin release and SNS activity. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 5 main therapeutic uses for loop diuretics |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Hypertension and Heart failure 2. Acute pulmonary edema 3. Edemas and Ascites (fluid accumulation in peritoneal cavity) 4. Drug overdose (induce diuresis - excessive urin production) 5. Hypercalcemia (in combi with isotonic saline to prevent vol. depletion) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 4 main adverse effects of loop diuretics? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Electrolyte imbalance a. Hypokalemia, Hyponatremia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia and hypochloremic alkalosis 2. Ototoxicity - common with Ethacrynic acid 3. Hyperuricemia and hypoglycemia (rarely precipitating gout or diabetes mellitus) 4. May increase LDL cholesterol & decrease HDL cholesterol levels.   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which loop diuretic is most orally bioavailable? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ethacrynic Acid (Edecrin) = 100% oral biovailable then  Bumetanide (Bumex) = Torsemide (Demedex) = at 80%   Least orally bioavailable = Furosemide (Lasix) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which loop diuretic is the most potent, and the least potent? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bumetanide (Bumex) = most potent     Ethacrynic Acid (Edecrin) = least potent |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which loop diuretic has the longest half-life; shortest half-life? |  | Definition 
 
        | Longest half-life = Torsemide (Demedex)   Shortest half-life = Bumetanide (Bumex) - also the most potent. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the 4 thiazide/ thiazide-like diuretics and their brand names. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Indapamide - Lozol 2.Hyrochlorothiazide - Microzide 3. Chlorthalidone - Hygroton 4. Metolozone - Zaroxolyn   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the site of action of thiazides. |  | Definition 
 
        | Distal convoluted tubule (5% Na reabsorption) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inhibition of Na/Cl symporter  and inhibition of Na and Cl reabsorption into cell |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 5 main urinary and hemodynamic effects of thiazide diuretics. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Moderate increase in urine flow (output) a. increased Na and Cl excretion b. Indirect increase in excretion of K+  c. Chronic use = decrease excretion of Ca2+ and uric acid     2. Lower blood pressure in result of increase Na+ excretion   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 5 therapeutic uses for thiazide diuretics. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Hypertension 2. Edema-associated heart failure, cirrhosis of liver and kidney failure. 3. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 4. Ca2+ nephrolithiasis (kidney stones)  5. Osteoporosis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Except for ___ and ___ the diuretic effects of thiazide drugs is altered when GFR is ___. |  | Definition 
 
        | Altered if GFR <35 ml/min   Exception: Metolozome (Zaroxolyln)  &  Indapamide (Lozol) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | give 4 main adverse effects of thiazide diuretics. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance a. decrease in extracellular fluid volume = hypotension b. Hyponatremia, hypokalemia (arrhythmia risk), hypochloremia (metabolic alkalosis), hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia. Hyperuricemia (high risk for gout)   2. Reduce glucose tolerance - may unmask latent diabetes (reduced insulin secretion - type 1) 3. Increase risk of sexual potency 4. Increase LDL cholesterol, total cholesterol and triglycerides. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which type of diuretic increases risk of gout due to hyperuricemia? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which diuretic may unmask latent diabetes mellitus. |  | Definition 
 
        | Thiazide diuretics - due to reduce glucose tolerance (and reduced insulin levels or K+ levels) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the site of action of Potassium-sparing diuretics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Late distal tubule and Collecting ducts - 2% |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the two classes of K+-sparing diuretics and give the names of the drugs. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Na+ channel inhibitors: a. Amiloride - Midamor b. Triamterene - Dyrenium 
 2. Aldosterone antagonists: a. Eplerenone - Inspra b. Spironolactone - Aldactone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of Na+ channel inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | Both are classes of K+-sparing diuretics: they inhibit Na+ reabsorption and preventing K+ excretion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is a Na+ channel inhibitor that can reduce glicose tolerance and cause photosensitivity. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 2 main urinary effects of Na+ inhibitors. |  | Definition 
 
        | Slight increase in urine flow due to" 1. slight excretion of Na+ and Cl 2. decrease excretion of K+     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 3 main adverse effects of Na+ inhibitors. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Hyperkalemia - since they reduce K+ excretion 2. Nausea, vomitting, diarrhea and headache 3. Triamterene (Dyrenium) can cause reduce glucose tolerance and photosensitivity. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which class of diuretics causes a fine adjustment of urine composition? |  | Definition 
 
        | K+ - sparing diuretics - works on late distal tubule + collecting ducts |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 4 main therapeutic uses of K+-sparing diuretics? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Both classes are used to spare K+ from excretion (reduces heart arrhythmia) 2. Aldosterone antagonist used for Heart failure  3. Spironolactone (Aldactone) is useful in primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. 4. Spironolactone (Aldactone) is used for hepatic cirrhosis   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 3 main adverse effects of potassium-sparing diuretics. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Hyperkalemia 2. Spironolactone can cause gynecomastia, secual impotency, decreased libido. 3. Spironolactone may alter clearance of digitalis glycosides |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which K+-sparing diuretic: 1. has the longest t1/2? Shortest? 2. Which is most orally bioavailable? Least? 3. All of them are equally potent, but which is the least potent? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Longest t1/2 = Amiloride (Midamor); shortest t1/2 = Spironolactone (Aldactone)   2. Most oral bioavail = Eplerenone (Inspra); least oral bioavail = Amiloride (Midamor)   3. Least potent = Triamterene (Dyrenium) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is an important regulator of blood pressure (Short and long term regulation) and hydromineral balance of the body. |  | Definition 
 
