Term
|
Definition
| a small, inconstant first upper pre molar. May interfere with bit if not extracted |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| deciduous teeth that remain attached to the permanent teeth. May have to be extracted |
|
|
Term
| What is the importance of the yellow layer of cement on the teeth |
|
Definition
| it fills in the infundibulum of central enamel and covers the crown |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about the hypsodont teeth? |
|
Definition
| long reserve crowns that permit the teeth to continue to grow for 12-14 yrs |
|
|
Term
| What happens as the hypsodont teeth wear down? |
|
Definition
| the shapes of the occlusal (touching) surfaces change. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the infundibulum of the incisor teeth? |
|
Definition
| it wears down to an enamel spot that is soon worn away |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| it is an elongated, yellowish-brown spot on the lip side of the infundibulum. |
|
|
Term
| And what does the dental star indicate? |
|
Definition
| It indicates wear into the tip of the pulp cavity that has been filled in with secondary dentin |
|
|
Term
| What is the secondary dentin? |
|
Definition
| the thing that fills the pulp cavity before wear |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the dental star as the tooth wears down? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which incisors wear first? |
|
Definition
| the lower incisors before the upper |
|
|
Term
| What do the enamel ridges of the infundibula of the cheek teeth provide? |
|
Definition
| enamel ridges for grinding feed through the lateral motion of the narrower lower jaw. |
|
|
Term
| Where do points on the teeth develop? |
|
Definition
| on the buccal side of the upper cheek teeth and the lingual side of the lower teeth. |
|
|
Term
| Why should teeth be floated? |
|
Definition
| to cut off the sharp points formed by the grinding of the teeth. |
|
|
Term
| How many incisors do horses have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What categories are the incisors split into? |
|
Definition
| centrals, intermediates, corners |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the incisors around age 2 1/2 ? |
|
Definition
| the occlusion of the central incisors begin |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the incisors around age 3 1/2 ? |
|
Definition
| the occlusion of the intermediate incisors begin |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the incisors around age 4 1/2 ? |
|
Definition
| the occlusion of the corner incisors begin |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the incisors around age 5 ? |
|
Definition
| all adult teeth are occlusive |
|
|
Term
| At what age do horses have a full mouth (all adult teeth) ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are ascarids (roundworms) ? |
|
Definition
| a parasite in the larvae stage that is swallowed by the horse as it eats grass |
|
|
Term
| How do the ascarids impact horses if left untreated? |
|
Definition
| can cause severe infection leading to liver/lung damage, poor growth, and even death. |
|
|
Term
| How do these parasites impact the horse from the bloodstream? |
|
Definition
| can cause coughing, fever, pneumonia, bleeding lungs, and respiratory infections. |
|
|
Term
| Where do ascarids live in the adult stage? |
|
Definition
| in the small intestine where they can cause colic, blockage, ruptured gut and death |
|
|
Term
| What age are ascarids especially dangerous? |
|
Definition
| foals 6 months or younger |
|
|
Term
| How many sets of teeth do horses have throughout their lifetime? |
|
Definition
| 2. 1 temporary, 1 permanent. |
|
|
Term
| Why do horses teeth grow throughout their lifetime? |
|
Definition
| because of the constant wear of grazing and chewing |
|
|
Term
| At what age does the determination of age using teeth become a guess? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of horses tend to look younger that they actually are? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do range horses appear older than they are? |
|
Definition
| because of wear on the teeth |
|
|
Term
| Which teeth are studied to determine age? |
|
Definition
| the 12 front teeth, incisors |
|
|
Term
| What are the different names of the 2 central pairs? |
|
Definition
| centrals, centers, pincers, or nippers |
|
|
Term
| How many teeth does the intermediates and corners categories each consist of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 key changes in the teeth that can be used to estimate the age of horses? |
|
Definition
| occurrence of permanent teeth, disappearance of cups, angle, shape of the surface of the teeth. |
|
|
Term
| What are temporary teeth referred to as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do the baby teeth erupt? |
|
Definition
| 8 days, 8 weeks, and 8 months |
|
|
Term
| What characterizes permanent teeth? |
|
Definition
| larger, longer darker in color, and do not have the well defined neck joining root to gum that temporary teeth do. |
|
|
Term
| What are the deep indentures in the center of the young permanent teeth called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are cups commonly used for? |
|
Definition
| as a reference point in age determination |
|
|
Term
| What appears as cups disappear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do dental stars first appear as? |
|
Definition
| narrow yellow lines in front of the central enamel ring |
|
|
Term
| What do dental stars appear as secondly? |
|
Definition
| dark circles near the center of the tooth in advanced age |
|
|
Term
| What is the angle of incidence? |
|
Definition
| The angle of contact of the incisors |
|
|
Term
| How does the angle of incidence change over time? |
|
Definition
