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Exam 1
med
136
Other
Graduate
09/03/2011

Additional Other Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

If your patient takes some medications for several months – sometimes they become tolerant to the drugs

because their systems become able to breakdown the drugs faster. Such a slow increase in the capacity

of the drug clearance pathway is most likely to occur through

Definition
Enzyme Induction
Term

A patient of yours has a heart attack and is under your care. You are monitoring recovery by measuring

serum enzymes. Over the next two days, you find that his CK – MB levels are decreasing towards

normal but CK-MM levels are increasing. It is most likely that

Definition

The patient is recovering from the heart attack but is having some other muscle damage


Term
The most efficient storage of energy in the body is in the form of:
Definition
Fat because fat is very dry and very reduced
Term

An alcoholic patient of yours presents with confusion and disorientation. You suspect alcoholic

ketoacidosis. Under alcoholic ketoacidosis:

 


Definition
Most of the NAD will be present as NADH
Term
Which ion has the lowest intracellular concentration
Definition
ca2+
Term
Antibiotics in the fluoroquinolone family
Definition
block action of bacterial DNA topoisomerase
Term
Small RNAs (snRNAs):
Definition
function is eukaryotic mRNA processing
Term

Gene expression profiles are quickly made by which method?

Cloning


Definition
Microarray technique
Term
. In the RNA interference (RNAi) technique
Definition
genes are silenced by miRNAS
Term

. In the mid 1800s, there was a cholera outbreak that was associated with the ingestion of contaminated

water from the Broad Street well in London. This outbreak was attributable to

Definition
the mixing of sewage and drinking water
Term

Which of the following osteopathic physicians developed the technique known as “facilitated positional

release” (FPR)?

Definition

Stanley Schiowitz, D.O.

Term
During intrathoracic surgery to remove a lung tumor, the gray ramus communicans at the level of T2 is
accidentally severed, while the white ramus is left intact. Which of the following structures will most
likely remain unaffected?
Arrector pili muscles
Arterioles
Cardiac muscle
Sebaceous glands
Sweat glands
Definition
Cardiac muscle
Term

The pathways of sympathetic nerves can be distinguished anatomically from those of parasympathetic
nerves because:
A.Parasympathetic ganglia are located near the target organ

B. Parasympathetics have longer postganglionic fibers
C.Parasympathetics pass through paravertebral ganglia
D.Sympathetics arise from the sacral and head regions.