        | Renin-angiotensin system (RAS) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ____ is the rate-limiting step of the RAS system |  | Definition 
 
        | Angiotensinogen --> Angiotensin I (inactive peptide) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Angiotensin I --(NEP)-> Angiotensin 1-7   Angiotensin II --(ACE-2)-> Angiotensin 1-7   It is a peptide made by when NEP converts angiotensin I to Angiotensin 1-7 or when ACE-2 converts Angiotensin II to angiotensin 1-7.   It has opposite effects of angiotensin II.   Uses Mas receptor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is the main active peptide of the RAS system (has 8 amino acids) and acts through AT1 (mostly via AT1) and AT2 receptors |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is a protease on the membrane of vascular endothelial cells (mainly lungs) and circulating blood. |  | Definition 
 
        | Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is the mediator of pressor effects of angiotensin II. |  | Definition 
 
        | Type I receptors (AT1 receptors) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give a quick description of the regulation of renin secretion. |  | Definition 
 
        | Low Na+ in the distal tubule due to increased filtration/excretion of Na+ leads to reduced blood volume and reduced arterial pressure. The Macula densa senses the reduced flux of Na across it surfaces and sends a signal to the intrarenal baroreceptors of the afferent arterioles of the kidney where the juxtaglomerular cell is located. The afferent arterioles constricts to reduce Na+ filtration, and the reduced pressure activates the beta-1 adrenergic receptors (due to Norepinephrine acting on the sympathatic NS) of juxtaglomerular cells causing the release of renin. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | __ feedback inhibits the release of renin by juxtaglomerular cells. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the short-loop negative feedback and the 3 long-loop negative feedback mechanisms that inhibit renin release. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Short-loop negative feedback: stimulating angiotensin receptors (AT1 or AT2) on juxtaglomerular cells decreases renin release 
 2. Long-loop negative feedback:  a. Macula densa pathway = increased filtration causes more Na in the filtrate. b. Intrarenal baroreceptor pathway: increased blood pressure on afferent arterioles causes decreased renin released. c. Beta-adrenergic receptors on juxtaglomerular: decreased norepinephrine from sympathetic NS causes decreased activation of Beta receptors and decreased renin. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Both two receptors of the angiotensin II belongs to __ class of receptors. |  | Definition 
 
        | G-protein coupled receptors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the 6 organs of AT1 receptors in the body and their its effect on these organs. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Brain: increases release of vasopressin and regulation of thirst & salt appetite, and increase sympathic NS outflow 2. Heart: stimulate myocardial hypertrophy and collagen synthesis. 3. Kidney: contraction of the efferent and afferent (to lesser decree) arterioles; increase Na reabsorption in proximal tubule; and inhibit renin release from JG cell. 4. Adrenal cortex: aldosterone secretion 5. Adrenal medulla: Epinephrine release 6. Vasculature: vasocontrictio on vascular system; and smooth muscle hypertrophy. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the 4 mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Decrease angiotensin II  2. Indirectly increases Angiotens 1-7  3. Increase bradykinin levels --> reduction in blood pressure 4. Increase renin activity because negative feedback by angiotensin II is not function.     In other words, ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin (role of dilation of blood vessels) and Angiotensin 1-7 (opposite role of angiotensin I - reduce peripheral resistance) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Profound sensitivity towards ACE inhibitors is increased in patients with ___ |  | Definition 
 
        | Activated RAS system (due to low salt diet, heart failure etc) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 5 actions of ACE inhibitors in hypertensive patients. |  | Definition 
 
        | Overall reduction in systemic blood pressure: 1. Decrease vascular resistance and blood pressure   2. Decrease glomerular filtration rate and/or filtration fraction   3. Increased compliance of large arteries (reduction in systolic pressure)   4. Aldosterone is slightly decreased = less K excretion and less Na reabsorption - increase risk of arrhythmia   5. Cardiac function is usually unchanged     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 5 main therapeutic uses for ACE inhibitors |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Hypertension 2. Left ventricular systolic dysfunction 3. Acute myocardial infarction 4. Prevention of CAD and stroke 5. Chronic renal failure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which class of hypertensive drug should not be given to pregnant women? |  | Definition 
 
        | ACE inhibitors - teratogenic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This class of hypertensive drug causes angioedema, dysgeusia (loss of taste) and neutropenia. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 6 effects of AT1 receptor antagonists. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Vasodilation and reduction of peripheral resistance 2. Reduction of aldosterone 3. Inhibits sympathetic activity 4. Increase renin secretion and activity (inhibits feedback inhibition of Angiotensin II on renin) 5. Increase angiotensin level 6. Improves hemodynamic profile in heart and kidney |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List the 8 AT1 receptor antagonist a.k.a ARBs drugs and their brand names. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1.  Azilsartan - Edarbi 2. Candesartan - Atacand 3. Eprosartan - Teveten 4. Irbesartan - Avapro 5. Losartan - Cozaar 6. Olmesartan - Benicar 7. Telmisartan - Micardis 8. Valsartan - Diovan 
 