| changes from ~160-180 degrees in young horses, to less than a right angle |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the incisors that causes the change in the angle of incidence? |
|
Definition
| the incisors appear to slant forward and outward with aging |
|
|
Term
| What happens as the slant of the incisors increases? |
|
Definition
| the surfaces of the lower corner teeth do not wear all the way to the back margin of the uppers so that a hook is formed on the uppers |
|
|
Term
| At what age is the hook formed on the uppers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another name for the hook formed on the uppers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do the teeth appear in young horses? |
|
Definition
| broad and flat. twice as wide (side to side) as they are deep (front to back) |
|
|
Term
| Which teeth does a horse have at 2 weeks? |
|
Definition
| the first pair of incisors (centrals) |
|
|
Term
| Which teeth does a horse have at 4-6 weeks? |
|
Definition
| the second set of incisors (intermediates) |
|
|
Term
| At what age do the final set of temporary incisors (corners) and the wolf tooth come in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what age are the temporary incisors visible from the front? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is seen in the centrals and intermediates at 1 year of age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to the central and intermediate incisors at 2 years? |
|
Definition
| they are free from the gum, especially the upper incisors, and the dental star is totally visible. all pairs of incisors should be in wear |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the teeth at 2 1/2 years? |
|
Definition
| the first pair of permanent incisors come in. the lower permanent central incisors have come through the gum but are still slightly covered by a mucous membrane |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the teeth at 3 years? |
|
Definition
| he first set of permanent incisors (centrals) are in wear, more solid in appearance, larger and broader than temp teeth, have vertical ridges and grooves |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the teeth at 3 1/2 years? |
|
Definition
| the 2nd pair of permanent incisors (intermediates) come in, central are in wear |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the teeth at 4 years? |
|
Definition
| the 1st 2 sets of incisors are in wear, corner temp incisors barely visible from front because of jaw width |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the teeth at 4 1/2 years? |
|
Definition
| last pairs of incisors come in |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the teeth at 5 years? |
|
Definition
| All incisors are in wear, canines erupted completely |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the teeth at 6 years? |
|
Definition
| dental surfaces of lower centrals are usually smooth and shape is more oval. central enamel is closer to the lingual surface |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the teeth at 7 years? |
|
Definition
| dental surface of the lower corner incisor is narrower than that of the upper |
|
|
Term
| What is the 7-year notch? |
|
Definition
| a notch on the caudal corner of the upper incisor |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the teeth at 8 years? |
|
Definition
| the lower dental surfaces are smooth and all cups are gone in lower corners, dental star appears in the lower central incisors |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the teeth at 9 years? |
|
Definition
| the distal end of the galvayne's groove may be visible at the margin of the gum on the upper corner incisors. the centrals are round while their central enamel is triangular |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the teeth at 10 years? |
|
Definition
| the dental surfaces of the intermediates become triangular |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of visual weight guesses are wrong? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you measure weight using a weight tape? |
|
Definition
| measure heart girth (squared) then measure body length. divide by 241.3 |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal ejaculate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What months is a mare polyestrous? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does estrus last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does estrous last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal gestation length? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hormones regulate the estrous cycle? |
|
Definition
| FSH, LH, estrogens, progestins, prostaglandin |
|
|
Term
| What are the different types of breeding? |
|
Definition
| pasture, hand, AI, and ET |
|
|
Term
| Why do we manipulate mares estrous cycles? |
|
Definition
| so she breeds when it is most economical but not in her normal breeding time |
|
|
Term
| What are we able to control by manipulating a mare estrous cycle? |
|
Definition
| the time of ovulation which helps synchronize mares for advanced repro methods |
|
|
Term
| When do mares begin to cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is a mares natural breeding time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can we manipulate a mare's cycle so she breeds in february? |
|
Definition
| keep her under lights for 16 hours a day starting in early winter |
|
|
Term
| What can we use to bring a mare in or out of estrous? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a common drug/hormone used to bring a mare into estrous? |
|
Definition
| lutalyse, a form of prostaglandin, to rupture the CL |
|
|
Term
| Why is synthetic LH only used sometimes? |
|
Definition
| because it is only effective when follicles are sufficiently developed. |
