Term
| name 3 ethical issues you need to discuss with clients considering breeding horses |
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Definition
a. Are the genetics appropriate to breed?
b. Is the animal healthy enough to be bred?
c. Are you breeding in an appropriate manner? Veterinary supervision; training; etc. |
|
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Term
| what BCS is desirable for breeding mares? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| name 3 major health problems that are exacerbated by obesity during pregnancy. |
|
Definition
a. Laminitis
b. ***Metabolic syndrome
c. Thermoregulation (overheating) |
|
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Term
| What a standard protocol to advance the breeding season in the mare |
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Definition
Artifical photoperiod – start at least 60 days pre-breeding, 16 hrs of light, decreased length if bring in a stallion or combine with dopamine antagonist therapy b. Dopamine antagonists (Sulpiride or Domperidone) – dopamine inhibits prolactin secretion from pituitary gland, which plays a role in follicular growth. Dopamine antagonists increase circulating prolactin levels, which stimulate follicular development in the anestrus mare, to shorten the interval to first ovulation. |
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Term
| What typical ultrasonographic findings are found on the ovaries during late transition to the breeding season? |
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Definition
a. Good uterine edema b. If used hCG for induction of ovulation – 35mm follicle c. If used GnRH for induction of ovulation – 30mm follicle |
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Term
| What hormones are used to shorten the transitional period? |
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Definition
a. eFSH – induces follicular development and ovulation in transitional mares. Also can be used to superovulate. Induces ovulation when largest follicle is 35mm. b. GnRH analoges c. Dopamine antagonists (sylpride, perphenazine, domperidone) d. PGF2a analoges e. Prolactin f. TRH-TSH |
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Term
| What is the modern standard of care used for natural cover (natural breeding), in terms of frequency of mating? |
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Definition
| In-hand mating – monitor mare by rectal palpation to ensure adequate follicle size and mate ONCE |
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Term
| What hormonal treatment offers the best synchronization of follicular activity in mares? |
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Definition
Progesterone + Estradiol for 10 days, then give PGF2a, then bring into clinic for monitoring a week later, and give hCG or GnRH to induce ovulation (when ready) - 80% ovulate 8 to 9 days post treatment |
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Term
| Name 2 hormones commonly used for induction of ovulation in estrous mares |
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Definition
a. hCG – follicles of 35mm or more b. GnRH (Deslorelin) – follicles of 30mm or more c. ** both require uterine edema |
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Term
| What are the basic requirements in order to have satisfactory response to induction of ovulation |
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Definition
a. Adequate follicular growth b. Uterine edema |
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Term
| When do you expect mares to ovulate after Deslorelin or hCG administration? |
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Definition
a. hCG – 28 to 48 hrs b. GnRH – 36 – 42 hrs |
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Term
| What is the best timing of insemination when using frozen-thawed semen? |
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Definition
Inseminate 12 hrs before ovulation to 4 hrs after ovulation - Give GnRH, then check mare every 6 hrs (or can go with statistics of when most ovulate – 36 to 42 hrs) |
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Term
| When should the first pregnancy diagnosis be scheduled? |
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Definition
a. 14 days post-ovulation b. Perform preg diagnosis ALWAYS if mare was bred |
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Term
| Outline a vaccination program for a pregnant mare in Western Washington |
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Definition
a. Rhinopneumonitis (every 2 mo., some used modified live) b. Tetanus & Rabies(4-6 wks before due date) c. Eastern and Western Encephalitis Virus (30d before due date) d. West Nile Virus (30 days pre due date) e. Botulism (8th, 9th, 10th month & 30 days before due date) |
