Term
| When conditions (e.g. weather, airspace, etc.) prevent continued flight under VFR, the PIC will alter the route and continue operations under VFR until: |
|
Definition
-the destination
-obtaining an IFR clearance
-until landing at a suitable location |
|
|
Term
| T/F: PICs conducting tactical operations should fly under VFR unless compliance degrades mission accomplishment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Wx Reqs filing VFR: The forecast for fixed-wing must be equal to or greater than ____ft. ceiling and ___ SMs visibility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The forecast weather for the departure, planned route of flight and arrival (___ hour of the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA)) must comply with
the Wx minima |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: PICs of VFR aircraft must at all
times be able to control the aircraft by visual reference to a discernible horizon, regardless of cloud clearance requirements |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: USAF fixed-wing aircraft shall may fly under SVFR (special VFR) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Class A Cloud Clearance and Visibility Minimums: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Class B Cloud Clearance and Visibility Minimums: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Class C & D Cloud Clearance and Visibility Minimums: |
|
Definition
3 SM
500 ft. below,
1,000 ft. above
2,000 ft. horizontal |
|
|
Term
| Class E & G below 10000' Cloud Clearance and Visibility Minimums: |
|
Definition
3 SM
500 ft. below,
1,000 ft.above
2,000 ft. horizontal |
|
|
Term
| Class E & G above 10000' Cloud Clearance and Visibility Minimums: |
|
Definition
5 SM
1,000 ft. below
1,000 ft. above
1 SM horizontal |
|
|
Term
| Pilots shall fly under IFR if: |
|
Definition
-Weather conditions do not permit flight according to VFR.
-Airspace rules require IFR flight (e.g. Class A airspace).
-Operating in excess of 180 KTAS within (not simply crossing) federal airways.
-Operating fixed-wing aircraft at night, unless the mission cannot be flown under IFR. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: MAJCOM approval is required to practice instrument approaches under VFR |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Practice Instrument Approaches Under VFR Rules: |
|
Definition
-Maintain VFR cloud clearances and visibilities
-Terminal radar service shall be used when available.
-Aircrews must make all position reports IAW AFMAN 11-217, Volume 2.
-Pilots must request ATC authorization to fly the published missed approach. |
|
|
Term
| A published procedure is defined as: |
|
Definition
-An instrument procedure charted in US government FLIP by the DoD/National
Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (NGA) or FAA/National Aeronautical Charting Office (NACO).
-Radar procedure with minimums published graphically or in FLIP Radar Instrument Approach Minimums section.
-A host nation or commercially produced procedure which is approved by the MAJCOM |
|
|
Term
If there is no
compatible published approach at the destination, pilots may file a composite IFR/VFR flight
plan to: |
|
Definition
- A point en route where forecast weather at ETA (+ 1 hour) allows continued flight to the destination under VFR
-A point served by a published approach procedure where forecast weather at ETA (+ 1 hour) allows the pilot to descend to VFR conditions and continue to the destination under VFR |
|
|
Term
T/F: Pilots may not file to a destination with a forecast
that includes temporary (TEMPO) changes in ceiling and/or visibility lower than prescribed in 8.7.1. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For a _______ or ______ approach, the forecast weather must meet only the published visibility requirements for that approach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For a _____ approach, the forecast weather must meet both the ceiling and
prevailing visibility requirements |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
AETC aircrews must designate an alternate
airport when forecast weather is less than a ceiling of ____ feet and a visibility of ___ SM, even if the weather permits a VFR descent from an MIA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Exception: If ___ or more suitable independent precision approaches are available and operable for the airport of intended landing at ETA (±1 hour), the ceiling may be lowered to ____feet but the visibility must still be at least 3 SM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Additional Conditions Requiring an Alternate: If forecast weather at a
destination or a point enroute (at the ETA ±1 hour) exceeds the requirements of paragraph 8.7.1 but does not permit a VFR descent from the MSA,MEA, MOCA or OROCA to a VFR approach and landing, AETC aircrews must designate an alternate airport when filing IFR to a destination: |
|
Definition
-Where all compatible approaches require radar.
-Where required NAVAIDs are unmonitored.
-When the destination has no weather reporting capability.
-When the point of intended landing’s lowest compatible approach weather
minimums are greater than or equal to a 1,500 ft. ceiling or 3 SM visibility.
-Regardless of weather, where forecast winds exceed aircraft limits ± 1 hour of ETA.
-Regardless of weather, when denial of accommodation to RVSM airspace would prevent the aircraft or flight from reaching its planned destination,
a suitable alternate will be designated that does not require accommodation. |
|
|
Term
| Alternate with a Compatible Published Instrument Approach Procedure Req: |
|
Definition
A ceiling of at least 500 ft. above the lowest compatible approach minima and a visibility of at least 2 SM or published visibility minima
whichever is greater. |
|
|
Term
| Airports That Do Not Qualify as Alternates: |
|
Definition
-All compatible approaches require radar.
-GPS is the only available NAVAID.
-The FLIP designation ― A NA is displayed on all compatible approach plates
-Regardless of weather, forecast winds exceed aircraft limits ± 1 hour
of ETA.