|
|
Term
| Why is it sometimes desirable to keep mares out of estrus? |
|
Definition
| to avoid the behaviors associated with it |
|
|
Term
| How do we keep mares out of estrus? |
|
Definition
a long term progesterone releasing implant that tricks a mare into thinking she is pregnant, or oral progestins
(i.e. regulate) |
|
|
Term
| What are some signs of parturition? |
|
Definition
| pendulous abdomen, udder enlargement, waxed teats, relaxed tail head, enlarged milk veins, loss of appetite, change in personality |
|
|
Term
| What signals the end of Stage 1 of labor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in stage 2 of labor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long after birth should the placenta be delivered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is foal septicemia localized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes foal septicemia? |
|
Definition
| many different types of bacteria |
|
|
Term
| How does bacteria enter the foal? |
|
Definition
| at birth via the umbilical cord |
|
|
Term
| What are the conditions associated with septicemia? |
|
Definition
| placentitis, fever in the mare, dystocia |
|
|
Term
| What are some early signs of septicemia? |
|
Definition
| decreased appetite, weakness, weakened suckling reflex, and mild dehydration, and sometimes fever is present. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an acute contagious disease caused by infection from the streptococcus equip. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the respiratory tract in a horse with strangles? |
|
Definition
| the upper respiratory tract and the adjacent lymph node become inflamed. |
|
|
Term
| How long does t take for the swelling of the nodes to occur? |
|
Definition
| 3-4 days, and if not treated, the nodes may rupture after about 10 days and discharge will be present. |
|
|
Term
| What does the first stage of strangles cause? |
|
Definition
| causes the horse to go off his feed, elevated temp, and cream colored nasal discharge. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the larynx and pharynx in the first stage of strangles? |
|
Definition
| they become inflamed and swallowing may become difficult |
|
|
Term
| What horses does strangles usually affect? |
|
Definition
| horses between 1-5 years of age, but any horse can get it |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when the nasal discharge of infected horses contaminates pasture, feed, or water troughs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| any inflammatory disease of the lungs |
|
|
Term
| What can cause pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| bacteria, a virus, or a combo of the two |
|
|
Term
| What are some characteristics of pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| temp of 102-105 degrees, difficulty breathing, nasal discharge, off feed, chest pain and lung congestion |
|
|
Term
| What causes inhalation pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| improper administration of liquids (i.e. stomach tube) |
|
|
Term
| What type of pneumonia is common in arabian or pat arabian foals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is adenovial pneumonia fatal? |
|
Definition
| fatal in foals with combined immunodeficiency (CID) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| combined immunodeficiency, foal has small thymus, a very low number of lymphocytes, and low levels of gamma globulin in the blood |
|
|
Term
| What causes influenza in the horse? |
|
Definition
| myxoviruses and has many of the same characteristics of the human flu: high temperature, depressed appetite, watery nasal discharge, and dry hard coughing |
|
|
Term
| What can cause fatal flu conditions? |
|
Definition
| if a horse is shipped, worked, or exposed to bad weather during illness |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common equine influenza viruses in the US? |
|
Definition
myxovirus influenza A/ Equi 1
myxovirus influenza B/ Equi 2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long can the virus survive in aerosol form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes equine viral rhinopneumonitis? |
|
Definition
| caused by 1 of several herpes viruses- type1, type 2, type 3 |
|
|
Term
| Which type is the main cause of EVR in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of infection are often a complication when dealing with EVR? |
|
Definition
| secondary bacterial infections |
|
|
Term
| What are some results/characteristics of EVR? |
|
Definition
| a fever of up to 106 lasting for 2-5 days, coughing lasting for up to 3 weeks, and abortions may occur up to 4 months after respiratory symptoms noted, inability to stand with hind legs |
|
|
Term
| Is there a treatment for EVR? |
|
Definition
| no treatment, but antibiotics are given to control secondary bacterial infections |
|
|
Term
| What is Equine Viral Arteritis? |
|
Definition
| an acute upper respiratory infection caused by a specific herpes virus that can cause abortions. |
|
|
Term
| What other disease is EVA similar to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some similar characteristics between EVA, EVR, and influenza? |
|
Definition
| fever and nasal discharge |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| edema of the limbs, increased respiratory rate, and occasionally a skin rash |
|
|
Term
| What breeds is EVA common in? |
|
Definition
| Standardbred and Saddlebreds, and 2% of thoroughbreds |
|
|
Term
| What are the mortality and abortion rates in horses with EVA? |
|
Definition
| up to 33% mortality, and up to 50% abortion |
|
|
Term
| What are the different varieties of Equine Encephalomyelitis? |
|
Definition