E. Sympathetics do not enter the body wall or limbs

Definition
parasympathetic ganglia are located near the target organ
Term
An 80-year-old man presents with back pain. Which of the following findings would be most an
abnormal finding in the spine?
A cervical spine lordotic curve
A lack of spinal curvature in the coronal plane
A lumbar spine kyphotic curve
A sacral spine kyphotic curve
A thoracic spine kyphotic curve
Definition
Lumbar spine kyphotic curve
Term
A 65-year-old female presents with left sided back pain. She points to the region medial to her left
scapula. The pain hurts more when she moves her shoulder blade out laterally. You are able to palpate
a tight muscle spasm just medial to the scapula. Which of the following muscles is the most likely one
causing her pain?
Iliocostalis
Multifidus
Rhomboid major
Rotatores thoracis
Serratus posterior inferior
Definition
Rhomboid Major
Term
A neurosurgeon discovers a lesion on a white ramus communicans that is affecting the preganglionic
sympathetic outflow to thoracic organs. Where is this lesion most likely located?
C1
L2
L5
T1
T12
Definition
T1
Term
Which of the following will form from the hypaxial part of the myotome?
Deep muscles of the back
Heart
Upper limb muscles
Vasculature
Visceral pleura
Definition
upper limb muscles
Term
Which pleura are located immediately adjacent to the innermost intercostal muscles?
Cervical
Diaphragmatic
Mediastinal
Parietal
Visceral
Definition
parietal
Term
The right pulmonary veins drain into the:
Left atrium
Left lung
Pulmonary trunk
Right atrium
Right lung
Definition
left atrium
Term
A patient has a posterior heart wall myocardial infarction. The most likely coronary vessel that has been
injured is:
Anterior descending interventricular
Left coronary
Left circumflex
Nodal branch
Right coronary
Definition
right coronary
Term
A 46-year-old patient complains of chest pain. MRIs and CTs find a tumor on the root of the right lung.
Blood flow in which of the following veins is most likely to be blocked by this tumor?
Accessory hemiazygos vein
Arch of azygos vein
Hemiazygos vein
Right brachiocephalic vein
Right subclavian vein
Definition
arch of azygos vein
Term
Which of the following drains blood from most of the left intercostal spaces?
Azygos vein
Hemiazygos vein
Inferior vena cava
Right brachiocephalic vein
Superior vena cava
Definition
hemiazygos vein
Term
As you evaluate vertebral motion at the functional spinal unit, you know that with rotation left of the
anterior portion of the vertebral body, there is a coupling of:
Contralateral translatory slide
Ipsilateral translatory slide
Roll and slide
Vertical translatory compression of the disc
Vertical translatory distraction of the disc
Definition
vetical translatory compression of the disc
Term
Your patient is 38 weeks pregnant, and she presents with a complaint of ankle swelling. Her blood
pressure is normal at 112/70. She has no other complaints at this office visit. You prepare to perform an
osteopathic structural examination, and you consider that her somatic dysfunction may most likely be
caused by a functional and physiologic interrelationship between her gravid state and which of the
following anatomic structures?
Arteries
Arthrodial tissues
Lymphatics
Muscles
Nerves
Definition
athrodial tissue
Term
A 67-year-old man complains of mid-back pain after lifting his granddaughter the previous day. You
diagnose T6 on T7 as flexed, rotated right, sidebent right. The right erector spinae muscles in the
mid-back area are boggy and warm to the touch. As you have your patient flex forward to confirm your
diagnosis, you expect to feel:
The T6 right transverse process become more anterior and asymmetrical when compared with the
left transverse process
The T6 right transverse process become more posterior and asymmetrical when compared with the
left transverse process
The T6 right transverse process become more symmetrical when compared with the left transverse
process
The T7 right transverse process become more posterior and asymmetrical when compared with the
left transverse process
The T7
Definition
C
Term
On her general surgery rotation, a third-year osteopathic medical student is asked to describe the usual
location of the heart in the chest. Which of the following descriptions should she use?
Anterior to the pectoral muscles
Deep to the sternum
Distal to the shoulders
Lateral to the lungs
Superior to the neck
Definition
deep to the sternum
Term
Endemic describes which of the following?
A disease that affects a large part of the world at the same time
A disease that exhibits a seasonal pattern, year after year
A disease that is always present in the population being studied, generally in a given geographic area
A disease that is prevalent among animals and humans alike
A disease that occurs way in excess of normal expectancy
Definition
A disease that is always present in the population being studied, generally in a given geographic area
Term
Mortality may serve as a surrogate marker of incidence when which of the following situations occur?
Case-fatality rate is high
Duration of disease survival is short, but with effective therapy a cure always results
Incidence is high
Mortality rates cannot be determined because of poor data collection
Prevalence is very low
Definition
case-fatality rate is high
Term
Which of the following is a good index of the severity of a short-term, acute disease?
Case-fatality rate
Cause-specific death rate
Standardized mortality ratio
5-year survival
Definition
case fatality rate
Term
You are seeing a young Asian woman, who has a complaint of irregular vaginal bleeding. While taking
the history, you note that she avoids all eye contact with you. You should:
Ask her open ended questions and make her feel comfortable and safe during the interaction
Chastise her for being disrespectful
Immediately realize that she appears to be hiding some aspect of the events leading up to her
complaint
Make her look directly at you during the interview
Refuse to continue the interview and ask a colleague to take over the case
Definition
A
Term
To be an effective culturally proficient clinician, it is important:
That we use printed material to always supplement our instructions.
To assume that the beliefs, values, norms and behaviors of one’s own culture are the correct ones,
and that those of other cultures are inferior or misguided
To learn the culture of specific groups rather than have a broader framework that can be applied to
any culture
To understand that a health care system where ‘one size fits all’ is the most cost effective and
successful approach to providing good health care
To understand that a patient’s religion, literacy and perception of illness, can have a significant
impact on their compliance with medical treatment
Definition
to understand that a patient's religion, literacy and perception of illness, can have a significant impact on their compliance with medical treatment
Term
The leading cause of death worldwide in children under the age of 5 is:
HIV/AIDS
Malaria
Neonatal causes
Pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Definition
neonatal causes