-Regardless of weather, access to RVSM airspace is required to reach
the alternate for non-compliant aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: RVR reports, when given for a particular runway, apply to all takeoffs, landings, and approaches to that runway, and always take precedence over any other visibility report for that runway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Unless specifically addressed in AFI 11-2 MDS specific guidance, aircrews will not take off when the weather is lower than the published landing minimums. |
|
|
Term
| Authorized IFR Departure Methods: ______ and _______ should be flown to the maximum extent possible. |
|
Definition
| Obstacle Departure Procedures and Standard Instrument Departures |
|
|
Term
| USAF aircraft will depart IFR using only these methods: |
|
Definition
-Published ODP
-SID
-Specific ATC Departure Instructions.
-Diverse Departures
-Special MAJCOM Certification |
|
|
Term
| Pilots will not fly any VCOA procedure until _______. |
|
Definition
| completion of MAJCOM-specified training |
|
|
Term
Required Climb Gradients: Regardless of the IFR departure method selected,
PICs will climb at a minimum of ___ft/NM unless a higher gradient is published for the departure runway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On Airways. Pilots shall not fly lower than the _____ (MEA), _____ (MRA), _____(MCA) or _____(MOCA) published for the airway |
|
Definition
Minimum En route Altitude
Minimum Reception Altitude
Minimum Crossing Altitude
Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude |
|
|
Term
| Off Airways. Pilots shall fly no lower than: |
|
Definition
-The Off Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude (OROCA).
-The Off Route Terrain Clearance Altitude (ORTCA).
-An altitude that provides at least 1,000 ft. of clearance above all obstacles within 5 nautical miles of the course to be flown in non-mountainous terrain or 2,000 ft. in mountainous terrain |
|
|
Term
For pilots to fly a published radar approach or instrument
approach procedure that requires radar to define a fix essential for flying the approach, a nonradar
facility must provide a positive aircraft position within ___ NMs of the airfield |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: When the reported temperature at the altimeter setting source (normally the airfield), is lower than the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) temperature, the aircraft’s actual altitude will be lower than the barometric altimeter indicates. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In lieu of MAJCOM guidance, while in IMC in mountainous terrain, pilots will
plan to fly at least _____ ft above published minimum altitudes obtained from IFR enroute charts and terrain charts (e.g. MEAs, MOCAs, OROCAs or other minimum safe altitudes during low-levels, etc.) if the temperature at those altitudes is colder than ___°C below ISA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pilots ______ apply a temperature correction to an ATC assigned altitude, but may ____________ if obstacle protection is in doubt |
|
Definition
-will not
-refuse a lower altitude |
|
|
Term
| When applying corrections to IAP altitudes, pilots will advise ATC if any applied correction exceeds __ feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Continuing an approach below DH/DA/MDA is not authorized until sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established and _______ |
|
Definition
-sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established
-the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing |
|
|
Term
To ensure obstacle/terrain clearance, the missed approach procedure may not
be initiated until over the MAP/DH/DA, unless ______. |
|
Definition
| otherwise cleared by ATC. |
|
|
Term
| Standard holding turn is executed to the ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg of the holding pattern is ____ when holding at or below 14,000 feet MSL and ____ when holding above 14,000 feet MSL. |
|
Definition
1 min below
1.5 mins above |
|
|
Term
| While in holding, the ______ signal is the most accurate method of determining aircraft position |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: TACAN station passage as a fix is acceptable for holding fixes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ATC clearances requiring holding where holding patterns are charted, include the following instructions: |
|
Definition
-Direction
-Holding fix
-Expect Further Clearance |
|
|
Term
| If ATC clears you to hold in a non-charted holding pattern, they will provide you with the following information: |
|
Definition
-Direction
-Holding fix
-Holding course
-Leg length |
|
|
Term
| ATC should issue holding instructions at least _____ before reaching a clearance limit fix. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When an aircraft is _____ or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the aircraft will cross the fix at or below the maximum holding airspeed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Maximum holding airspeeds are defined by ____ and have nothing to do with the holding speed specified in the aircraft flight manual |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
MHA through 6k‘ = 200 KIAS
Above 6k‘ through 14k' = 230 KIAS
Above 14k‘ = 265 KIAS |
|
|
Term
| At USAF airfields, the maximum holding airspeed is _____ unless otherwise noted |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You are considered established in the holding pattern upon: |
|
Definition
| initial passage of the holding fix |
|
|
Term
| Unless correcting for known winds, make all turns during entry and while holding at: __ degrees per second, or __ degree bank angle, or bank angle commanded by the flight director system, whichever requires the least bank angle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
70 Degree Method:
If the inbound holding course is within 70° of the aircraft heading use ____
If the inbound holding course is not within 70° of the aircraft heading use ____ |
|
Definition
-Direct entry: turn outbound in the direction of holding and onto the holding side
-Parallel entry: turn outbound in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course |
|
|
Term
| Outbound. Begin outbound timing when _______. If you cannot determine the abeam position, start timing when wings level outbound |
|
Definition
-over or abeam the fix
-wings level outbound |
|
|
Term