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | All of the Angiotensin Receptor Blockers are orally active, except for 2 which are prodrugs. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Olmesartan (Benicar)   2. Candesartan (Atacand) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the 3 AT1 receptor antagonists/Angiotensin Receptor blockers (ARB) that should not be taken with food. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Losartan (Cozaar)   2. Valsartan (Diovan)   3. Telmisartan (Micardis) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 4 differences between ACE inhibitors and ARB. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. ACE increases renin levels, while ARB increase both renin and Angiotensin II levels. 2. ARB reduces AT1 receptor activities better than ACE inhibitors (duh, ARB inhibit AT1-r directly) 3. ACE inhibitors increases Angiotens 1-7 and bradykinin more than ARBs. 4. In ARBs, the increased Angiotensin II can bind to AT2-r causing opposite effect of AT1 = more reduction in blood pressure. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ____ is a renin inhibitor. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Avoid this type of food while taking Aliskiren (renin inhibitor). |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the indication for Aliskiren? |  | Definition 
 
        | Aliskiren - renin inhibitor = used for hypertension in monotherapy or in combination. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In resting conditions/state, ___ Ca2+ level is low (<0.1um), while ___ Ca2+ level is 10,000 fold higher (~1mM). |  | Definition 
 
        | Intracellular Ca2+ is low during resting while extracellular Ca2+ is 10,000 fold higher |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of Calcium Channel Blockers (CCB)? |  | Definition 
 
        | CCBs inhibit/block L-type Ca2+ channels, reducing the infux of Ca2+. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 2 types of CCBs and their examples. |  | Definition 
 
        | Dihydropyridines CCB: 
 Amlodipine (Norvasc) Clevidipine (Cleviprex) Felodipine (Plendil) Isradipine (DynaCirc) Nisoldipine (Sular) Nifedipine (Procardia XL, Adalat CC) Nicardipine (Cardene SR)   Non-dihydropyridines CCB: Verapamil (Calan, Covera, Isoptin, Verelan) Diltiazem (Cardiaxem, Cartia, Dilacor, Tiazac) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the difference between dihydropyridine CCB vs. non-hydropyridine CCB. |  | Definition 
 
        | Dihydropyridine CCBs access the close-channel state and stabilizes it, and act mainly on arterial muscle cells by causing vasodilation.   Non-hydropyridine CCBs access the open-state Ca2+ and inactivates it, by slowing down recovery of Ca2+. Has more profound effect on heart, |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Non-hydropyridine has more effect on ____, while hydropyridine have more effect on ____. |  | Definition 
 
        | Non-dihydropyridines = heart = open channels hydropyridines = arterial muscle = closed channels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the effects (increase, decrease or no effect) of dihyro-and non-dihyropyridines on:   a. Coronary vessel tone b. coronary blood flow c. peripheral vasodilation d. heart rate e. heart contractility f. AV conduction |  | Definition 
 
        | a. Coronary vessel tone  = dihydro (decrease more), non-dihydro (decreases but less)   b. coronary blood flow = dihydro (increases more), non-dihydro (increases but less)   c. peripheral vasodilation = dihydro (increases more), non-dihydro (increases less)   d. heart rate = dihydro (decrease less), non-dihydro (decreases more)   e. heart contractility = dihydro (slight increase) , non-dihydro (slight decreases )   f. AV conduction = dihydro (no effect), non-dihydro (decreases) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the 3 main cardiovascular effect of CCBs. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Increase contraction of smooth muscles and Vasodilation of arteries leading to: a. decreased peripheral resistance b. decreased coronary vascular resistance c. Increased blood flow d. Decreased cardiac output and decreased heart rate   2. Contraction of cardiac myocytes: a. decreased inotropic effects and decreased oxygen demand 
 3. Regulates Pacemaker rate in SA node and conduction velocity in AV node - decrease chronotropic effects and decreased oxygen demand |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List 4 therapeutic uses of CCBs. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Hypertension 2. Migraines 3. Angina Pectoris - chest pains due to ischemia of heart vessels 4. Superventricular arrhythmia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List in level of increasing oral bioavailability: Amlodipine, Verapamil, Diltiazem |  | Definition 
 
        | Verapamil > Diltiazem > Amlodipine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | These 2 CCBs are known to cause CYP 3A4 inhibition. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main, moderate and mild adverse effects of verapamil and diltiazem? |  | Definition 
 
        | Main: Cardiodepression   Moderate: hypotension, peripheral edema, AV node blockage, increase liver enzymes   Mild: constipation (mainly verapamil), headache, flushing of face.   Caution: moderate CYP3A4 inhibition |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most common adverse efffects of Amlodipine (Norvasc)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Edema, palpitations, dizziness, flushing and gingival hyperplasia, cardiovascular, CNS and GI side effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which hypertensive drug causes gingival hyperplasia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amlodipine - Dihydropyridine class |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the 3 representative alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blockers. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Doxazosin (Cadura) - longest t.5 2. Terazosin (Hytrin) 3. Prazosin (Minipress) - shortest t.5 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | WHat is the MOA of alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blockers? |  | Definition 
 