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Term
| Name two techniques for prediction or surveillance of foaling |
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Definition
a. Udder secretion – check for changes in electrolytes (Ca/Mg) b. Electronic devices that follow tension of the vulvar lips c. Signs of impending foaling: i. Mammary development 4-6 wks pre-partum ii. Increase in mammary gland size (last 2 wks pregnancy) iii. Waxing (24-48 hrs prepartum) iv. Mammary gland secretion increases in viscosity v. Relaxation of sacro-sciatic ligament (days prior to partum) vi. Relaxation and elongation of vulva hours prior |
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Term
| What are the most important equine venereal diseases present in the USA? |
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Definition
a. Equine coital exanthema*** b. Equine Viral Arteritis c. Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM)*** d. Contagious bacteria – Klebsiella, Pseudomonas |
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Term
| What is the etiology of coital exanthema? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the etiology of contagious equine metritis (CEM) |
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Definition
| Taylorella equigenitalis gram negative microaerophillic coccobacillus (likes little C02, hides in crevices, clitoral fossa or urethral fossa) |
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Term
| What are the clinical symptoms of CEM in the mares? |
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Definition
Basicly Vaginal discharge within 24-72 hrs (persists for one cycle), cervicitis (longer) a. Chronic carriers and stallions lack clinical signs b. 24-72 hrs – vaginal exudate c. 3-5 days post infection – copious amounts of purulent vaginal discharge. Most of exudate is from uterus. d. 7-10 days – discharge subsides, and is completely gone by 18 days e. 6 wks – cervicitis can persist f. Shortened diestrus following infection |
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|
Term
| What are the clinical symptoms of CEM in stallion? |
|
Definition
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Term
| What is the best sample for diagnosis of CEM in mares and stallion? |
|
Definition
a. Mare : clitoral fossa and sinus, vaginal discharge b. Stallion: pre-ejaculatory fluid, urethral swabs, urethral fossa, semen c. ***NO COTTON SWABS |
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|
Term
| What laboratory test is considered the gold standard for diagnosis of CEM? |
|
Definition
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Term
| Name 2 methods of reversible contraception in mares |
|
Definition
a. Progesterones – not all work (prolong luteal phase) i. Altrenogest and progesterone native ii. Feed every day or compound to give every 30 days b. Glass marbles – prevents release of PGF2a in uterus, but only works in 40% of mares c. Immunization against GnRH (only approved in Aussie land) |
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Term
| Does ovariectomy prevent estrus behavior in 100% of mares? |
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Definition
| May not correct behavior in 30% |
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Term
| Name two clinical conditions causing behavior that may be mistaken for estrus. |
|
Definition
a. Granulosa Cell Tumor (produces estrogen) b. Vaginitis/cystitis |
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Term
| Name a cause of stallion like behavior in the mare. |
|
Definition
a. Granulosa-teca cell tumor -testosterone producing b. Pain at ovulation (ovarian hematoma or large follicles) |
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Term
| Name 3 causes of anestrus in mares. |
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Definition
a. **Always R/O pregnancy first, no matter the history b. Persistent Corpus Luteum c. Ovarian tumors - GTCT d. Pyometra e. Persistent endometrial cups |
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Term
| Explain how pregnancy loss after 35 days will result in anestrus. |
|
Definition
a. Persistent Endometrial Cups i. With embryonic death at >35 days, the endometrial cups are already formed and they don’t go away unless the embryo is rejected. High levels of ciculating progesterone from leuteinized follicles. Endometrial cups remain until ~120 days of preg. ii. Difficult to bring back into cycle, because there is no CL, so they are not sensitive to PGF2a iii. Normal uterine track on palpation iv. Check for reasons of embryonic loss – fibrosis, metritis, iatrogenic |
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|
Term