| Inbound. Begin inbound timing when _______ inbound |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Applying drift corrections. Compensate for wind effect primarily by drift correction on the inbound and outbound legs. When outbound, _____ the inbound drift correction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If established in a holding pattern that has a published minimum holding altitude, and assigned an altitude above that published altitude, pilots may descend to the published minimum holding altitude when ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: If you experience lost communications, you are automatically cleared to fly any published approach. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Descent gradients in excess of __° (1,000 ft/nm) in IMC may induce spatial disorientation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Established on course is defined as being within ______deflection for a VOR/TACAN/RNAV/GPS course, within ± 5° of the required bearing for an NDB and within _____ deflection for a LOC based course. |
|
Definition
-half full-scale (1 dot) for VOR/TACAN/RNAV/GPS
-full-scale (2 dots) for LOC |
|
|
Term
| Terminal routings from en route or feeder facilities normally provide a course and range in ____(not ___) to the IAF but may take you to a point other than the IAF. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: If cleared for an approach while en route to holding fix that is not collocated with the IAF, proceed to the IAF via the holding fix, unless specifically cleared to proceed direct to the IAF |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Clearance for the approach includes clearance to use holding airspace |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Terminal routings from en route or feeder facilities are considered segments of the IAP and normally provide a course, range, and minimum altitude to the IAF. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ranges published along the terminal routing are expressed in ______(not ___) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If established in holding and cleared for the approach, should you complete the holding pattern to the IAF? |
|
Definition
| yes, unless an early turn is approved by ATC |
|
|
Term
| The use of _____________ is the simplest and most convenient way to position an aircraft for an approach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| "Traffic Advisories" is an additional service that the controller may provide to you if: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: "Radar monitoring" during a nonprecision instrument approach will not provide altitude warning information if the aircraft descends below a safe
altitude. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the reported ceiling is at least 500 feet above the minimum vectoring altitude and the visibility is at least 3 miles, aircraft will be
vectored to intercept the final approach course as follows:
-At least _____ from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of __°.
-At least ____ from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of __°. |
|
Definition
1 mile / 20*
3 miles / 30* |
|
|
Term
| While being radar vectored, the pilot will repeat all _____, ______, and _____; and comply with controller instructions. |
|
Definition
-headings
-altitudes (departing and assigned)
-altimeter settings |
|
|
Term
| If maneuvering is required to lose excess altitude prior to the FAF, __________. |
|
Definition
| obtain a clearance from the controlling agency |
|
|
Term
| A ____ is an ATC coded IFR arrival route established for assignment to arriving IFR aircraft for certain airports |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The purpose of a STAR is to: |
|
Definition
| simplify clearance delivery procedures and facilitate transition between enroute and instrument approach procedures. |
|
|
Term
| A _______ clearance authorizes pilots to vertically and laterally navigate, in accordance with the depicted procedure, to meet published restrictions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If GPS is used, RAIM must be available to execute the procedure. ______ (or better) RAIM must be available |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Purpose of low altitude approaches? |
|
Definition
assist you in guiding your aircraft to the final approach fix, on course, on altitude, and in the final approach configuration
|
|
|
Term
| If you are flying in the low altitude structure, ATC expects you to fly the ________ version of the approach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2 broad catagories of instrument low approaches? |
|
Definition
| Course reversals, procedure tracks |
|
|
Term
| T o F: Unless ATC clears you otherwise, expect to fly the full instrument approach as published |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prior to reaching the initial approach fix, the pilot must slow to __________? |
|
Definition
| aircraft manuevering speed |
|
|
Term
| 2 types of course reversals? |
|
Definition
| Procedure Turn, Holding in Lieu of |
|
|
Term
| Do not execute HILO PT when? |
|
Definition
SNERT
Straight in
No PT routing
Established in Holding
Radar Vectors
Timed Approach |
|
|
Term
| How are procedure turns depicted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Procedure turns may safely be flown at speeds of up to ____ provided the pilot takes all factors into consideration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| FAA recomends ___ KIAS for procedure turn course reversals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Procedure turn using holding method has what 5 exceptions? |
|
Definition
1. If your heading is within 90* of outbound procedure turn course, you may use normal lead points
2. If you elect to teardrop entry, your teardrop course must be within 30* of the procedure turn course
3. If you intercept the procedure turn course outbound, maintain the course for the remainder of the outbound leg, then turn toward the manuevering side to reverse course
4. Begin timing once you are outbound abeam the procedure turn fix - If you cannot determine abeam, start after completing outbound turn
5. Do not descend from the procedure turn fix altitude until abeam the procedure turn fix heading outbound. Do not descend from the procedure turn completion altitude until established on the inbound segment of the approach |
|
|
Term
| 45 / 180 method of flying course reversal? |
|
Definition
1. Intercept PT fix, turn in the shortest direction outbound
2. Do not descend until abeam fix on a parrallel or intercept heading
3. turn 45* away from outbound track toward manuevering side.
4. Begin timing for 1 minute then 180* turn in opposite direction |
|
|
Term
| 80 / 260 procedure for course reversal? |
|
Definition
1. Intercept PT fix, turn in the shortest direction outbound
2. Do not descend until abeam fix on a parrallel or intercept heading
3. turn 45* away from outbound track toward manuevering side.