        | Blocks alpha-1 adrenoreceptors on arteries and veins and some central alpha-1 adrenoreceptors  causing decrease in peripheral resistance, decrease in venous return, decrease in cardiac preload, suppresses sympathetic outflow in CNS (no reflector tachycardia), decrease LDL and triglyceride, and increase HDL levels. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 4 main therapeutic effects of alpha-1 adrenergic blockers. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Decreased peripheral resistance 2. decreased venous return (decreased cardiac preload) 3. Suppression of sympathetic outflow 4. Decreases LDL and trilycerides, and increases HDL   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Main adverse effect of alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist |  | Definition 
 
        | Orthostatic/Postural hypotension - 1st dose effect |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the main representatives of central alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonist. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Clonidine (Catapress) 2. Methyldopa (Aldomet) 3. Guanfacine (Tenex)4. Guanebenz (Wytensin)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of action for central alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonist. |  | Definition 
 
        | Activation of central alpha-2 receptors leading to suppression of sympathetic outflow from the brain. Also, possible stimulation of presynaptic alpha-2 receptor leading to decreased NE release. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ____ is an central alpha-2 adrenoreceptor that interacts with imidazoline receptor. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 4 main adverse effects of central alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | - sedation & dry mouth (>50% of patients, maybe a reason for discontinuation) - sexual dysfunction (because of hyperprolactinemia) - bradycardia - withdrawal reactions upon abrupt discontinuation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are 3 pharmacological facts about Clonidine (Catapress)? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. 100% bioavailability   2. 50% eliminated via kidney as urine (so watch if renal disease/failure)   3. Half life of 12 hours |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This central alpha-2 agonist is a prodrug. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This central alpha-2 agonist is recommended for preemclapsia |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Aldomet (Methyldopa) is   1. a prodrug   2. Recommended for preemclampsia (HTN in pregnant women)    3. Can cause hemolytic anemia and hepatoxicity (all similar to Clonidine, except clonidine can exacerbate renal problems)   4. Effect is delayed for 6 hours, so do not give if emergency.   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the 4 main representatives of alpha-2 receptor agonist |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Clonidine (Catapress)   2. Methyldopa (Aldomet)   3. Guafacine (Tenex)   4. Guanebenz (Wytensin) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The first drug that was found to interfere with function of SNS in humans (start of effective antihypertensive pharmacotherapy) |  | Definition 
 
        | Riserpine - a sympatholytic   •active alkaloid of Rauwolfiaserpentina |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of Riserpine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Irreversibly binds to the vesicular transporter, which are new vesicles needed to be synthesized in order for sympathetic function to recover. This causes reduction in cardiac output and peripheral resistance. Has peripheral and central actions. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are 3 adverse effects of Riserpine? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Increase retention of Na+ & water 2. Sedation & inability to concentrate 3. Depression & suicidal thoughts (~ dose related)   caution: drug should be discontinued at the first sign of depression   (may last several months after discontinuation!) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 2 examples of a direct vasodilator. |  | Definition 
 
        | Hydralazine (Apresoline)     Minoxidil  (Loniten) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of Hydralazine (Apresoline)? |  | Definition 
 
        | direct vasodilation (mechanism is not clear, some connection with intracellular Ca2+ levels) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are 2 main therapeutic effects of Hydralazine (Apresoline) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Effective decrease in peripheral resistance (with powerful stimulation of SNS → is usually combined with other drugs!) 
  2. Minimal effect on veins (vsa-blockers) → no postural (orthostatic) hypotension |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 4 adverse effects of Hydralazine (Apresoline) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Drug-induced lupus syndrome (immune reactions) 2. Increase retention of Na+ & water 3. Headache, flushing, hypotension, tachycardia, angina pectoris 4. caution: aggravation of myocardial ischemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of Minoxidil (Loniten)? |  | Definition 
 
        | activates ATP-depedent K+ channels in smooth muscles leading to efflux of K+ from cells, which causes  hyperpolarization resulting in the relaxation of smooth  muscle. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main therapeutic effects of Loniten? |  | Definition 
 
        | Loniten (Minoxidil) is a direct vasodilator - it dilates the arterioles (like Hydralazine -Apresoline). Use in combination with other drugs, especially diuretics due to increased Na and H2O retention. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are 3 main adverse effects of Loniten? |  | Definition 
 
        | Loniten (Minoxidil)   1. Hypertrichosis (hairy-ness)   2. Angina pectoris, myocardial ishemia and tachycardia   3. Na and water retension (like Hydralazine (Apresoline) and Riserpine) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Norepinephrine (NE): is synthesized in ___nerve terminals & CNS as a ____ |  | Definition 
 