| Venezuelan (VEE), Eastern (EEE), and Westen (WEE) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| mostly by mosquitoes but sometimes by some other bloodsucking insects such as ticks, lice and mites. |
|
|
Term
| What animal is the reservoir of EE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long is the incubation period for EE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is one of the earliest signs of EE? |
|
Definition
| a fever that may reach 106 degrees |
|
|
Term
| What are some other early signs of EE? |
|
Definition
| hypersensitivity of sound, transitory period of excitement and restlessness |
|
|
Term
| What are some later signs of of EE? |
|
Definition
| signs associated with brain lesions- drowsiness, drooping ears, abnormal gait, and circling. Horse may stand with head held low, food hanging from lips. Then paralysis and death after 2-4 days after first signs |
|
|
Term
| How can you prevent encephalomyelitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| clostridium tetani, found in the feces of horses and in soil contaminated by horse feces throughout the world |
|
|
Term
| Why are deep puncture wounds more likely to result in tetanus than surface lacerations? |
|
Definition
| the bacteria that enters the body through the navel or a wound are anaerobic |
|
|
Term
| What do the bacteria produce that travels to the central nervous system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the neurotoxin cause in the nervous system? |
|
Definition
| overreaction in the reflex and motor stimuli, resulting in spasmodic or constant muscular rigidity |
|
|
Term
| When does death usually occur in a horse with tetanus? |
|
Definition
| by asphyxiation because of rigidity of the muscles used for respiration |
|
|
Term
| What is the mortality rate in horses with tetanus? |
|
Definition
| 100% in untreated animals, 75-80% in treated animals |
|
|
Term
| What is the best approach to treating tetanus? |
|
Definition
| prevention, active immunity is best achieved by injection of the tetanus toxoid with annual boosters |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)? |
|
Definition
| horses are the only know natural hosts |
|
|
Term
| Is there treatment to eliminate EIA from an infected horse? |
|
Definition
| no, and horses surviving EIA can e a source of infection for other horses. |
|
|
Term
| What are some symptoms of EIA characterized as? |
|
Definition
| 104-108 degrees, severe depression, a depressed appetite, and weight loss, weakness and loss of coordination |
|
|
Term
| What insects are the most common vectors of EIA? |
|
Definition
| bloodsucking flies, and sometimes mosquitoes, hypodermic needles, surgical instruments, dental floats, and bridle bits. |
|
|
Term
| Is there any treatment available? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| am eczema that affects the heel and fetlock area. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| repeated exposure to sweat, mud and filth |
|
|
Term
| What can cause scratches to have complications? |
|
Definition
| secondary bacterial or fungal infection |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat scratches? |
|
Definition
| the affected area should be cleaned thoroughly, long hair clipped off, and skin debris moved. Application of ointment and topical antibiotics helps clean the infection |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a degenerative condition of the frog. |
|
|
Term
| What characterizes thrush? |
|
Definition
| black discharge and offensive odor come from the frog |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the frog in the most severe cases of thrush? |
|
Definition
| most of the frog is eroded and lameness may occur. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the foot should be thoroughly cleaned with soap and water, the rotting frog cut away and an antiseptic applied |
|
|
Term
| Why was Potomac Horse fever named? |
|
Definition
| because it was first recognized in the Potomac Valley. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| acute equine ehrlichial enterocolitis caused by Rickettsia Ehrlichia |
|
|
Term
| What is a suspect agent of a carrier of Potomac Horse Fever? |
|
Definition
| the mayfly, often found drowned in water buckets |
|
|
Term
| What are the first symptoms of Potomac Horse Fever? |
|
Definition
| mild depression, decrease appetite, profuse watery diarrhea after 24-48 hours of exposure, body temp is elevated and gut sounds are absent. some horses develop severe digestive problems. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mortality rate in horses with Potomac Horse Fever? |
|
Definition
| 17-36% but prompt vet care increases survival rate |
|
|
Term
| Is there any treatment for Potomac Horse Fever? |
|
Definition
| a commercial vaccine is now available |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can rabies be transmitted? |
|
Definition
| by a bite from a carnivore, such as a skunk, raccoon, fox, dog, or a bat |
|
|
Term
| What are some symptoms of rabies? |
|
Definition
| facial paralysis, lameness, anorexia, hind leg paralysis, teeth grinding, colic, faulty vision, or viciousness |
|
|
Term
| How can rabies be prevented? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the gram-positive bacterium, Clostridium |
|
|
Term
| What horses is botulism the greatest concern? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is botulism called in foals? Why? |
|
Definition
| shaker foal syndrome because of muscle tremors. the foals will have difficulty swallowing and have muscular weakness throughout the body |
|
|
Term
| When do symptoms of botulism appear in adult horses? |
|
Definition
| 3-7 days after ingestion of the toxin. |
|
|
Term
| What are some symptoms of botulism in adult horses? |
|
Definition
| muscular paralysis of limbs, jaw and tongue, and pharynx. food may accumulate in the mouth and the tongue may become flaccid. Horses may move with a shuffling stilted gait because of muscle weakness |