4. Make 80*turn away from the outbound track toward the manuevering side, followed by an immediate 260* turn in the opposite direction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Holding track is a heavy black line |
|
|
Term
If cleared for approach while flying HILO PT, (Do/Do Not) complete the approach without making additional turns in holding?
|
|
Definition
DO
(you may request additional turns if you need to lose altitude/slow/configure) |
|
|
Term
| Procedure track depiction? |
|
Definition
| No specific depiction. May use arcs, radials, courses etc .. Heavy black line indicates ground track |
|
|
Term
| Procedure Track: If your heading is within ___ you may use normal lead points to intercept the course |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When manuevering for a procedure track it is most important to not exceed _____? |
|
Definition
| published remain within distance |
|
|
Term
| Procedure track: when descent is depicted at the IAF, start the descent when ______? |
|
Definition
| abeam or past the IAF, and on a parallel or intercept heading to the procedure track course |
|
|
Term
| Entry for RNAV approaches are normally flown from via the _____ |
|
Definition
| TAA: terminal arrival area |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| provide seamless transition from enroute structure to the terminal enviroment for arriving aircraft equipped with FMS (flight management system) or GPS |
|
|
Term
| On RNAV approaches, the Pilot may elect to use the course reversal pattern when it is not required but must ________? |
|
Definition
| inform the controller and recieve clearance to do so |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
T: shaped like Y or T with a common IAF
Parallel T: same, but parallel final approach courses
TAA areas: divided into "pie" shapes Left base, Right base, and straight in sectors. |
|
|
Term
| Every "T" RNAV waypoint is a pronounceable ____ character word |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must be nav equipment must you have set inside the FAF |
|
Definition
Once inside the final approach
fix, one navigation receiver available to the pilot flying must remain tuned to and display the
facility that provides final approach course guidance. |
|
|
Term
| final approach guidance will be categorized as |
|
Definition
Non-radar, Radar,
Procedures with a Visual Component (visual approach, contact approach, IAP with a visual
segment and charted visual chart procedures), and Other Specialized Procedures (converging
approaches, ILS Precision Runway Monitor (ILS/PRM), Simultaneous Offset Instrument
Approaches (SOIA), and Transponder Landing System (TLS).) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The FAF is the point where the final approach begins and will be depicted by a Maltese cross in the profile view of the approach along with a recommended, minimum,
or mandatory crossing altitude. Normally, aircraft will cross the FAF at approach speed
in the landing configuration. |
|
|
Term
| When can you descend below stepdown fix altitude? |
|
Definition
Descent below stepdown fix altitude is limited to
aircraft capable of simultaneous reception of final approach course guidance and the
stepdown fix. Regardless of the type or number of navigation facilities used to define the
stepdown fix, one navigation receiver must remain tuned to and display final approach
course guidance. For example, aircraft equipped with a single VOR receiver will not
descend below a stepdown fix altitude when two VOR radials define that fix. |
|
|
Term
Obstacle Clearance Surface (OCS) is an obstacle evaluation surface
associated with each segment of an instrument procedure. The OCS can be either _____ or _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Required Obstacle Clearance (ROC) is the minimum measure of obstacle
clearance considered to supply a satisfactory level of vertical protection. The ROC is _____ to
the OCS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The level OCS concept is applicable to level flight segments. This is
intended for enroute, initial, intermediate segments, and _____ . |
|
Definition
| non-precision final approaches |
|
|
Term
| Typical ROC values are: for enroute procedure segments, 1,000 feet (_____ feet in designated mountainous terrain); and for initial segments, 1,000 feet, and 500 feet in intermediate segments. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In determining ROC for the final segments, _____, _____, or _____ feet may be applied and is
dependent on the type of non-precision procedure and a variety of other factors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ ROC is applicable to segments dedicated to descending on a
glidepath or climbing in a departure or missed approach segment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum descent gradient in a feeder route is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The maximum permissible
descent gradient is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The instrument approach begins at the _____. |
|
Definition
| IAF (Initial Approach Fix) |
|
|
Term
| The initial approach segment has no defined _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The length of the initial approach segment should not exceed _____ unless an operational requirement exists. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The angle between the initial approach course and the intermediate
course will not exceed _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the angle is greater than _____, a lead radial or bearing that
provides at least _____ of lead will be published to aid the pilot in determining a potential point
upon which to commence a turn from the initial segment to the course associated with the
intermediate segment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
he total width of the initial approach segment is _____ on each side
of the initial approach course. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This width is divided into two segments: a primary area and a
secondary area. The primary area extends _____ on either side of the course. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The secondary area
extends laterally on either side of the primary area for _____ on each side. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Obstacle clearance in the primary area is a minimum of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Obstacle clearance in the secondary area starts at _____ feet and tapers to _____ feet at the outer edge. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum descent gradient in the initial approach segment is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where a higher descent gradient is necessary, a maximum of up to _____ may be used. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum descent gradient for a high altitude penetration is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where a higher descent gradient is necessary, the maximum is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ideally, the minimum holding altitude is the same as the _____ altitude. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In cases where this is not possible, the minimum holding altitude is limited to no more than _____ feet above the FAF altitude. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tear Drop Penetration: The outbound penetration course will be between _____ and _____ to the left or right of the reciprocal of the inbound course. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The size of the penetration turn area: The turn distance will not be less than _____ nm from the facility. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The procedure (Tear-Drop Pen) is designed so the aircraft should lose half the total altitude or _____ feet, whichever is greater, outbound prior to starting the inbound turn. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The penetration turn area has a width of _____ nm on both sides of the flight track up to the intermediate fix or point and will encompass _____ the areas within the turn. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are two types of intermediate segments: the _____, and the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum descent gradient is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The maximum descent gradient is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: The visual area is an area evaluated for obstacles to determine whether night operations must be prohibited because of close-in unlighted obstacles, or if visibility minimums