        | sympathetic; neurotransmitter |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Epinephrine (Epi): is synthesized in the ___ by ___as a ___ and in CNS as a _____(adrenergic neurons in the brainstem) |  | Definition 
 
        | adrenal medulla; Chromaffin cells; hormone 
 CNS as a neurotransmitter  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the rate-limiting step in epinephrine and norepinephrine synthesis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ cell receptor increases norepinephrine, while ___ receptors decrease norepinephrine. |  | Definition 
 
        | alpha-2 receptor  = decreased Norepinephrine   Beta-2 receptor = increase norepinephrine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ____ degrades norepinephrine in the nerve terminals. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ____ degrades norepinephrine in the effector cells. |  | Definition 
 
        | Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: uptake of NE is greater than E in the effector cells. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: uptake of epinephrine is greater in effector cells, but uptake of norepi is greater in nerve terminals |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give facts about these adrenoreceptors   1. alpha-1 2. alpha-2 3. beta-1 4. beta-2 5. beta-3 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. alpha-1 = post synaptic 2. alpha-2 = presynaptic   3. beta-1 = found in juxtaglomerular cells (kidney) and myocardium 4. beta-2 = can be post or pre-synaptic, found in smooth muscles  5. beta-3 = adipose tissue |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Epinephrine has higher affinity for __ receptors, while norepinephrine has it for ___. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Epinephrine - Beta-1 = Beta-2 > alpha-1 & 2   2. Norepinephrine -  alpha-1 & 2 > beta-1 >> beta-2 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | All adrenorecptors are _____ types of receptors. |  | Definition 
 
        | G protein-coupled receptors:       a1is coupled to Gq→ Ýinositoltriphosphate, diacylglycerol & iCa2+      a2is coupled to Gi → ßadenylylcyclase → ßcAMP 
     all b subtypes are coupled to Gs→ Ýadenylylcyclase→ ÝcAMP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The feedback inhibition in NE and Epi synthesis is by ___ |  | Definition 
 
        | NE feedback inhibit Tyrosine hydroxylase conversion of tyrosine to DOPA (rate-limiting step) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Norepinephrine is degrade by COMT to ___ |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give main effects seen when epinephrine or norepinephrine binds to these G protein-coupled receptors.   1.alpha-1 2. beta-1 3. beta-2 4. beta-3 |  | Definition 
 
        | alpha-1 = vasoconstriction in blood vessels and increased Na reabsorption in kidney   beta-1 = increased chrono-, domo- and inotropic effects in heart and renin release JG cells of kidney   beta 2 - vasodilation of arterioles, relaxation and increase intraocular pressure in eye   Beta-3 = lipolysis in adipose tissue |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give info about selectivity of these beta-blocker:   1st generation 2nd gen 3rd gen |  | Definition 
 
        | 1st gen: non-selective Beta-1 and beta-2 antagonist   2nd gen: selective beta-1 antagonists   3rd gen: non-selective and selective beta antagonists |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | =Give the long term and short-term effects of non-selective beta blockers (1st gen). |  | Definition 
 
        | short term effects of non-selective (1st gen) = decreased cardiac out put leading to decreased  BP, which causes reflector sympathetic activation causing increased NE/Epi release. NE binds to alpha receptor causing a temporary increased peripheral resistance (Beta-2 are blocked = no vasodilation)   Long term of non-selective (1st gen) = peripheral resistance returns to normal level and cardiac output is lowered further. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The primary site of action of beta blocker is __ |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Reduction of cardiac output and renin release is due to effects of ____ |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | For what types of patients is beta-2 blockers used with caution? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Labile diabetics - hypoglycemic reaction   2. Asthma and COPD patients - causes bronchoconstriction |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is used to reduce intraocular pressure, so is recommended for glaucoma patients. |  | Definition 
 
        | non-selective beta-2 blockers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 6 indications for beta blockers |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Glaucoma   2. Migraines prophylaxis   3. angina pectoris   4. hypertension   5. cardiac arrhythmias   6. Myocardial infarction   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the primary mechanism of action of beta blockers? |  | Definition 
 
        |   blockade of βadrenoceptors& prevention  of NE (Epi)-mediated effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 7 main adverse effects of beta blockers. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. heart failure   2. arrhythmias    3. bronchospasm - nonselectives (1st gen and 3rd gens) = could worsen asthma and COPD   4. Hypertriglyceridemia   5. Sexual dysfunction   6. Sedation, sleep issues and depression   7. Worsen peripheral vascular disease   8. Can cause hypoglycemia and can mask hypoglycemia -induced tachycardia   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Abruptly stopping beta-blocker therapy can cause ____ |  | Definition 
 
        | Angina pectoris and mycardial ischemia = increase risk of death |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | a)    24-hr monitoring documents BP at frequent intervals throughout day b)    Helpful in drug resistance, hypotensive symptoms on Tx, episodic HTN, and autonomic dysfunction. c)     Indicated for “white coat” HTN d)    ≥130/85 abnormal |  | Definition 
 