| What is the most likely origin of the uterine cysts seen on ultrasonography in older mares? |
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Definition
a. Lymphatic in origin b. Common as a degenerative change in older mares |
|
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Term
| How can uterine cysts affect fertility? |
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Definition
a. Interference with embryo mobility (early in embryo life) b. Interference with implantation and placentation c. Cysts may mechanically interfere with cervix to impede closure |
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|
Term
| What is the best method for diagnosis of endometritis in the mare? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major classifications (grades) of endometrial biopsies and what do they mean in terms of fertility |
|
Definition
a. Grade I - >80% foaling rate i. No abnormalities or only slight change on biopsy b. Grade IIa – 50-90% foaling rate i. Slight to moderate diffuse cellular infiltration 1. scattered frequent inflammatory foci and fibrotic changes ii. Prognosis is good if treated; reversible changes c. Grade IIb – 10-50% foaling rate i. Widespread, diffuse and moderately severe foci of inflammation ii. Widespread and uniformly distributed fibrosis of individual gland branches iii. Prognosis fairly good if treated d. Grade III - <10% foaling rate i. Widespread periglandular fibrosis, greater than 5 nests ii. Widespread, severe inflammation iii. Neoplastic changes iv. Prognosis poor |
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Term
| What is a Calslick’s procedure? |
|
Definition
a. Reduction fo the mucocutaneous junction of the vulva to prevent aspiration of air or bacteria b. Indications – pneuomovagina, perineal conformation issues in multiparous mares |
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Term
| Outline a protocol for treatment of endometritis. |
|
Definition
a. Correction of predisposing factors – tilted vagina, urovagina, etc b. Breeding management – sexual rest for one cycle c. Intrauterine therapy i. Flush uterus – evacuate inflammatory debris ii. Anitceptic drugs- can dilute povidone iodine solution iii. Daily uterine infusion – antibiotics based on C/S (buffer amikacin and gentocin because of pH), and/or antifungals if indicated iv. Do not enrofloxicin v. Treat every 24 hours for 4-5 days d. Systemic therapy |
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|
Term
What is persistent mating-induced endometritis (PMIE)?
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|
Definition
a. All mares develop endometritis after semen deposited either by AI or natural cover. Contact of uterus w/ spermatozoa --> influx of neutrophils. b. Problem is when it becomes persistent if they can not clear infection.
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Term
| Outline management of mares with PMIE |
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Definition
a. Pre-insemination uterine lavage b. Timing of insemination is critical – follicles at correct size, etc. c. Wait four hours – then enhance uterine clearance with Cloprostenol (more affective that PGF2a) Oxytosin is another option. |
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|
Term
| What hormones can you use as ecbolics to help with uterine clearance? |
|
Definition
a. PGF2a b. Oxytocin c. Cloprostenol |
|
|
Term
| What hormone should be part of a diagnostic panel of Granulosa Theca Cell Tumors? |
|
Definition
| Inhibin increased over 0.8 nanograms/mL in absence of normal follicles is highly suggestive |
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|
Term
| What embryonic mechanisms are involved in maternal recognition of pregnancy and prevention of luteal regression? |
|
Definition
Transuterine migration of embryo prevents PGF2a release by endometrium. Occurs until day 16 after ovulation. - Embryo must travel at least 2/3 of uterus. |
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|
Term
| When does the embryo fix in mares? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the origin of equine chorionic gonadotropin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the origin or the endometrial cups? |
|
Definition
| Specialized fetal trophoblast cells from chorionic girdle |
|
|
Term
| At what stage the placenta takes over maintenance of pregnancy in mares? |
|
Definition
| After 1st trimester (placentation starting day 45) |
|
|
Term
| What is the incidence range of early pregnancy loss in mares between 14 and 50 days of pregnancy? |
|
Definition
| Range of 9 to 19% pregnancy loss |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 ultrasonographic signs of embryonic death |
|
Definition
a. Disorganization of fetal membrane and collapsed amnion b. Cellular, hyperechoic in chorioallantoic region c. No heart beat d. Fluid in uterine lumen e. Slow growth in size |