|
|
Term
| What can be done to protect against botulism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the best protection against botulism for foals? |
|
Definition
| vaccinating the mare 3 times before foaling |
|
|
Term
| What is Contagious Equine Metritis? |
|
Definition
| a venereal disease characterized by pus or fluid coming from the uterus. |
|
|
Term
| What does CEM infection cause? |
|
Definition
| infertility or early abortion |
|
|
Term
| Do carriers of CEM show any clinical signs? |
|
Definition
| no, therefore they allow the disease to spread |
|
|
Term
| In which sex are clinical signs of CEM sometimes seen? |
|
Definition
| Mares, in the repro tract. Never in stallions |
|
|
Term
| Is CEM present in the US? Where was it first identified? |
|
Definition
| not present in the us. first seen in England and France |
|
|
Term
| How many outbreaks of CEM have been in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is done to prevent CEM in the US? |
|
Definition
| horses entering from CEM-infected countries are quarantined before entering the US |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some symptoms of cold? |
|
Definition
| restlessness, paw, kick at its belly, or get up and down frequently, stand in saw horse position, pulse increased and temp up to 101-103 degrees |
|
|
Term
| What are the different types of colic? |
|
Definition
| digestive, spasmodic, intestinal abdominal obstruction or blocking, or sand colic |
|
|
Term
| What causes digestive colic? |
|
Definition
| overfeeding, moldy hay, etc. |
|
|
Term
| What causes spasmodic colic? |
|
Definition
| severe contraction of the intestines |
|
|
Term
| What causes intestinal obstruction or blocking/sand colic? |
|
Definition
| ingesting so much sand that the intestines becomes blocked |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of colic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do parasites cause colic? |
|
Definition
| migrating strongyle larvae damage blood vessels creating aneurisms. the blood supply to the intestines is decreased and the cells become anoxic, resulting in decreased motility and pain. |
|
|
Term
| What can be done to prevent colic? |
|
Definition
| a good parasite control program |
|
|
Term
| What is another cause of colic besides parasites? |
|
Definition
| twisted intestines result in obstruction, causes of twisting not clearly defined. |
|
|
Term
| Which species have twists in their intestines more often- horses or ponies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the end result of twisted intestines? |
|
Definition
| severe colic and death if surgery is not performed to correct the problem |
|
|
Term
| What should be done if a horse colics? |
|
Definition
| should be observed closely, walked if they start rolling to prevent injury |
|
|
Term
| When should you call a vet for a colic horse? |
|
Definition
| if the pain seems to not go away after 15-20 mins of walking |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for colic? |
|
Definition
| analgesics may be prescribed for some cases, but sometimes surgery is necessary |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a compromised condition of the hoof laminae |
|
|
Term
| What are the types of laminitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What characterizes acute laminitis? |
|
Definition
| inflammation of the laminae, resulting in a high degree of pain |
|
|
Term
| What characterizes chronic laminitis? |
|
Definition
| a lingering of the effects caused by the acute phase. varies from no lameness to loss of hoof |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the laminae in the acute phase of laminitis? |
|
Definition
| the laminae are significantly weakened |
|
|
Term
| What happens in bad cases of laminitis in the acute phase? |
|
Definition
| the weakened laminae can no longer stand the opposing force of the deep digital flexor tendon which then rotates the coffin bone out of position |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the worst things to happen from laminitis? |
|
Definition
| the laminae may day off resulting in detachment of the hoof wall and coffin bone. often seen as empty space on X-rays and can be so bad that the hoof capsule is lost |
|
|
Term
| What What are some causes of laminitis? |
|
Definition
| mechanical conditions, systemic conditions, and some medications can all cause laminitis |
|
|
Term
| How can mechanical conditions cause laminitis? |
|
Definition
| road founder can cause laminitis when a horse bears weight on its sole instead of hoof wall for extended periods of time on a hard surface |
|
|
Term
| How can systemic conditions cause laminitis? |
|
Definition
| overweight and diabetic horses, ad horses that eat a lot of concentrated feed like grain after getting into the grain bin |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for laminitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a condition of muscle breakdown, almost always after exercise, excessive training, exhaustive exercise, trauma, respiratory infections, or surgery |
|
|
Term
| What is another potential cause of tying up? |
|
Definition
| Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy (PSSM) |
|
|
Term
| What horses is tying up most commonly seen in? |
|
Definition
| horses coming back to work had been fed large quantities of concentrate feeds while not working. |
|
|
Term
| What causes the most common cases of tying up? |
|
Definition
| stored glycogen is converted to lactic acid which is damaging to muscle tissue. Can also be caused by electrolyte imbalance, genetic factors and rarely specific infections |
|
|
Term
| What are the main characteristics of tying up? |
|
Definition