Term
Select the predicated leading cause of death worldwide in 2010:
AIDS
Cardiovascular disease
Lung cancer
Malaria
Tuberculosis
Definition
lung cancer
Term
Which of the following measures can be considered an indicator of risk and can be looked at in any
specific population group as well?
Incidence
Predictive value
Prevalence
Sensitivity
Definition
incidence
Term
Which of the following values, in relation to a test being performed, is dependent on the underlying
prevalence of the actual disease in the population being studied?
Case-fatality rate
Incidence
Positive predictive value
Sensitivity
Specificity
Definition
positive predictive value
Term
The ability of a test to accurately identify those without the disease best describes which of the
following?
Negative predictive value
Positive predictive value
Point prevalence
Sensitivity
Specificity
Definition
negative predictive value and specificity
Term
Which of the following may be calculated from the results of a cohort study?
Odds ratio
Prevalence rate
Relative risk
Standardized mortality ratio
Type 1 error
Definition
relative risk
Term
Which of the following study types describes study groups by outcomes, rather than by exposures?
Case-control
Case-series
Clinical trial
Cohort
Surveillance
Definition
case control
Term
During your physical exam of a 21-year-old medical student, you find he has a heart murmur. This
physical finding would be correctly documented in the:
Assessment
Labs
Objective
Plan
Subjective
Definition
objective
Term
A 32-year-old female presents to the office following admission to the hospital for pneumonia. After
she is done explaining what happened, you state to her "So, I understand that you were admitted to
Southside hospital for 3 days and discharged with instructions to take amoxicillin for 7 more days."
This would be an example of:
Close-ended question
Echoing style
Graded response
Open-ended question
Yes/No
Definition
echoing style
Term
Instructions to the patient for warm compresses every 4-6 hours for the next 3 days to an abscess would
be included in the following portion of the SOAP note:
Assessment
Lab portion
Objective
Plan
Subjective
Definition
plan
Term
A physician suspects that a middle aged man has developed chronic lead poisoning. He takes a detailed
social and occupational history. Which of the following might be associated with this diagnosis?
The patient is a chemist
The patient is a drug addict
The patient is married to an alcoholic
The patient lives in a newly constructed apartment complex
The patient works as a baker
Definition
the patient is a chemist
Term
Neurodevelopmental delay can occur in children exposed to lead. Which of the following can help
prevent this?
Consulting with a neurologist while the child is asymptomatic
Fortifying formula with iron
Painting the child’s room with new paint
Screening the child for blood lead levels
Updating all the child’s vaccinations
Definition
screen the child for blood lead level
Term
A 42-year old male presents to the office for a routine physical. During the medical interview he tells
you that he has an allergy to penicillin. Which would be the correct section to document this finding:
Assessment
Labs
Objective
Plan
Subjective
Definition
subjective
Term
A 12-year old boy presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath and difficulty
swallowing after being stung by a wasp. The diagnosis of allergic reaction to wasp sting would be
correctly documented for this visit in the:
Assessment
Labs
Objective
Plan
Subjective
Definition
assessment
Term
A 24-year old female presents with vaginal discharge. Which of the following is the best style of
question to ask first?
Closed-ended
Echoing
Graded response
Open-ended
Yes/No
Definition
open-ended
Term
Which of the following question styles allows the patient to know that their physician is demonstrating
empathy?
Close ended question
Echoing style question
Graded response
Multiple choice question
Yes/No question
Definition
echoing style question
Term
A postganglionic sympathetic cell destined to innervate a sweat gland in the axilla will send an impulse
through axons in the:
Cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerve
Dorsal ramus
Gray ramus communicans
Greater splanchnic nerve
Vagus nerve
Definition
gray ramus communicans
Term
ßHCG is produced by the:
Corpus luteum
Endometrium
Mesoderm
Syncytiotrophoblast
Yolk sac
Definition
synctytiotrophoblast
Term
At ovulation, the oocyte:
Arrests at prophase of meiosis I
Is separated from the zona pellucida
Produces the first polar body
Reduces its cytoplasm
Re-arrests at the metaphase of meiosis II
Definition
re-arrests at the metaphase of meiosis II
Term
Which structure is between the follicular cells and the membrane of the ovum?
Acrosomal enzymes
Corpus albicans
Corpus luteum
Cortical granules
Zona pellucida
Definition
zona pellucida
Term
What structure is sandwiched between the ectoderm and the endoderm during the initial process of
neurulation (19-21 days)?
Hypoblast
The amnion
The connecting stalk
The notochord
The yolk sac
Definition
notochord or hypoblast
Term
A 44-year-old woman presents to the clinic with symptoms of fatigue for the past three months. You
suspect the patient has anemia. Which of the following findings would be most consistent with this
diagnosis?
Atrophy of the right foot
Difficulty speaking
Normal abdominal exam
Pale appearing conjunctiva
Rash on the skin
Definition
pale appearing conjunctiva
Term
In the clinical calculation of the plasma osmotic concentration the contribution of electrolytes is taken to
be equal to:
[Na+] + [K+] + [Cl-] + {HCO3-]
2[Na+]
[Na+] – ([Cl-] + {HCO3-])
3[K+]
2([Na+] + [Cl-])
Definition
2[Na+]
Term
Which statement is true for DNA synthesis on the lagging strand?
DNA made after primer removal is not proofread
Most DNA synthesis is catalyzed by DNA polymerase III
Okazaki fragments replace DNA after primer removal
Only one RNA primer is used
The new DNA strand grows chemically from 3' to 5'
Definition
most dna synthesis is catalyzed by DNA polymerase III
Term
Which one of the following occurs in prokaryotic transcription?
A helicase unwinds the DNA helix
A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of the new RNA
Introns are removed from the primary transcript
RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter
The sigma factor is released during termination
Definition
RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter
Term
Eukaryotic transcription differs from prokaryotic transcription because in eukaryotic transcription:
Introns are part of the mature mRNA
Messenger RNA is made in the cytoplasm
Only one type of RNA polymerase is active
RNA polymerase II catalyzes formation of mRNA
The DNA helix does not have to be opened
Definition
RNA polymerase II catalyzes formation for mRNA
Term
Which one is a correct statement about DNA mismatch repair?
DNA glycosylase is used
It repairs double stranded breaks
It replaces only the one wrong base
Mutations in this process may cause xeroderma pigmentosum
The new DNA strand is identified by its nicks
Definition
the new DNA strand is identified by its nicks
Term