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|
Term
| What parameters are utilized to evaluate fetal wellbeing? |
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Definition
a. Heart rate & rhythm b. Fetal size and number c. Tone and fetal movement d. Fetal membranes/thickness of the uteroplacenta e. Fetal biometrics f. Placental evaluation g. Endocrinology |
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Term
| What is the purpose of determination of the combined uteroplacental thickness? |
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Definition
a. A healthy thickness in cm is the # of months pregnant +2 b. Evaluate main placental attachment c. In normal pregnancies, should be between 7.1 and 11.5 cm d. The first place for ascending infection is at the ventral aspect. |
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Term
| What fetal biometrics can be used to estimate stage of pregnancy? |
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Definition
a. Aorta systolic diameter (linear relationship to days in pregnancy) b. Biparietal diameter (linear relationship to days in pregnancy) c. Eye volume (linear) d. Kidney cross-sectional area |
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|
Term
| What ultrasonographic features are highly suggestive of fetal stress? |
|
Definition
a. Persistent fetal tachycardia or bradycardia b. Large or progressively larger areas of placental detachment c. Rapid drop in progestins |
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|
Term
| What is the normal presentation and position of the equine fetus during the last trimester of pregnancy? |
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Definition
| Cranial presentation lying in the dorso-pubic position |
|
|
Term
| Name two features of impending abortion. |
|
Definition
a. Large or progressively enlarging areas of placental detachment b. Premature mammary development and lactation c. Rapid fall of progestins |
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Term
| Outline a general approach to managing the mare with placentitis (drug choice and reason for use). |
|
Definition
a. NSAIDS (Flunixin) – to limit prostaglandin affects b. Altrenogest to ensure myometrial quiescence (wont prevent foaling as in other species) c. Antibiotics (TMS, Potassium Penicillin, Gentamycin) – based on culture and sensitivity from cervical swabs or vaginal discharge d. Improve oxygenation and reduce effect of inflammation by products e. Support fetal metabolism (dextrose) |
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Term
| What is the most important reason for failure to attain a precise diagnosis of the cause of abortion? |
|
Definition
Pathologists that are equine specialists (such as in Kentucky) -Completeness of records and submissions |
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|
Term
| What are the 2 leading viral causes of abortion in mares? |
|
Definition
a. Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis b. Equine Viral Arteritis |
|
|
Term
| Outline a prevention strategy for EVA. |
|
Definition
a. Test stallions or teaser mares at the beginning of every season b. Require negative status for AI and vaccination c. Vaccinate with MLV i. After vaccination, keep stallions separate for 30 days ii. Only non-pregnant mares can be vaccinated |
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|
Term
| How can you prevent EHV-1? |
|
Definition
a. Vaccinate i. Works well but not 100% ii. Vaccinated every 2 mo. when pregnant iii. Vaccinate about every 11 mo. otherwise |
|
|
Term
| Name the two leading causes of non-infectious abortions in thoroughbreds. |
|
Definition
a. Twinning b. Umbilical cord torsion |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common features of an ascending placentitis? |
|
Definition
a. Lesions generally located at cervical star b. Persistent fetal tachycardia (trying to compensate for decreased oxygen) c. Thickening of the uterine wall > 13mm d. Increased Combined Uteral-Placental Thickness (CUPT >17.5mm) e. Increased progestins concentration f. Pockets of hyperechoic fluids (accumulation of pus at areas of placental detachment) |
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Term
| What is the main factor that determines the outcome of twin conception in the mare (i.e. natural reduction vs. late abortion)? |
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Definition
a. Location of vesicles with respect to each other i. 70% unilaterally fix, and of those, 83% are reduced to single pregnancy by 40 days ii. 30% bilaterally fix, and result in mid to late term abortions of both feti or premature foaling (0% reduction by 30 days) |
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Term