| horse will be in a lot of pain and the myoglobin released by muscle breakdown will cause the urine to be dark |
|
|
Term
| What happens to horses with a serious case of tying up? |
|
Definition
| high myoglobin concentration in the blood can damage the kidneys. can be lessened by giving fluids |
|
|
Term
| What causes Cushings Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| a pituitary tumor resulting in increased levels of hormones, notably corticosteroids such as cortisol |
|
|
Term
| What are some characteristics of Cushing's? |
|
Definition
| poor physical condition, elevated insulin levels, drink and urinate more than normal horses, eat without weight gain, oftn develop chronic laminitis, poor hooves, and shaggy hair coat |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Cushing's? |
|
Definition
| only management of condition to keep horse comfortable and healthier. |
|
|
Term
| What can be done to treat cushing's if detected early? |
|
Definition
| medications can be given to slow the progression of the disease and result in many more healthy, working years for the horse |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for tying up? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the true name for heaves? |
|
Definition
| Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disorder (COPD) |
|
|
Term
| What age horses is COPD most commonly seen in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the conditions of COPD? |
|
Definition
| a cough or wheeze more noticeable after exercise, progressing into a more frequent cough and nasal discharge may be present |
|
|
Term
| Are horses with COPD useful? |
|
Definition
| not useful in performing because of their limited capacity for oxygen intake. horses with mild heaves may be used for pleasure riding if not worked too hard. |
|
|
Term
| What are possible causes of heaves? |
|
Definition
| allergic response to mold. dusty feed aggravates the condition |
|
|
Term
| Is there any treatment for heaves? |
|
Definition
| no treatment that will cure the condition but can be eased by resting the horse, providing fresh air, and elimination dust. |
|
|
Term
| What is the best solution for a horse with heaves? |
|
Definition
| putting him out to pasture and possibly wetting feed. sometimes antihistamine drugs are administered |
|
|
Term
| What is the true name for roaring? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve resulting in lack of muscular control of the vocal cords, usual the left cord but sometimes both |
|
|
Term
| What happens to cause roaring? |
|
Definition
| the affected vocal cord vibrates with inspiration. on expiration, the vocal cord is pushed aside. |
|
|
Term
| When are the conditions most noticeable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| it can be corrected by surgery but is most often left alone. |
|
|
Term
| What causes Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What species is the main host of EPM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must happen in order for the protozoa to reach its infective stage? |
|
Definition
| it must pass through the opossum and a secondary host before entering the host. |
|
|
Term
| What type of hosts are horses for EPM? |
|
Definition
| dead-end hosts, once infected they cannot pass the protozoa on to another animal |
|
|
Term
| What system does EPM attack? |
|
Definition
| the central nervous system, creating lesions along the brain and spinal cord |
|
|
Term
| What conditions does EPM result in? |
|
Definition
| visual symptoms that include ataxia, in-coordination, muscle atrophy, and difficulty in movement |
|
|
Term
| What is the standard treatment of EPM? |
|
Definition
| a combination of antifolate drugs including sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine with or without trimethoprim |
|
|
Term
| What is the most recent treatment for EPM? |
|
Definition
| Marqui developed the first FDA approved EPM treatment, Ponazuril, a member of the triazine-derivative family |
|
|
Term
| What does Osteochondritis Dissecens (OCD) affect? |
|
Definition
| the articular cartilage, often involves the subchondral bone just beneath the cartilage surface |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a dissecting lesion develops that involves cartilage, or cartilage and a bone, and the dissection planes reaches the joint surface |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the OCD fragment? |
|
Definition
| sometimes it will completely detach and become a free body or joint mouse. in most cases, the fragments remain loosely attached in their bone of origin. |
|
|
Term
| What happens when the debris is released into the joint? |
|
Definition
| results in synovitis or joint inflammation, and the clinical signs of pain and lameness are seen |
|
|
Term
| What are some treatments for OCD? |
|
Definition
| surgical removal of the lesions. some smaller lesions may respond to rest and resolve quickly. Tests have been done by Cornell in reattaching OCD cartilage flaps that have not yet degenerated. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a mosquito-borne virus that may cause encephalitis in horses and humans. |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common symptoms of west nile? |
|
Definition
| rear leg weakness/paralysis, stumbling, general incoordination, muscle fasciculations (tremors) of the face, drooling and inability to eat or drink well, depression, and in severe cases, seizures and death |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for West Nile? |
|
Definition
| anti-inflammatory medicaions (bute, banamine, IV DMSO), antibiotics against secondary bacterial infections, and IV or stomach-tubed fluids. |
|
|
Term
| What is the best way to handle WNV? |
|
Definition