A 50-year-old male patient of yours complains of chest pain. You suspect a heart attack. You order the
serum tests. If the patient did in fact have a heart attack, you will expect to see:
A decrease in myoglobin levels in serum
An increase in alkaline phosphatase levels in serum
An increase in creatine kinase MB levels in serum
An increase in hemoglobin levels in serum
An increase in M4 lactate dehydrogenase levels in serum

Definition
an increase in creatine kinase MB levels in serum
Term
High serum amylase levels indicate trouble in the:
Brain
Heart
Kidney
Liver
Pancreas
Definition
pancreas
Term
Methanol poisoning is treated by administering ethanol because ethanol:
Is a competitive inhibitor of methanol oxidation
Is structurally very different from methanol
Reacts rapidly with methanol to neutralize it
Will increase the rate of
Definition
is a competitive inhibitor of methanol oxidation
Term
Allosteric control of an enzyme involves:
Binding of effector at the active site
Binding of effector at the control site
Binding of inhibitor at the active site
Binding of substrate at a control site
Multiple subunits of the enzyme
Definition
binding of effector at the control site
Term
A patient took 2,4 dinitrophenol in an effort to lose weight. You expect that in the patient’s
mitochondria under the influence of 2,4 dinitrophenol:
Respiration will be increased, ATP synthesis will be decreased and the membrane gradient will be
low
Respiration will be decreased, ATP synthesis will be decreased and the membrane gradient will be
low
Respiration will be increased, ATP synthesis will be increased and the membrane gradient will be
low
Respiration will be increased, ATP synthesis will be increased and the membrane gradient will be
high
Respiration will be increased, ATP synthesis will be decreased and membrane gradient will be high
Definition
respiration will be increase, ATP synthesis will be decreased and the membrane gradient will be low
Term
A person is 30 pounds overweight person consumes nearly 3000 calories daily, mostly in carbohydrates
and fat. After his usual meal of Big Mac, fries and soda, he will have:
High insulin, low gluconeogenesis, high glycogen synthesis in liver and high fat synthesis in fat cells
High glucagon, low gluconeogenesis, high glycogen synthesis in liver and high fat synthesis in fat
cells
High glucagon, high gluconeogenesis, high glycogen synthesis in liver and high fat synthesis in fat
cells
High insulin, high gluconeogenesis, high glycogen synthesis in liver and high fat synthesis in fat
cells
High insulin, low gluconeogenesis, low glycogen synthesis in liver and high fat synthesis in fat cells
Definition
A
Term
Consider a starving refugee arriving at a camp: This person will have:
High glucagon, low sugar and high keto acids in blood
High Insulin, low sugar and high keto acids in blood
High Insulin, low sugar and low keto acids in blood
Low Glucagon, high sugar and high keto acids in blood
Low Glucagon, low sugar and high keto acids in blood
Definition
A
Term
Gluconeogenesis will be high, ketoacidosis will be high and blood sugar will be low
Gluconeogenesis will be high, ketoacidosis will be high and blood sugar will be high
Gluconeogensis will be low, ketoacidosis will be high and blood sugar will be high
Gluconeogenesis will be low, ketoacidosis will be low and blood sugar will be high
Gluconeogenesis will be low, ketoacidosis will be low and blood sugar will be low
Definition
B
Term
In the term LIPEMIA, ‘lip’ is the ______________. It is modified by the _______________ ‘emia’,
which means ________________.
Of the choices listed, which correlates best with the above (terms and the sequence must correspond
correctly)?
Prefix – suffix – fat
Prefix – root - cholesterolemia
Root – suffix - blood condition
Root – prefix – high white blood cells
Suffix – root – fat-free condition of red blood cells
Definition
C
Term
Select the portions of the world most affected by the reemergence of Tuberculosis.
Australia
Europe
Middle East
North America
Sub-Saharan Africa
Definition
sub-saharan africa
Term
Select from the following list the ranking of the United States in Infant Mortality Worldwide.
19
18
28
52
Definition
28
Term
Viagra increases the apparent Km of its target enzyme but does not affect the Vmax; this suggests that
sildenafil (Viagra):
Is a weak inhibitor of the enzyme
Binds at the active site of the enzyme
Is a strong inhibitor of the enzyme
Is an irreversible inhibitor of the enzyme
Is a positive allosteric effector of the enzyme
Definition
B
Term
You have just finished examining a 54-year-old male patient in the emergency department for joint pain.
The patient has a known history of rheumatic fever and osteoarthritis. Which of the following best
describes the type of joint pain seen in a patient with rheumatic fever?
Pain in multiple joints at one time
Pain in multiple joints at different times
Pain in the hip joint only
Pain in the shoulder joint
Pain in the hip and knee
Definition
B
Term
A 20-year-old soccer player presents with back pain after a fall. You palpate his thoracic spine and find
that at the level of the inferior angle of the scapula his right transverse process is more prominent
compared to the left when he bends forward. When he bends backwards the transverse processes feel
equal. Which of the following best describes the somatic dysfunction?
T7ERS right
T7FRS left
T7FRS right
T8ERS right
T8FRS right
Definition
T7ERS right and T8ERS right
Term