must be restricted. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are three areas evaluated, depending on the type of final approach guidance and alignment with the runway centerline. They are: _____, _____, and _____. |
|
Definition
| standard, straight-in, and offset. |
|
|
Term
| The "standard" visual area begins _____ from the threshold at the threshold elevation and extends out _____ along the runway centerline. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Visual Descent Point (VDPs) are applicable to straight-in approaches only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The VDP is a defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision
straight-in approach procedure from which a normal descent (approximately 3°) from the
MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced, provided visual reference
with the runway environment is established. The VDP is normally identified by DME
and is computed for the non-precision approach with the lowest MDA on the IAP. |
|
|
Term
| When must a VDP be computed manually? |
|
Definition
On multi-facility approaches, the depicted VDP will be for the lowest MDA published. Therefore,
on an approach with a higher MDA, the published VDP will not be correct and must be
computed by the pilot. While pilots
should calculate a VDP if one is not published, if performing a non-precision
approach to an unfamiliar field at night (or very low visibility) without a published
VDP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
For DME - HAT/300
For timing - 10% of HAT alt in sec
ex: HAT-450ft VDP=1.5nm or 45sec |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The MAP is the point on non-precision approaches where an aircraft will
execute a missed approach if the runway environment is not in sight or a safe landing
cannot be accomplished. |
|
|
Term
| When a turn is required over the FAF |
|
Definition
, turn immediately and
intercept the final approach course to ensure that obstruction clearance airspace is not
exceeded. Do not descend to the minimum descent altitude (MDA) or step down fix
altitude until past the FAF (if published). |
|
|
Term
| Calculate 3deg decent rate for VSI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Obstacle Clearance Surface (OCS) is an obstacle evaluation surface
associated with each segment of an instrument procedure. The OCS can be either _____ or _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Required Obstacle Clearance (ROC) is the minimum measure of obstacle
clearance considered to supply a satisfactory level of vertical protection. The ROC is _____ to
the OCS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The level OCS concept is applicable to level flight segments. This is
intended for enroute, initial, intermediate segments, and _____ . |
|
Definition
| non-precision final approaches |
|
|
Term
| Typical ROC values are: for enroute procedure segments, 1,000 feet (_____ feet in designated mountainous terrain); and for initial segments, 1,000 feet, and 500 feet in intermediate segments. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In determining ROC for the final segments, _____, _____, or _____ feet may be applied and is
dependent on the type of non-precision procedure and a variety of other factors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_____ ROC is applicable to segments dedicated to descending on a
glidepath or climbing in a departure or missed approach segment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum descent gradient in a feeder route is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The maximum permissible
descent gradient is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The instrument approach begins at the _____. |
|
Definition
| IAF (Initial Approach Fix) |
|
|
Term
| The initial approach segment has no defined _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The length of the initial approach segment should not exceed _____ unless an operational requirement exists. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The angle between the initial approach course and the intermediate
course will not exceed _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the angle is greater than _____, a lead radial or bearing that
provides at least _____ of lead will be published to aid the pilot in determining a potential point
upon which to commence a turn from the initial segment to the course associated with the
intermediate segment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
he total width of the initial approach segment is _____ on each side
of the initial approach course. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This width is divided into two segments: a primary area and a
secondary area. The primary area extends _____ on either side of the course. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The secondary area
extends laterally on either side of the primary area for _____ on each side. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Obstacle clearance in the primary area is a minimum of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Obstacle clearance in the secondary area starts at _____ feet and tapers to _____ feet at the outer edge. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum descent gradient in the initial approach segment is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where a higher descent gradient is necessary, a maximum of up to _____ may be used. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum descent gradient for a high altitude penetration is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where a higher descent gradient is necessary, the maximum is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ideally, the minimum holding altitude is the same as the _____ altitude. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In cases where this is not possible, the minimum holding altitude is limited to no more than _____ feet above the FAF altitude. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tear Drop Penetration: The outbound penetration course will be between _____ and _____ to the left or right of the reciprocal of the inbound course. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The size of the penetration turn area: The turn distance will not be less than _____ nm from the facility. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The procedure (Tear-Drop Pen) is designed so the aircraft should lose half the total altitude or _____ feet, whichever is greater, outbound prior to starting the inbound turn. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The penetration turn area has a width of _____ nm on both sides of the flight track up to the intermediate fix or point and will encompass _____ the areas within the turn. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are two types of intermediate segments: the _____, and the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum descent gradient is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The maximum descent gradient is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: The visual area is an area evaluated for obstacles to determine whether night operations must be prohibited because of close-in unlighted obstacles, or if visibility minimums