| What is the most successful method for reduction of twin pregnancies (timing and technique)? |
|
Definition
Crushing – prior to fixation (14-16 days) - 100% effective, if twins are separated |
|
|
Term
| What is the best method of diagnosis of uterine torsion? |
|
Definition
| Trans-rectal palpation – use broad ligament to determine direction of torsion |
|
|
Term
| List the methods used for correction of uterine torsion. |
|
Definition
a. Non-surgical – Rolling b. Surgical – midline laparotomy or flank |
|
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Term
| Consider a mare with a clockwise uterine torsion. What would be position of the left board ligament and which side would you lay her on if you want to attempt correction by rolling? |
|
Definition
a. Left broad ligament is on dorsal side of uterus b. Lay mare in right lateral recumbancy and roll multiple times (at least 3) and recheck with serial rectal palpation |
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|
Term
| What clinical signs are commonly seen with hydrops allatois in the mare? |
|
Definition
a. Sudden increase in size of abdomen b. Respiratory difficulty c. Colic d. Constipation e. Dysuria f. Excessive abdominal pressure may cause other systemic signs |
|
|
Term
| Name one non-physiological cause of prolonged pregnancy in mares. |
|
Definition
| Tall fescue toxicosis (especially in PNW) |
|
|
Term
| Why is pregnancy prolonged in cases of fescue toxicosis? |
|
Definition
| Decreased relaxin level (normally relaxin levels should peak just prior to parturition) |
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|
Term
| What other complications would you see in mares with fescue toxicosis ? |
|
Definition
a. Increased CUPT (placental edema thickening) b. Low plasma progestin concentration c. Altered adrenal and thyroid function d. Low prolactin causes agalactia e. Weak, immature foals |
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|
Term
| How can you prevent prolonged pregnancy and agalactia in fescue toxicosis? |
|
Definition
(I am uncertain- two options): Give prolactin and relaxin OR Give Domperidone – prevents ergovaline from inhibiting prolactin release. (any suggestions to the answer?) |
|
|
Term
| What does the term “red bag” means. What is the red part of the “red bag”? |
|
Definition
| chorioallantois- indicates premature placental separation |
|
|
Term
| What is a common cause of vaginal bleeding in pregnant mares? |
|
Definition
a. Varicose veins – spotting blood at end of pregnancy b. Note: blood with concurrent bagging up = impending abortion |
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|
Term
| What is the normal duration of the second stage of labor in the mare? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is one important rule in performing obstetrical manipulation in the mare? |
|
Definition
| Every manipulation has to be done within 20 min. |
|
|
Term
| What is the ideal restraint for the mare for controlled vaginal delivery? |
|
Definition
| Heavy sedation ( Detomidine & Burtorphanol) or anesthesia |
|
|
Term
| What other conditions would you consider if an anterior presentation, bilateral carpal flexion is not responsive to normal correction with retropulsion and mutation techniques? |
|
Definition
a. **Contracted tendons b. Posterior presentation with bilateral hip flexion and incomplete rotation c. Mare dilation problems are rare |
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|
Term
| Which sedative is contraindicated in depressed postpartum mares? |
|
Definition
| Xylazine and Detomidine – causes hypersensitivity over hindquarters and increases uterine contractions |
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|
Term
| When would you consider abdominocentesis in a postpartum mare? |
|
Definition
a. Severely depressed, colicky, non-responsive to therapy b. Incoordination or ataxia c. Lack of urination |
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|
Term
| What parameters in peritoneal fluid analysis suggest immediate critical care ? |
|
Definition
a. TP > 30g/L b. WBC > 15 x 10^9 / L c. > 80 % neutrophils |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of retained placenta seen at WSU? |
|
Definition
| Overzealous use of oxytocin – disturbance of rhythmic contractions |
|
|
Term
| What is the ideal method to administer oxytocin for the treatment of retained placenta? |
|
Definition
| Continuous rate drip (1 IU/min in LRS or saline) |
|
|
Term
| When would you consider a placenta retained in mare? |
|
Definition
| 3 hrs postpartum although this is a conservative number |
|
|
Term
| What are potential causes of retained placenta in the mare? |
|
Definition