PAIN is always a symptoms as there is no measurement
FEVER is typically a sign as it can be measured -
TENDERNESS - I would rate it more as a "sign" especially when the surrounding information points towards being elicited by the physician or other health care practitioner, for that matter...
Definition
Subjective = symptom = what patient reports is "happening to him/her"
Objective = signs = what can be observed by another person (other than patient)
Term
WHY BOTHER DOING THIS?! YOU WILL FAIL ANYWAY!!!
Definition
=D
Term
Still want to continue? Okay! here we go
Definition
by the way you are failing!
Term
When temperatures rise into the 32°C range Malaria transmissibility is affected by:
Decreased biting frequency
Decreased transmission potential
Increased biting frequency
Increased breeding period
Longer incubation period
Definition

Increase biting frequency

increase breeding period

Term
A 35-year-old man developed frank urinary bleeding and was subsequently diagnosed with kidney
failure. Which of the following terms refers to the presence of red blood cells in the urine?
Anemia
Hepatitis
Hematuria
Leukocytosis
Melena
Definition
Hematuria
Term
Doctor Wilson is presenting a lecture to first year medical students and mentions that one of his patients
has a diminished red blood cell count per laboratory studies. Which of the following terms refers to this
observation?
Anemia
Hepatitis
Hematuria
Leukocytosis
Melena
Definition
anemia
Term
Which of the following are most frequently involved in Wilson’s disease?
Central nervous system and muscles
Bones and kidneys
Heart and lungs
Liver & central nervous system
Stomach & liver
Definition
Liver and central nervous system
Term
A 26-year-old man is diagnosed with disease involving creatine phosphokinase. This enzyme can be
found in which type of tissue?
Bone
Eye
Liver
Muscle
Skin
Definition
muscle
Term
In the Emergency Department, blood tests demonstrate that your patient may be having a heart attack.
Of the following choices listed, which blood tests are most specific to heart tissue?
CPK BB & Troponin T
CPK MB & Troponin I
CPK MM & Troponin I
CPK MM & Troponin T
CPK MM & Troponin C
Definition
cpk mb and troponin I
Term
A 34-year-old man was diagnosed with carnitine palmitoyltransferase deficiency. The following
symptom/ sign would be most consistent with the disease:
Muscle hypertrophy
Jaundice
Myalgia
Neuralgia
Gastritis
Definition
myalgia
Term
The leading cause of death in developed and developing countries is:
HIV/AIDS
Lower respiratory infections
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
Ischemic heart disease
Lung cancer
Definition
ischemic heart disease
Term
What does “a change in the pattern of disease in a country away from infectious diseases towards
degenerative diseases” define?
The Epidemiologic Transition
The Demographic Transition
The Nutrition Transition
The Urban Transition
The Suburban Transition
Definition
The epidemiologic transition
Term

Which of the following represents the correct pairing?
Anatomy – mostly Greek origins
Endocarditis – inflammation of the external covering of the heart
Gastritis – “itis” is the prefix
Psychooncology – teaching/study of the psychosocial factors associated with cancer
Pyelonephritis – inflammation of the veins of the kidney

Definition
psychooncology
Term
A 23-year-old first year law student presents to the osteopathic clinic for her initial evaluation. She
reports being tired, has difficulty getting out of a chair, and simply feels weak, and her muscles feel achy
but can be quite painful at times as well. After you have performed a detailed initial history and
examination your preceptor queries as to whether the patient has complained of myalgia. Which of the
following would be the most appropriate answer?
No, the patient said nothing about muscle swelling
Yes, the patient confirmed that she experienced muscle swelling
No, the patient said nothing about muscle pain
Yes, the patient confirmed that she experienced muscle pain
No, the patient said nothing about muscle spasms
Definition
Yes, the patient confirmed that she experienced muscle pain
Term
A retired 67-year-old teacher had previously been seen in the clinic for unresolved foot swelling and
pain after she had sustained a major ankle strain/sprain (almost a real case!). Osteopathic manipulation
has helped improve her pain and range of motion when, unfortunately, the patient struck her small toe
against her computer and re-injured the same foot. In yesterday’s follow up visit, three weeks after the
re-injury, she reports having such pain in the lateral portion of the foot that even putting on socks would
cause her to experience excruciating pain. Which of the following would be the most appropriate term to
describe the current presentation?
Allodynia
Hyperalgesia
Hypoesthesia
Myalgia
Neuritis
Definition
allodynia
Term
DNA polymerase I:
Lacks proofreading activity
Catalyzes DNA synthesis on the lagging strand
Acts to remove primers from the 3’ end of new DNA
Has high processivity
Connects Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand
Definition
catalyze DNA synthesis on the lagging strand
Term

Which one is a correct statement about DNA replication?