must be restricted. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are three areas evaluated, depending on the type of final approach guidance and alignment with the runway centerline. They are: _____, _____, and _____. |
|
Definition
| standard, straight-in, and offset. |
|
|
Term
| The "standard" visual area begins _____ from the threshold at the threshold elevation and extends out _____ along the runway centerline. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Visual Descent Point (VDPs) are applicable to straight-in approaches only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If timing is required to identify the missed approach point, |
|
Definition
begin timing when
passing the FAF or the starting point designated in the timing block of the approach
plate. |
|
|
Term
If timing is not specifically depicted on the instrument approach
procedure, |
|
Definition
| timing is not authorized as a means of identifying the MAP. |
|
|
Term
If both timing and another means of identifying the MAP are published
(e.g. DME), |
|
Definition
timing will only be used as a backup unless the other means of MAP
identification is not operational or fails during the approach. |
|
|
Term
| Descent below MDA/DA/DH is not authorized until |
|
Definition
| sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in position to execute a safe landing. |
|
|
Term
the pilot may not descend below
100 feet above the TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless |
|
Definition
| the red termination bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable. |
|
|
Term
| required components for an ILS |
|
Definition
the glide slope, localizer, and
outer marker. If the outer marker is inoperative or not installed, it may be replaced by DME, another NAVAID, a crossing radial, or radar,
provided these substitutes are depicted on the approach plate or identified by NOTAM |
|
|
Term
| If the localizer fails or the OM (or at least one of its substitutes) is not available on a ILS or LOC |
|
Definition
| then the procedure is not authorized. |
|
|
Term
Airborne marker beacon receivers that have a selective sensitivity feature should always be operated in the ____ sensitivity position to
ensure proper reception of the ILS marker beacons. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Set the front or back course on a ILS back course approach? |
|
Definition
Set the published localizer front course in the course
selector window prior to attempting localizer interception. The front course is the
proper course to set even when flying a back course approach |
|
|
Term
T/F It is possible to receive a false or erroneous
glide slope signal with both the ground and air components of the glide slope system
operating normally, normal ident, and no off flags or warnings, while established on
the localizer course. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F The localizer signal typically has a usable range of 18 miles
within 10° of the course centerline unless otherwise stated on the IAP. ATC may clear
you to intercept the localizer course beyond 18 miles or the published limit, however, this
practice is only acceptable when the aircraft is in radar contact and ATC is sharing
responsibility for course guidance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F The ILS/LOC approach must be discontinued if the localizer
course becomes unreliable, or any time full-scale deflection of the CDI occurs on
final approach. Do not descend below localizer minimums if the aircraft is more than
one dot (half scale) below or two dots (full scale) above the glide slope. If the glide
slope is recaptured to within the above tolerance, descent may be continued to
DA/DH. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Decision Height (DH)? |
|
Definition
DH is a height above touchdown referenced by a radar
altimeter and is the height at which a decision must be made during a precision approach
to continue the approach or execute a missed approach. Do not descend below DH if
sufficient visual reference with the runway environment is not established. Obstacle
clearance is provided to allow a momentary descent below DH while transitioning from
the final approach to the missed approach. |
|
|
Term
T/F The middle marker may never be used as the sole means of identifying
the MAP. The middle marker may assist you in identifying the MAP on certain
localizer approaches provided it is coincident with the published localizer MAP |
|
Definition
True - To determine the location of the MAP, compare the distance from the FAF to MAP adjacent to the timing block. It may not be the same point as depicted in the profile
view. If the MM is received while executing such an approach, and your primary
indications (DME and/or timing) agree, you may consider yourself at the MAP and
take appropriate action. If the middle marker is the only way to identify the MAP
(e.g. no timing published and DME out of service), then the approach is not
authorized. |
|
|
Term
T/F A Receiver
Autonomous Integrity Monitor (RAIM) check is required prior to flying a GPS approach. |
|
Definition
True
If predictive RAIM is not available, another
type of navigation and approach system must be used, another destination selected, or the trip
delayed until RAIM is predicted to be available on arrival. A predictive RAIM check allows
crews to plan for an alternate means of navigation if necessary. If a RAIM failure occurs
prior to the Final Approach Way Point (FAWP) or the approach mode does not activate prior
to the FAWP, do not commence the approach and coordinate for an alternate clearance. If a
RAIM failure occurs after the FAWP, the receiver, based on equipage, is allowed to continue
operating without an annunciation for up to 5 minutes to allow completion of the approach.
You must check the receiver operator manual to ensure you have this capability. |
|
|
Term
T/F On a GPS approach, Fly the full approach
from an Initial Approach Waypoint (IAWP) or feeder fix unless specifically cleared
otherwise. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Pilots must cross check the active WP identifier to ensure situational
awareness. Some operations (e.g., holding, course reversal maneuvers) may require
manual intervention to either stop or resume automatic waypoint sequencing. Pilots
must ensure the receiver is sequenced to the appropriate waypoint, especially if not
flying the full procedure. If on vectors to final, ensure that receiver is set IAW
flight manual procedures. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Unless circling from the approach, VNAV
guidance should be followed if provided by aircraft avionics and certified for use
IAW AFI 11-202V3. VNAV guidance may be used to LNAV minimums; however,
the aircraft must level off prior to MDA if the runway environment is not in sight.