        | Ambulatory blood pressure device |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | During sleep, BP should decrease by 10-20%, and does who do not do this are called Non-dippers. They have higher risk of cardiovascular disease. Monitor with ambulatory BP device. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Define these terms:   1. Essential/primary HTN   2. Secondary HTN   3. White coat HTN   4. Pseudo-hypertension   5. Isolated systolic HTN    6. Resistant HTN    7. Hypertensive HTN   8. HTN Urgency |  | Definition 
 
        |   1. Essential/primary HTN = No known etiology. occurs due to older age   2. Secondary HTN = due to underlying disease (Cushings and hyperaldosteronism), Drugs (NSAIDS and birth controls),  alpha-1 agonist (decongestants) and B1-agonists.   3. White coat HTN: false increase in BP in clinical settings   4. Pseudo-hypertension: falsely elevated BP due to brachial artery calcification - use Osler maneuver to test 
 5. Isolated systolic HTN = common in elderly. decrease elasticity and compliance of arteries. 
 6. Resistant HTN  = blood pressure fails to be controlled after patient is on at least 3 drugs 
 7. Hypertensive Emergency= BP is greater than stage 2 (>180/120) with organ damage. Treat immediately in minutes to hours with IV drugs. Goal is to reduce diastolic to <100.
   8. HTN Urgency = BP is greater than stage 2 (>180/120) but with NO organ damage.Treat in hours to days with oral agents. Goal is to reduce to stage 1 levels. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment goal for hypertensive emergency? |  | Definition 
 
        | target organ damage = reduce diastolic to <100 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment goal for hypertensive urgency? |  | Definition 
 
        | No target organ damage = reduce BP to satge 1 (<160/100) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the long term complications of high BP? |  | Definition 
 
        | left ventricular hypertrophy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Classification of blood pressure is base on |  | Definition 
 
        | average of 2 readings on after 2 different clinical visits |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is considered above goal for ptns with diabetes + micro (>30 -300) and macro-albuminuria? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | WHat is normal BP goal for patients without compelling indications according to JNC-7? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the classifications levels for hypertension:    Normal Pre-HTN Stage I Stage II |  | Definition 
 
        | Normal = <120/80   Pre-HTN = 121-139/80-90   Stage I = 140-159/90-99   Stage II = > 160/100   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | WHat is the criteria for determining diabetes with chronic kidney disease in order to ___ level goal. |  | Definition 
 
        | Microalbuminuria = 30-300 mg/daily from spot urine   Scr = >1.5 for men and >1.4 for women   GFR = <60ml/min/m2     Goal for diabetes + chronic kidney disease : JNC 7 : 130/80 ADA guideline: 130/80 (but if just diabetes, then 140/80) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommended dietary intake of salt per day in preventing or controlling HTN? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the SBP reduction range for:   1. Weight reduction 2. DASH diet  3. Physical activity 4. Restriction of dietary intake 5. Moderate alcohol consumption   |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Weight reduction = 5-20mmHg   2. DASH diet = 8-14 mmHg   3. Physical activity = 4-9mmHg   4. Restriction of dietary Na = 2-8mmHg   5. Moderate alcohol consumption = 2-4 mmHg |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recommended BMI for HTN control. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the target BP and specific drug indication for General CAD prevention? |  | Definition 
 
        | <140/90;    treat with any anti-hypertensive drug or combination if Stage II |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the target BP and specific drug indication for High risk CAD. |  | Definition 
 
        | <130/80   Treat with ACEI or ARB or CCB or Thiazide diuretic or combine if Stage II |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the target BP and specific drug indication for Stable Angina? |  | Definition 
 
        | <130/80   Treat with beta-blocker + ACEI or ARB   If beta-blocker is contraindicated, then use non-DHP such as Verapamil (80-120mg) or Diltiazem (30-120mg), or DHP CCB. Give thiazide for BP control |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the target BP and specific drug indication for Unstable Angina /NSTEMI. |  | Definition 
 
        | <130/80;   Beta-blocker (if hemodynamically stable) + ACEI or ARB   If beta-blocker is contraindicated, then substitute with non-DHP or DHP CCB. Give thiazide for BP control |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the target BP and specific drug indication for STEMI. |  | Definition 
 
        | 130/80;   Beta-blockers (if hemodynamically stable) + ACEI or ARB; give non-DHP or DGP CCBs if beta-blockers are contraindicated. Add thiazide for BP control |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the target BP and specific drug indication for left ventricular dysfunction. |  | Definition 
 
        | <120/80;   Beta-blocker + Aldosterone antagonist + ACEI or ARB + thiazide or loop diuretic.   Add Hydralazine/Isosorbide dinitrate for blacks   If any contraindication: add Verapmail or Diltiazem, Clonidine (alpha-2 agonist), Moxonidine, and alpha-1 blockers. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Clinical pearls:   1. Aim for ___ goal for most patients.   2. Consider ___ goal for DM and CKD patients   3. T/F: data supports AHA recommendation   4. T/F: Always push for normal BP with medication.   |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Most patients = 140/90   2. DM or CKD = 130/80mmHg   3. False: AHA sucks   4. False: never push for normal with meds due to side effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 2 drug combination is recommended as initial therapy if |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Stage II or >20mmHg above goal or >10mmHg DBP   2. Thiazide is included as the addition therapy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Left Ventricular dysfunction? |  | Definition 
 