| vaccinate for it, requires an initial innoculation, a booster in 3-6 weeks, and repeated boosters in the face of an outbreak, or every 6 months to best cover mosquito season |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fly larvae parasites in the stomach of the horse |
|
|
Term
| How do bots get into the intestines? |
|
Definition
| flies lay eggs on horses forelegs and shoulders and are then ingested by the horse licking itself. |
|
|
Term
| How long do bot flies live in the intestines? |
|
Definition
| 8-10 months before being passed in the stool |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for bots? |
|
Definition
| wormers: trichlorfon, dichlorvos, and ivermectin |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for bloodworms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do strongyles cause? |
|
Definition
| anemia through blood loss of adult strongyles feeding on intestines |
|
|
Term
| How do strongyles cause damage and clotting in the SI? |
|
Definition
| the imature larvae travel through the blood vessels of the SI |
|
|
Term
| What do strongyles cause? |
|
Definition
| diarrhea and death in young horses |
|
|
Term
| When is strongyles most commonly seen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What vaccinations should all horses have? |
|
Definition
| tetanus, WNV, Flu, EEE, WEE, VEE, EVR, and strangles |
|
|
Term
| What vaccinations should selected horses have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When was the equine genome sequenced? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many nucleotides are in the equine genome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the ultimate aim of sequencing the equine genome? |
|
Definition
| to develop a gene chip, to allow for measurement of a gene expression in a particular tissue using mRNA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the study of genes and their function |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the study of how different feeds may interact with specific genes to increase the risk of common chronic diseases |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the study of the complex set of proteins produced by a species |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of qualitative traits? |
|
Definition
| controlled by a single/few gene pairs, sharp distinction between phenotypes, little environmental effect on gene expression, genotype cna be determined with reasonable accuracy |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of quantitative traits? |
|
Definition
| controlled by hundreds or thousands of genes, phenotypes cannot be classified into distinct categories, impossible to determine # of pairs that control quantitative traits, most quantitative traits have economic importance |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of qualitative traits? |
|
Definition
| coat color, blood type, hereditary defects |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of quantitative traits? |
|
Definition
| growth, performance, survivability, fertility |
|
|
Term
| What is selection dependent upon? |
|
Definition
| good record keeping, observation, judgement, selection |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 categories that are the basis of assessment for yearlings? |
|
Definition
| front limbs, hind limbs, head neck body and balance, athletic movement, type |
|
|
Term
| What are the objectives of assessing yearlings> |
|
Definition
| the evaluation of athletic ability, temperament, and trainability of young horses |
|
|
Term
| How many alleles define the most common coat colors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can recessive color genes be determined? |
|
Definition
| by pedigree evaluation or genotyping |
|
|
Term
| What are the 7 color genes? what colors do they determine? |
|
Definition
| G grey, W white, E black pigmentation, A distribution of black hair, C dilutes red pigmentation, D secondary dilution of black and red, TO tobiano coloration |
|
|
Term
| What happens if a W or G is present? |
|
Definition
| other color genes can't be determined from observation |
|
|
Term
| What does a Dominant W allele yield? |
|
Definition
| an albino horse, lethal white gene |
|
|
Term
| What does a Dominant G allele yield in newborn foals? |
|
Definition
| any color but grey, will whiten with age |
|
|
Term
| What is the genotype of a grey horse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the genotype of all non-grey horses? |
|
Definition
| gg, at least one parent must be grey to produce grey offspring |
|
|
Term
| What does the E allele yield? |
|
Definition
| black coloring or markings |
|
|
Term
| What is the E allele called? What does it control? |
|
Definition
| the extension gene. controls red and black pigment |
|
|
Term
| What does the e allele yield? |
|
Definition
| black pigment in skin but not hair, producing a red mane |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| no black pigment in hair, chestnut or sorrel colors. controls color of manes and tails |
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic formula for red? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the A gene called? Control? |
|
Definition
| the Agouti gene, controls distribution of black pigment either to points or over entire body |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does a restrict distribution of black hair? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dilutes red color, has no effect on black |
|
|
Term
| Does a horse with CC have dilution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a chestnut to a palomino, bay to buckskin |
|
|
Term
| What does c cr c cr dilute? |
|
Definition
| a chestnut to a cremello and a bay to a perlino, includes horses that appear to be albino |
|
|
Term
| What does D gene determine? |
|
Definition