Due to the temperature and pressure altitude effects, USAF crews shall not use
VNAV guidance below published MDA or DA. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
o execute a missed approach, activate the
missed approach after crossing the MAWP. Do not activate the missed approach prior to the
MAWP. Do not turn off of the final approach course prior
to the MAWP. |
|
|
Term
| The PAR provides the pilot with |
|
Definition
| precise course, glideslope, and range information |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| course and range information and is classified as a non-precision approach |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
In preparation for the radar approach, select a backup approach
that is compatible with the existing weather and your aircraft where available. If you
experience lost communications, you are automatically cleared to fly any published
approach unless the controller issues a lost communications approach. |
|
|
Term
For ASR or PAR, Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are
received for approximately: |
|
Definition
One minute while being vectored to final,
Fifteen seconds while on final for an ASR approach, or
Five seconds while on final for a PAR approach. |
|
|
Term
| For ASR or PAR, If unable to reestablish communications and unable to maintain VFR, transition to your backup approach. |
|
Definition
Intercept the approach at the nearest
point that will allow a normal rate of descent and not compromise safety. Maintain the
last assigned altitude or the minimum safe/sector altitude (emergency safe altitude if
more than 25 NM from the facility), whichever is higher, until established on a
segment of the published approach. |
|
|
Term
| A minimum of _____ feet of obstacle clearance is provided in the circling approach area. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Approach Category: Radius in Miles
A - _____
B - _____
C - _____
D - _____
E - _____ |
|
Definition
| A: 1.3, B: 1.5, C: 1.7, D: 2.3, E: 4.5 |
|
|
Term
| The missed approach procedure commences at the _____ or _____ for the procedure being flown and ends at a clearance limit. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the missed approach course is within _____ of the final approach course, it is considered a straight missed approach. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the HAT is less than 400 feet, then a combination straight and turning missed approach will be constructed to accommodate the climb to 400 feet AGL _____ to turning. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Within the _____ area the OCS begins at the MDA/DH for the procedure at the
MAP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The OCS extends upward on a _____ slope (2.5% gradient, or 152 ft/nm) to the clearance limit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Standard ROC for missed approaches is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most missed approach climb gradients require the standard _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pilot procedures specify that entry and holding turns should be conducted
using _____ of bank or standard rate turn, whichever requires the least bank angle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Wind Effect: Starting at 4,000 feet MSL, 50 knots is applied to the holding pattern design computations and increases at a rate of _____ per _____ feet of altitude. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Primary Area. A minimum of _____ feet of obstacle clearance will be provided
throughout the primary area. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Secondary Area. The secondary area provides _____ feet of obstacle clearance at the inner edge, tapering to zero feet at the outer edge. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For ASR or PAR Voice Procedures read back |
|
Definition
Repeat all headings, altitudes (departing and assigned), and altimeter
settings until the final controller advises "do not acknowledge further transmissions." |
|
|
Term
For ASR or PAR, The controller is required to issue ceiling and visibility
only when |
|
Definition
the ceiling is below 1,500 feet (1,000 feet at civil airports) or below the
highest circling minimum, whichever is greater, or if the visibility is less than 3 miles. |
|
|
Term
| When to begin decent on ASR/PAR |
|
Definition
the controller will advise you to ‖begin
descent.‖ |
|
|
Term
| Fly the aircraft at or above MDA until |
|
Definition
arrival at the MAP or
until establishing visual contact with the runway environment. |
|
|
Term
| If the runway environment is not in sight at DA/DH, |
|
Definition
execute the appropriate missed
approach procedure. |
|
|
Term
The controller will cease providing
course and glide path guidance when: |
|
Definition
The pilot reports the runway/approach lights in sight, and the pilot elects to proceed visually (e.g. ―BRICK 10, runway in sight,
taking over visual.‖) Note: A pilot‘s report of ―runway in sight‖ OR ―visual‖ alone
does not constitute a request/advisement to proceed visually and the controller will
continue to provide course and glide path guidance. |
|
|
Term
| If the decision is made to discontinue the PAR approach, |
|
Definition
advise the
controller as soon as practical. |
|
|
Term
| When to do a No-Gyro Approach? |
|
Definition
(Heading Indicator Inoperative). If the heading indicator
should fail during flight, advise the radar controller and request a no-gyro approach. |
|
|
Term
| Before a visual approach can be authorized, |
|
Definition
the airport must have a ceiling at or
above 1,000 feet and visibility 3 miles or greater, ATC must determine that it will be
operationally beneficial and pilots must be able to proceed visually while remaining clear of
clouds. Additionally, ATC will not issue clearance until the pilot has the airport or the
preceding aircraft in sight. |
|
|
Term
| T/F Although you are cleared for a ―visual approach, you are still operating under IFR. |
|
Definition
True
Do not cancel your IFR clearance when leared for a visual approach. Be aware that radar service is automatically terminated
(without advising the pilot) when the pilot is instructed to change to advisory frequency. |
|
|
Term
T/F Clearance for a visual approach authorizes you to
do an overhead/VFR traffic pattern. |
|
Definition
FALSE
ATC expects you to proceed visually and
clear of clouds to the airport in the most direct and safe manner to establish the aircraft on a
normal straight-in final approach |
|
|
Term
| T/F Visual Approaches Haves a Missed Approach Segment |
|
Definition
False
A visual approach is not an
instrument approach procedure and therefore does not have a missed approach segment. If
a landing cannot be accomplished, the aircraft is expected to remain clear of clouds and
contact ATC as soon as possible for further clearance (separation from other IFR aircraft will
be maintained under these circumstances). |
|
|
Term
| Pilot Responsibilities During Visual Approaches |
|
Definition
12.4.5.1. Advise ATC as soon as possible if a visual approach is not desired.
12.4.5.2. Comply with controller's instructions for vectors toward the airport of
intended landing or to a visual position behind a preceding aircraft.