Mismatched nucleotides are removed from the 3' end
Primase is required to separate the two strands
DNA polymerase I acts on the leading strand
Addition of all new nucleotides is done by DNA polymerase III
Telomerase relaxes positive supercoils

Definition

Mismatched nucleotides are removed from the 3' end

DNA polymerase I acts on the leading strand

 

Term
Which enzymatic activity proofreads new DNA?
3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III
3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase II
5' to 3' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III
5' to 3' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I
Polymerizing activity of DNA polymerase I
Definition
3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III
Term
Topoisomerases:
Only add more DNA supercoils
Act during DNA replication
Relax negative supercoils during replication
Introduce positive supercoils before replication starts
Are active in DNA repair
Definition
act during DNA replication
Term
Which of the following amino acids is most likely to be found on the surface of a globular protein?
Leu
Val
Ile
Asp
Pro
Definition
Asp
Term
Which of the following amino acids is likely to be found in the hydrophobic core of a globular protein?
Asp
Lys
Glu
Arg
Ile
Definition
Ile
Term
Which of the following amino acids is likely to be present at the binding site for calcium ions on a
protein?
Asp
Lys
Gly
Arg
Ile
Definition
Asp
Term
A sample of a purified protein was analyzed for amino terminal end group. Valine and Leucine were
detected as amino end groups. This suggests that:
The protein is pure
The protein is pure and has two amino ends
The protein is pure and has at least two amino ends
The sample contains more than one protein
The sample contains cyclic proteins
Definition

The sample contains more than one protein

or

the protein is pure and has at least two amino ends

Term
Only multi subunit proteins have:
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure
Native structure
Definition
Quaternary structure
Term
Cytochrome oxidase has a tightly bound copper ion essential for its activity. This copper ion is:
Not necessary for the enzyme activity
An apoenzyme
A cofactor
A vitamin
A coenzyme
Definition
A cofactor
Term
Fasciculin is a snake venom protein which increases the activity of the enzyme acetylcholine esterase.
Fasciculin binds to acetylcholine esterase at site away from the active site. Such binding increases the
activity of acetylcholine esterase. This is an example of:
Enzyme induction
Allosteric control
Feedback inhibition
Reversible covalent modification
Precursor activation
Definition
allosteric control (binding to site other than active site)
Term
Persons that take sleeping tablets may increase levels of monooxygenase enzymes many fold. Such a
change in enzyme activity levels is an example of:
Enzyme induction
Allosteric control
Feedback inhibition
Reversible covalent modification
Precursor activation
Definition
enzyme induction
Term
Methanol ( CH3OH) poisoning is caused by methanol being converted to formaldehyde by alcohol
dehydrogenase. Methanol poisoning is treated by administering ethanol (CH3CH2OH). This could be
because:
Methanol is soluble in ethanol
Ethanol is soluble in methanol
Ethanol stimulates alcohol dehydrogenase competitively
Ethanol inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase competitively
Ethanol inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase noncompetitively
Definition
EtOH inhibits alcohold dehydrogenase competitively
Term
In the overall scheme of metabolism, it is difficult to convert:
Amino acids to Acetyl CoA
Acetyl CoA to pyruvate
Glucose to pyruvate
Acetyl CoA to fatty acids
Fatty acids to acetyl CoA
Definition
Acetyl Coa to Pyruvate
Term
Most of the carbon dioxide produced in the body is produced:
During glycolysis
During protein synthesis
In the tricarboxylic acid cycle
During oxidative phosphorylation
During the conversion of glucose to pyruvate
Definition
In the tricarboxylic acid cycle
Term
Ketone bodies are routinely used as fuel by:
Muscle
Adipose tissue
Liver
Brain
Kidney
Definition
Muscle
Term
Proton pumping during respiration is minimal at:
Complex I
Complex II
Complex III
Complex IV
Cytochrome Oxidase
Definition
Complex II
Term
Oxygen binds only to:
Complex I
Complex II
Complex III
Complex IV
Cytochrome Oxidase
Definition
complex IV is also named CYtochrome Oxidase
Term
Which of the following structures contains ONLY motor (efferent) axons?
Dorsal root
Ventral root
Spinal nerve
Dorsal ramus
Ventral ramus
Definition
Ventral Root
Term
A 25-year-old male medical student presents with bilateral posterior neck pain. He was in a motor
vehicle accident earlier in the day. Upon physical exam you find he feels pain with active range of
motion in all planes of motion. After ruling out fractures and head injury, you contemplate treating the
patient with osteopathic manipulation. Muscle energy treatment would most likely be painful to this
patient because:
Muscle Energy is an active-direct treatment
Muscle Energy is an active-indirect treatment
Muscle Energy is a passive-direct treatment
Muscle Energy is a passive-indirect treatment
Muscle Energy is a passive-direct and indirect treatment
Definition
Muscle Energy is an active-direct treatment
Term
A 37-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of right-sided neck pain. After taking a
thorough history and performing a complete exam on your patient, you decide to treat the somatic
dysfunction, C3 ERS right, with the muscle energy technique. According to current understanding,
which of the following is the most likely physiologic principle that applies to muscle energy technique?
The muscle spindle reflex, reciprocal innervation and elastic stretch
The golgi tendon reflex, the muscle spindle reflex and elastic stretch
The Babinski reflex, reciprocal innervation and elastic stretch
The golgi tendon reflex, reciprocal innervation and the babinski reflex
The golgi tendon reflex, reciprocal innervation and elastic stretch
Definition
E
Term
The placenta is formed from the:
Cytotrophoblast
Inner cell mass
Embryoblast
Syncytiotrophoblast
Uterine wall
Definition
syncytiotrophoblast
Term
Which structure is originally a solid rod, then a hollow elongated tube, subsequently becoming flat, then
solid again and eventually segmented?
Somite
Cumulus oophorus
Primitive streak
Zona pellucida
Notochord
Definition
Notochord
Term
A doctor inspects the internal surface of a uterus with an implanted embryo. The location is termed:
Decidua parietalis
Decidua capsularis
Smooth chorion
Intervillus space
Endometrium
Definition