        | Diuretic + ACEI, then add Beta-blocker |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Post-myocardial infarction. |  | Definition 
 
        | Beta-blocker, then add ACEI or ARB |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Coronary Artery Disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | Beta-blocker, then add ACEI or ARB |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Diabetes Mellitus? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Chronic Kidney Disease? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | You must always treat compelling indications; what is the treatment for Recurrent Stroke Prevention? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the primary anti-hypertensives? |  | Definition 
 
        | Diuretic, ACEI, ARB and CCB |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the secondary/alternative anti-hypertensives? |  | Definition 
 
        | Beta-blockers   alpha blockers Central alpha-2 agonists vasodilators Adrenergic inhibitors direct renin inhibitor (Aliskeren) 
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ALLHAT had 42,429 patients randomized to this 4 drugs. |  | Definition 
 
        | Chlorthalidone (Hygroton)   Amlodipine (Norvasc)   Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)   Doxazosin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the 4 conclusions of the ALLHAT study. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat a patient with renal dysfunction with thiazide? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1st gens (Chlorthalidone and HCTZ) do not work if renal dysfunction (i.e, SCr >2.5 mg/dL or CrCl <30 ml/min) ; use 2nd gen (Indapamide and Metolazone) instead. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the recommended doses for:   1st gen thiazides   2nd gen thiazides` |  | Definition 
 
        | 1st gen: Chlorthalidone and HCTZ = 12.5-25mg daily   2nd gen: Indapamide(1.25-2.5mg daily) and Metolazone 2.5-10 mg daily |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 4 clinical pearls for thiazide meds |  | Definition 
 
        | a. Diuretic effects of thiazides decrease with time. b.    Takes 2 to 3 weeks to see maximum blood pressure drop c.     Chlorthalidone is about 1.5X as potents as HCTZ and has longer t1/2. d. As you increase dose of thiazide, you increase electrolyte problems; typically  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is a potent diuretic no longer used for HTB |  | Definition 
 
        | Furosemide (LAsix) - needs to be dosed frequently (Q6H) and causes excessive urination |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When should you consider loop diuretics as an alternative? |  | Definition 
 
        | Consider if uncomplicated HTN with significant renal dysfunction not responsive to thiazides. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Amiloride/HCTZ     Triamterene/HCTZ   Spironolactone/HCTZ |  | Definition 
 
        | Amiloride/HCTZ = Moduretic     Triamterene/HCTZ = Maxide or Dyazide     Spironolactone/HCTZ = Aldactazide     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This should be avoided when treating T2DM (compelling indication). |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This study compared ACEI and ARBs. What are its conclusion? |  | Definition 
 
        | ONTARGET - looked at Ramipril (Altace) and Telimisartan (Micardis) in patients with vascular disease or diabetes.     Found no difference in death from stroke, MI, hospitalization for HR between ACEI and ARBs   Conclusion: do not combine ACEI and ARBs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This study compared Aliskeren to the drugs from the ONTARGET study |  | Definition 
 
        | ALTITUDE = compared Aliskeren to ACEI and ARB   Stopped prematurely due to increase adverse effects.    Conclusion: do not combine ACEI and ARBs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This class of anti-HTN are classified as class C drugs for pregnancy. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: according to JNC-7 ACEI is considered 1st line for HTN. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: ACEI is considered 2nd line according to JNC-7 ( although others recommend it as 1st line if no compelling indication is present) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: it is recommended to combine ARB and RAAS inhibitors. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: do not mix ARB and RAAS inhibitors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List the 1st line agents for HTN. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Diuretics - thiazide   2. ARBs   3. CCB - only without any compelling indications   4. ACEI - only if without compelling indications (but is 2nd line per JNC-7)   5. Beta-blockers     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which two classes of anti-HTN are considered 1st line only without compelling indications, but 2nd line by JNC-7? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This class if drugs is known to cause baro-receptor mediated reflex tachycardia and pedal edema. |  | Definition 
 
        | Dihydropyridines CCB   Direct vasodilators - reflex tachycardia only |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most common ADR for non-DHP? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bradycardia and heart block |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why should you NOT combined CCBs and beta-blockers? |  | Definition 
 
        | They both have negative chronotropic, inotropic and dromotropic effects. Combining both would decrease the effects even more causing heart block. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: you should never combine DHP and non-DHP CCB |  | Definition 
 
        | False: you can combined DHP and non-DHP together, but not with beta-blockers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Beta-blockers are considered 1st line for these 3 compelling indications. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Myocardial infarction   2. Angina   3. Heart failure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: Aliskeren is considered 2nd line agent for HTN. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: considered 4th or 5th line agent - extremely expensive |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which class of anti-HTN causes orthostatic hypotension after one dose? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This class of drugs cause Na and water retention and should be combined with diuretics (such as thiazide). |  | Definition 
 
        | Alpha-1 blockers    Reserpine   Direct arterial vasidilators: Hydralazine and Minoxidil |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This class of drugs is recommended in men with benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T/F: it is recommended to give methyldopa with diuretics due to Na and water retension. |  | Definition 
 