12.4.5.3. After being cleared for a visual approach, proceed visually and clear of
clouds to the airport in the most direct and safe manner to establish the aircraft on a
normal final approach. You must have the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight.
12.4.5.4. If instructed by ATC to follow another aircraft, notify the controller if you do
not see it, are unable to maintain visual contact with it, or for any other reason you
cannot accept the responsibility for visual separation under these conditions. |
|
|
Term
| When can you fly a Contact Approach? |
|
Definition
Pilots operating on an IFR flight plan, when clear of clouds with at
least 1-mile flight visibility and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airport in
those conditions, may request ATC authorization for a contact approach |
|
|
Term
| T/F After ATC approves a contact approach, you can fly an overhead pattern |
|
Definition
False
Being cleared for a visual or contact approach does not authorize the pilot to fly a
360° overhead traffic pattern. An aircraft conducting an overhead maneuver is VFR and the
instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan is canceled when the aircraft reaches the ―initial
point.‖ Aircraft operating at an airport without a functioning control tower must initiate
cancellation of the IFR flight plan prior to executing the overhead maneuver or after
landing. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Some IAPs contain a published visual segment (Figure 12.5).
In general, when the distance from the MAP to the end of the runway exceeds 3SM, the words
"fly visual " will appear in the profile view of the IAP. A long dashed line in the profile view
with an approximate heading and distance to the end of the runway will be depicted. The
depicted ground track associated with the visual segment should be flown as "DR" course.
When executing the visual segment, remain clear of clouds and proceed to the airport
maintaining visual contact with the ground. |
|
|
Term
| Charted Visual Flight Procedures (CVFPs) |
|
Definition
Charted Visual Flight Procedures (CVFPs)
are published visual approaches where an aircraft on an IFR flight plan, operating in VMC and
when authorized by air traffic control, may proceed to the destination airport under VFR via the
route depicted on the CVFP (Figure 12.6). When informed CVFPs are in use, the pilot must
advise the arrival controller on initial contact if unable to accept the CVFP. |
|
|
Term
If instructed to follow a preceding
aircraft, pilots are responsible for maintaining a safe approach interval and wake turbulence
separation. If unable.. |
|
Definition
Pilots should advise ATC if at any point they are unable to continue an
approach or lose sight of a preceding aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| What is a Converging Approach? |
|
Definition
Converging approaches provide procedures for
conducting simultaneous precision instrument approaches (normally ILS) to converging
runways. Converging runways are defined as runways having a 15° to 100° angle between them. In simpler terms, if the runways are pointed at each other (extended centerlines intersect) they
are converging runways and procedures must be established to de-conflict possible simultaneous
missed approaches. |
|
|
Term
| What is a ILS Precision Runway Monitor (ILS/PRM) Approach? |
|
Definition
When flying appropriately equipped aircraft and trained as outlined in AFI
11-202V3 and MAJCOM directives, USAF aircrews are authorized to fly ILS/PRM
approaches. ILS/PRM approaches are authorized at selected airports where parallel runways are
separated by less than 4300 feet. Specialized equipment, procedures and training for both air
traffic controllers and pilots are required prior to conducting an ILS/PRM approach at these
airports. All USAF aircrews must be cognizant of the requirements for operations at these
airports when ILS/PRM approaches are in use. ILS/PRM approaches allow for increased
arrival operations at airports with closely spaced parallel runways. All pilots flying into
these airports must be able to accept a clearance for the ILS/PRM approach when the
services are offered or risk extensive delays. |
|
|
Term
| If unable to accept an ILS/PRM approach, |
|
Definition
notify ATC within 200NM
of the landing airport to coordinate alternative arrival procedures. Failure to pre-coordinate a non-ILS/PRM arrival during a
period when ILS/PRM procedures are in use may result in denial of approach
clearance and/or diversion to an alternate airport. |
|
|
Term
| What is a Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approaches (SOIA)? |
|
Definition
Simultaneous Offset Instrument
Approaches (SOIA) are procedures used to conduct simultaneous approaches to a set of parallel
runways using a straight-in ILS approach to one runway and an offset LDA with glide slope
instrument approach to the other runway. (Figure 12.10). The parallel runway centerlines are
separated by less than 3,000 feet, but are at least 750 feet apart.When flying appropriately
equipped aircraft and trained as outlined in AFI 11-202V3 and MAJCOM directives, USAF
aircrews are authorized to fly SOIA approaches. |
|
|