decidua capsularis

or

more generally the Endometrium

Term

which structure will fuse to the chorion?

  1. The amnion
  2. The back of the embryo
  3. The placenta
  4. The connecting stalk
  5. Oropharyngeal membrane
Definition
The amnion
Term

Most of the long muscles in the body utilize:

  1. A first-class lever action, with the fulcrum placed between the point of effort and resistance
  2. A concentric contraction only
  3. A second-class lever action, with the resistance placed between the fulcrum and the point of effort
  4. A third-class lever action, with the point of effort between the fulcrum and resistance
  5. A static contraction action only
Definition
4

Term

Your patient complains of upper thoracic pain after studying for an exam for several days at a low desk.
You diagnose T3 Extended, Rotated Right, Sidebent Right (T3 ERrSr). Which facet is involved and
which function is it unable to perform?

  1. The right facet cannot open
  2. The left facet cannot open
  3. The right facet cannot close
  4. The left facet cannot close
Definition
The right facet cannot open
Term

A 38-year-old mother presents to the office with her 17-year-old son who was apparently injured in
football tackle three days ago. He has low back pain but there is no pain elsewhere. He is healthy
otherwise and denies any other problems. History and physical examination were otherwise entirely
negative except for increased muscle tone in the lumbar paravertebral muscles. The mother insists to
have an X-ray taken as well as an MRI and a bone scan, and specific rheumatological laboratory studies,
because she states that “this is what I have read on the internet should be done.” Which of the following
statements would be the most appropriate in this situation?

  1. You order the tests and labs requested by the mother, since all osteopathic tenets apply to thissituation
  2. You advise the mother that the tests should not be done as they are too expensive, and there is noestablished connection between structure and function
  3. You order an X-ray to “please the mother,” because you want to demonstrate that you care
  4. You refer the patient to an orthopedic surgeon in order for the patient to have the benefit of the fullscope of osteopathic medical practice
  5. You explain to the mother your rationale of how to proceed, an activity which you see as part ofbeing a “health navigator”
Definition
E
Term

Which of the following statements about “manual medicine” is correct?

  1. It is one of the youngest healing arts
  2. Its practice remains “separate and alternative” as its techniques cannot be integrated into the
  3. standard/orthodox medical approach
  4. Is the overarching term that includes such approaches as osteopathic manipulative medicine, ancient
  5. manipulation techniques, and others
  6. Is associated with a large number of major complications
  7. Has failed to analyze to date its own successes and failures as there exists no formal research
Definition
C
Term

Recent advances in the field of manual medicine that have improved scientific understanding include
which of the following?

 

  1. Increasing numbers of manipulation performed each year
  2. Successful marketing campaigns by various professional groups
  3. Growth of various rehabilitation programs that include manual medicine procedures
  4. The development of standardized, internationally recognized, terminology
  5. Introduction of specific terms such as “osteopathic lesion”, “subluxation”, and “joint blockage”
Definition
D
Term

Vaccination, water and sewage treatment, and safe food handling have all vastly improved our ability to
control which type of disease?