a. Risk factors i. Dystocia ii. Abortion or stillborn iii. Fetal hydrops iv. Placentitis v. Metabolic disorders vi. breeds b. Pathophysiology i. Hypocalcemia ii. Uterine atony iii. Lack of exercise (compromised foal) iv. Reduced phagocytic activity v. Disturbance of endocrine function involved in myometrial activity and collagenase activity vi. Disturbance of rhythmic contractions at tip of the horn (too much oxytocin) vii. Trapping detached placenta by tissue inflammation and edema |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common complications of retained placenta in the mare and how would you prevent them? |
|
Definition
a. Anorexia, fever, depression, laminitis, warm feet, and increased digital pulses b. Prevention – transabdominal ultrasound during uterine flushing to monitor for uterine tears; if at risk for toxemia, provide fluid therapy, NSAIDs and tetanus prophylaxis |
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|
Term
| What major blood vessels may be involved in parturient hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
a. Obturator artery b. Internatl pudendal artery c. Hematomas may dissect along fascial planes as well d. (Middle uterine Artery?? does this one not count?) |
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|
Term
| Outline a medical management of a mare with postpartum hemorrhage and a PCV of 12% |
|
Definition
a. Minimize excitement b. Flunixin meglumine and butorphanol c. Prevent shock i. Corticosteroids ii. Nasal insufflation and pentoxyfylline iii. Fluid therapy d. Whole blood transfusion (if PCV < 15 %) e. Naloxone to block endogenous opiods f. Aminocaproic acid |
|
|
Term
| Name two conditions that are heritable and you would recommend testing for |
|
Definition
a. HYPP b. SCID c. HERDA d. Blood groups |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to know the blood type of a stallion? |
|
Definition
| Prevent neonatal isoerythrolysis which can occur when mare and stallion have different blood types |
|
|
Term
| Name two causes of penile paralysis |
|
Definition
a. Severe disease b. Horse neglect or abuse c. Damage to sacral nerves d. Infectious dz: EHV-1 e. Phenothiazine base tranquilizers |
|
|
Term
| Name two techniques for medical management of paraphymosis |
|
Definition
a. Penile sling for protection b. Hydrotherapy |
|
|
Term
| What is a common parasitic lesion of the penis in stallions? |
|
Definition
| Habronema or summer sores (fly larvae) |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 causes of sudden scrotal/testicular enlargement |
|
Definition
a. Testicular or scotal trauma b. Testicular hemorrhage c. Testicular hernia d. Testicular torsion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Accumulation of fluid between the parietal and visceral layer of the vaginal tunic -Primary occurs in very hot and humid conditions |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common testicular neoplasia in stallion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name 2 causes of azoospermia in stallion |
|
Definition
a. Poor sperm production i. Testicular degeneration ii. Testicular hypoplasia b. Poor elimination of sperm reserves i. Segmental aplasia of the epididymis ii. Occlusion of ampullae iii. granulomas |
|
|
Term
| Name two causes of hemospermia in stallions |
|
Definition
a. Urethristis b. Urolithiasis c. Vesiculitis d. Penile surface lesion |
|
|
Term
| What drug is used to lower ejaculatory threshold for stallion? |
|
Definition
| Imipramine – antidepressant |
|
|
Term
| What test is used to determine if there is contribution of testicular fluid to the ejaculate? |
|
Definition
Alkaline Phosphatase in seminal plasma - < 100 IU/L means epididymal and testicular secretions are not present |
|
|
Term
| What test is used to determine presence of testicular tissue in a horse suspected to be cryptorchid? |
|
Definition
| hCG stimulation test – and then determine testosterone level |
|
|
Term
| List 3 major specific causes of testicular degeneration in stallions |
|
Definition
a. Elevated ambient temperature b. Hormonal problems or anabolic steriods c. Radiation d. Nutritional deficiency e. Chronic orchitis |
|
|
Term
| Name one specific cause of urospermia in stallion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How would you confirm presence of urine in ejaculate? |
|
Definition
| Determination of creatinine > 2g/dl, urea and odor, urea >30mg/dl, azostix |
|
|
Term
| What are the palpable characteristics of the uterus during estrus and diestrus in the mare? |
|
Definition
a. Estrus – uterus is heavy (increased edema) and endometrial folds are palpable b. Diestrus – uterus increases in tone and tubularity c. Anestrus- flaccid |
|
|
Term
| What are the palpable and ultrasonographic charactertistics of the pre-ovulatory follicle in the mare? |
|
Definition
a. Palpation – softening of follicle b. U/S – follicle looses spherical form |
|
|