        | False: Methyldopa is preferred for pregnant women, but do not add the diuretic. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is a central alpha-2 agonist that is preferred for pregant women |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This agent is known to cause drug-induced lupus. |  | Definition 
 
        | Hydralazine (a direct vasodilator) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Direct vasodilators agents are reserved for ___ |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This study compared combination drug therapy such as: Benazepril/Amlodipine vs. Benazepril/HCTZ. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give an example of an synergistic combination to lower blood pressure. |  | Definition 
 
        | Diuretic + RAAS inhibitors or  CCB + RAAS Inhibitor (Aliskeren, ACEI, aldosterone antagonists) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give an example of an additive combination to lower blood pressure. |  | Definition 
 
        | Diuretic + Beta-blockers or  Beta-blocker + DHP CCB or DHP + non-DHP CCB   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Explain the additive effects of diuretics + beta-blocker. |  | Definition 
 
        | Diuretics decrease blood volume through Na and water excretion, triggering a compensatory RAS system activation, but Beta-blocker decrease blood volume by inhibiting this activation - inhibits renin production in the kidneys (by blocking kidney's beta-1 receptors). |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What combination are consider "poor" due to their similar actions? |  | Definition 
 
        | Diuretics + DHP CCB or Beta blocker + ACEI/ARB - combination only used in MI or CAD |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | These 2 agents are not recommended for the elderly. |  | Definition 
 
        | Central alpha-2 agonist and alpha-blockers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the 4 agents/classes that are safe for pregnant women. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Methyldopa 2. Labetolol - alpha/beta blocker 3. Beta-blockers 4. CCB5. Diuretics - use if all else fails
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 3 agents that are contraindicated in pregnancy |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. ACEI 2. ARBs 3. Aliskeren |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Treatment and speed of blood pressure reduction depends on ____ |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of lab test should you obtain to treat HTM emergency or urgency. |  | Definition 
 
        | CBC Urine analysis CMP EKG cardiac enzymes Imaging echocardiogram   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | After admission to the ICU, what 4 steps should be taken to treat emergency HTN? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Use IV meds to lower SBP by 20 (25%) in 1 hour and diastolic by 10-15% over 30 mins to 1 hour.   2. Stabilize blood pressure to <160/110 over 2-6 hrs.   3. Assess volume status and gently hydrate with NS to restore fluid/Na.   4. Continuous cardiac monitoring, assess volume and  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give 2 facts about these treatment regimen for HTN emergencies.   1. Nitroprusside 2. Nitroglycerin 3. Labetalol (Normodyne or Trandate) 4. Enalaprilat 5. Esmolol 6. Fenoldapam 7. Hydralazine 8. Phentolamine 9. Nicardipine 10. Clevidipine |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Nitroprusside - arterial and venous vasodilator. For emergency HTN + acute pulmonary edema. Contraindication: MI and renal impairment.     2. Nitroglycerin - more venous dilation than arterial. Adjunct use (not 1st line) for coronary ischemia or acute pulmonary edema. 
 3. Labetalol (Normodyne or Trandate) - nonselective a-1 and beta blocker. Contraindicated in COPD, Heart failure and heart block.   4. Enalaprilat - For heart failure. CI: MI, eclampsia, bilateral RAS.   5. Esmolol - CI: if already on B-blocker, bradycardiac, or decompensated heart failure.   6. Fenoldapam - Dopamine agonist, conatins sulfite. CI: angina, glaucoma, and high intracranial pressure.   7. Hydralazine - vasodilator (pre-and afterload reducer) for Eclampsia. CI: use as last option due to prolonged effects and unpredictibility.   8. Phentolamine - alpha blocker for sympathetic crisis or catecholamine toxicity, cocaine and amphetamine intoxication , clonidine withdrawal, MOA inhibitor interactions. 
 9. Nicardipine - Dihydropyridine CCB. CI: Heart failure and coronary ischemia.   10. Clevidipine - short-acting DHP CCB. For all hypertensive emergencies. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | During treatment for HTN emergency, the patient must be evaluated every ___ after initiating or making changes to therapy. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | During treatment for HTN emergency, the patient must be monitored every ___ one BP goal is attained and there is no target organ damage (i.e. patient is stable). |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Give the monitoring parameter for these classes: 1. Diuretics 2. Aldosterone antagonists 3. Beta-blockers 4. ACEI/ARBS/Renin inhibitors 5. CCBs |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Diuretics = BP, BUN/Scr, electrolytes, uric acid   2. Aldosterone/ACEI/ARBs/Renin inhibitors = BP/BUN/SCr/K 
 3. Beta-blockers/CCB = BP and HR       |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | List agents that can be used in HTN of unknown causes. |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Synergistic (RAAS inhibitors + diuretic OR RAAS inhibitor + CCB) or Additive ( Beta blocker + diuretic OR beta-blocker + DHP CCB OR nonDHP + DHP)   2. Add loop diuretics (Bumex or Lasix)   3. Add Aldactone   4. Combine alpha-beta blockers   5. Central-acting agents (alpha-2 agonists) |  | 
        |  |