| the second kind of dilution of both black and red coat color, does not dilute pigment in the points |
|
|
Term
| What is seen if a horse has the D gene? |
|
Definition
| dorsal stripe, dark points, leg barring, and shoulder stripes |
|
|
Term
| What does D dilution produce? |
|
Definition
| yellowish-red, pinky-red, yellow, or mouse grey (gruella), does not dilute to cream shades |
|
|
Term
| What si the pigment dilution from the D gene called? |
|
Definition
| dun, only in a few breeds |
|
|
Term
| What is the TO gene? Control? |
|
Definition
| white spotting pattern called tobiano |
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic formula for a black horse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is a sorrel referred to as a chestnut? |
|
Definition
| in some breeds such as thoroughbreds, arabians, morgans, and suffolks |
|
|
Term
| What are the light reds, medium reds, and dark reds called in the QH world? |
|
Definition
| sorrel, chestnut, and liver chestnut |
|
|
Term
| What is noted about all horses in the red category? |
|
Definition
| lack of black pigmentation (non-black points/markings), have red distribution with white markings allowed, along with red mane and tail |
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic formula for red? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic formula for bay? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What group does the palomino belong to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color skin do palominos have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic formula for palominos? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What characterizes a buckskin? |
|
Definition
| horses that are a shade of yellow with black points |
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic formula for a buckskin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between cremello and perlino? |
|
Definition
| cremello has cream coat/points with blue eyes. Perlino has similar coat but with slightly red/blue points |
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic formula for perlino/cremello coat distribution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the darkest/lightest shade of dun? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic formula for duns? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic formula for gruellas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic formula for a bay tobiano? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in horses with CID? |
|
Definition
| failure of immune system to form, animals die of infections |
|
|
Term
| What is Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis (HyPP)? |
|
Definition
| defect in the movement of sodium and potassium in/out of muscle. Causes attacks of muscle weakness and/or tremors/collapse |
|
|
Term
| What breed is HyPP common in? How is it transmitted? |
|
Definition
| QH. as an autosomal dominant, involves 1 gene |
|
|
Term
| What occurs with myotonic dystrophy? |
|
Definition
| spasms in various muscles |
|
|
Term
| What does Hemophilia A cause? |
|
Definition
| failure to produce blood clotting factor, bleeding into joints, development of hematomas |
|
|
Term
| What breeds is Hemophilia a problem in? |
|
Definition
| Throroughbreds, QHs, Arabians, and Standardbreds. X linked disease |
|
|
Term
| What is Hereditary Multiple Exitosis? |
|
Definition
| bony lumps on various bones throughout the body |
|
|
Term
| How is lethal white foal syndrome obtained? |
|
Definition
| mating 2 overo paint horses, several genes involved |
|
|
Term
| What is Lethal Dominant Roan? |
|
Definition
| the homozygous dominant for roan die early in development, decreased conception/fertility rate when breeding 2 roans |
|
|
Term
| What is cerebellar ataxia? |
|
Definition
| degeneration of specific cells in the cerebellum, causes incoordination |
|
|
Term
| What is gonadal dysgenesis? |
|
Definition
| presence of single X chromosome in a female, caused by failure of X chromosome to separate after duplication. animals tend to be small and weak at birth, disorders of reproductive system, sterile mares |
|
|
Term
| What is Hereditary Equine Regional Dermal Asthemia (HERDA)? |
|
Definition
| skin is hyper elastic, easily stretched and injured |
|
|
Term
| What is Epitheliogenesis Imperfecta? |
|
Definition
| skin fails to form over parts of the body or in the mouth |
|
|
Term
| What gene carries the predisposition for melanoma? |
|
Definition
| the G gene, most common in grey horses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| wobbles, muscle incoordination and paddling of the hind limbs caused by bony lesions on the cervical vertebrae. may hold head to one side, found most commonly in inbred lines of breeds such as thoroughbreds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| failure of one or both testes to descend |
|
|
Term
| How many chromosomes does a mule have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do hair worms infect horses? |
|
Definition
| hair worm larvae are swallowed as horse eats infected grass |
|
|
Term
| What are the dangers of hair worms? |
|
Definition
| damage villi, cause horses to be unable to digest and absorb nutrients properly, dark diarrhea, bleeding of intestine causing anemia and loss of condition. |
|
|
Term
| What horses are most susceptible to hair worms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do intestinal threadworms get into a horse? |
|
Definition
| larvae swallowed from infected grass or go through horses skin.Infected mares pass worms in milk to young foals |
|
|
Term
| What are the dangers of intestinal threadworms? |
|
Definition
| cause bleeding and respiratory problems. can cause diarrhea, weakness and weight loss/poor growth in young foals |
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