  1. Cancer
  2. Cardiac Disease
  3. Cerebrovascular accidents
  4. Certain infectious diseases
  5. Diabetes

 

Definition
certain infectious disease
Term
Beta Alpha Beta is a common
motif
primary structure
quaternary structure
antigen binding site
posttranslational modification
Definition
motif
Term
Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NADH) is
a coenzyme derived from ascorbic acid
a cofactor derived from ascorbic acid
a coenzyme derived from niacin
a holoenzyme without protein
an apoenzyme without protein
Definition
a coenzyme derived from niacin
Term

An enzyme that catalyzes a reaction changes

  1. the free energy change of the reaction
  2. the equilibrium of the reaction
  3. the equilibrium concentration of the product
  4. the rate of the reaction
  5. the temperature of the reaction

 

Definition
4
Term

For the reduction of NAD+ to NADH, the standard reduction potential is - 0.320 V (negative 0.320V) .
This suggests that, under standard conditions,

  1. the equilibrium will be to the product (NADH) side
  2. the equilibrium will be to the reactant (NAD+) side
  3. the system is at equilibrium
  4. NADH will oxidize Oxygen to water
  5. NADH cannot be oxidized

 

Definition
2
Term

Reducing equivalents (electrons) may enter the mitochondria from the cytosol as

  1. NADH
  2. NAD+
  3. Malate
  4. Aspartate
  5. Dihydroxyacetonephosphate

 

Definition
malate
Term

When reentry of protons into the mitochondria through the ATP synthase is inhibited by Oligomycin

  1. the proton gradient and respiration will increase
  2. the proton gradient will be steady at a high value and respiration will decrease
  3. the proton gradient will be steady at a low value and respiration will decrease
  4. the proton gradient will be steady at a high value and respiration will increase
  5. the proton gradient will be steady at a low value and respiration will increase
Definition
2
Term

DNA polymerase III

  1. Has moderate processivity
  2. Has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity
  3. Acts to remove primers
  4. Removes mismatched nucleotides
  5. Acts to extend telomeres

 

Definition

4. remove mismatched nucleotide

 

Term

During transcription

  1. The mRNA has the same sequence as the antisense strand
  2. RNA polymerase requires a primer for initiation
  3. Both DNA strands are copied simultaneously
  4. Topoisomerases help form the transcription initiation complex
  5. The sigma subunit of RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter

 

Definition
5. The signma Subunit of RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter
Term

The first enzyme to act during base excision repair is

  1. AP (apurinic/apyrimidinic) endonuclease
  2. DNA ligase
  3. DNA polymerase
  4. DNA glycosylase

 

Definition
DNA glycosylate
Term

Patients with xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) are prone to developing skin cancer due to sensitivity to
sunlight. One form of XP is due to the absence of

  1. Topoisomerase
  2. Exonuclease
  3. Endonuclease
  4. DNA glycosylase
  5. DNA ligase

 

Definition
3. endonuclease
Term

The electron transport chain component that is entirely outside the matrix

  1. NADH
  2. Complex II
  3. Complex III
  4. Succinic acid
  5. Cytochrome c

 

Definition
5. cytochrome C
Term

What are the terms for fast heart rate & slow heart rate respectively?

  1. Tachycardia & Angina
  2. Tachycardia & Bradycardia
  3. Bradycardia & Tachycardia
  4. Bradycardia & Jaundice
  5. Angina & Myocardial Infarction

 

Definition
2. TachyCardia and Bradycardia
Term

A 22-year-old woman with Wilson disease is about to receive a liver transplant.
The transplant surgeon, an osteopathic physician, enters the following information in the medical chart:
“Palpation of the abdomen reveals an enlarged liver. Even slight palpatory pressure over the liver caused
significant discomfort to the patient. Palpation of the tissues surrounding the right transverse processes
of T6, T7 and T8 was associated with significant tenderness, increased muscle tone and swelling. There
was a somatic dysfunction at T8-T9 on the right.”
Which of the following is an objective finding associated with the diagnosis of somatic dysfunction?

  1. Abdominal tenderness
  2. Tenderness in the area of the T8 transverse process
  3. Enlarged liver
  4. Increased muscle tone at T7, on the right
  5. Absence of swelling at the T 9 level on the left

 

Definition
4. Increased Muscle tone at T7, on the right
Term

Facet Joints of the spine

  1. are Formed by the inferior and superior articular processes
  2. are pseudo-synovial joints since they lack a joint capsule
  3. typically allow greater than 40 degrees of motion at each joint
  4. have similar inclination angles in the thoracic and lumbar spine
  5. are located anterior to the vertebral body
Definition
1. are formed by the inferior and superior articular processes
Term

Which of the following would be listed under the subjective section in the SOAP format when making a
diagnosis of somatic dysfunction?

  1. Tissue texture change
  2. Asymmetry
  3. Motion restriction
  4. Swollen facet joint
  5. Tenderness

 

Definition
Tenderness
Term

During examination of a 16-year-old girl , a group curve is noted that is concave to the left. The curve
includes the thoracic vertebral units from T3 through T7. These segments remain markedly rotated in the
same direction whether this thoracic spinal region is flexed or extended. The examiner concludes that
this region displays neutral Type I Fryette spinal mechanics. The expected segmental spinal diagnosis in
this group from T3 through T7 is:

  1. extended, side-bent right, rotated right
  2. flexed, side-bent right, rotated right
  3. side-bent left rotated left
  4. side-bent left rotated right
  5. side-bent right, rotated left

 

Definition
4. side-bent left rotated right
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