Term
| What is a new, re-emerging, or drug resistant infection whose incidence in humans had increased w/i the past two decades or whose incidence threatens to increase in the near future? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In 2011, especially in less developed countries, hosptial infections are _____ and antimicrobial resistance is ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/f- hospitals, especially those in less developed countries, generally have state of the are microbiology facilities these days? |
|
Definition
| F- usually less than basic |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In 2011, there has been a _______ in sophisticated devices and procedures and a ______ in specialized ICUs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/f- there have been many new advances to treat gram (-) infections |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is currently reducing diagnostic services? |
|
Definition
| Pressures to reduce costs |
|
|
Term
| What are the two major risk factors in developing antimicrobial resistance? |
|
Definition
| Improper antimicrobial use and poor infection control practices |
|
|
Term
Which is not a common denominator related to human aspects leading to emergence of a disease?
a. sports/leisure activities- CA-MRSA
b. Money issues- managed care, do not put money where mouth is
c. Emphasis on self-diagnosis
d. Poverty- no access to care
e. Behavior- social, cultural, ignorance, social, work, etc |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is not a reason for antimicrobial resistance in developing countries?
a. Unnecessary ICUs
b. Inability to detect true resistance (inc cost w/ doing so, poor lab facilities)
c. Indiscriminate antimicrobial use
d. Pressures to increase revenue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Match characteristic as either an immediate or potential cost of antimicrobial resistance in healthcare
A. Immediate
B. Potential
1. Inpatient care requirements
2. Protracted duration of admissions
3. Costly alternative antibiotics
4. Lost productivity
5. Untreatable infections
6. Higher death rates |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- recentlym there has been a trend of inc hospital beds and dec ICU beds in licensed hospitals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- between 1986 and 2008 gram (+) pathogens have been responsible for most penumonia episodes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is not a reason for the ever inc gram (-) pneumonia infections?
a. colonize host tissue via microbial adhesions
b. interact w/ receptors on mucosal surfaces
c. adhesin/receptor interactions define bacterial populations
d. changes in adhesins associated w/ resistant microorganisms or in interactions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- pathogens encountered in healthcare institutions vary between countries though risk factors (like too many antimicorbials and device use are the same)? |
|
Definition
| F- usually the same, rest correct |
|
|
Term
Which is a risk factor for CA-MRSA infection?
a. Close skin to skin contact
b. Contaminated surfaces
c. Poor hygiene/sharing items
d. Crowded living conditions
e. Openings in skin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Action in which of the following is require to prevent emerging infections?
a. surveillance and response
b. applied research
c. infrastructure and training
d. Prevention and control |
|
Definition
| take action in all of them |
|
|
Term
| T/f- humans are an intermediate host for WNV, and thus are usually symptomatic? |
|
Definition
| F- incidental host, usually asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
| what is the bloodborne parasite responsible for chagas, and which bug spreads it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- Chagas infection is acute, asymptomatic, untreatable, and potentially fatal? |
|
Definition
| F- infection chronic, rest correct |
|
|
Term
| T/f- chagas can be spread via blood or organ/tissue transplant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which does not result from chronic chagas infection?
a. pulmonary edema
b. cardiomyopathy
c. megacolon
d. megaesophagus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two mechanisms through which influenza virus undergoes antigenic changes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occurs when an avain virus and human-adapted virus "swap genes" in a co-infected cell of an animal or human and a third virus results that can be readily transmitted by and between humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characterize as related to antigenic drift or shift
A. Drift
B. Shift
1. Gene point mutations result in strain variants
2. Emergence (among people) of a novel influenza A subtype
3. Minor Ag changes to HA
4. Continuous process
5. Most variants form evolutionary “dead end”
6. A strain eventually becomes predominant worldwide for 1-3 yrs
7. Reassortment
8. Direct animal to human transmission |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Flu viruses undergo antigenic change ____ than other respiratory viruses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- birds are a reservoir for influenza A viruses and can be spread to poultry and other animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- TB accounts for 2/3 of AIDS deaths worldwide and is the most common bloodstream pathogen in HIV-endemic countries> |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- opportunistic fungal, bacterial, and protozoal infections are the elading causes of death among HIV patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is a reason for why we are still at square one, especially in regards to antimicrobial resistance?
a. feasibility of universal antiretroviral therapy still being debated
b. rates of TB and HIV still escalating
c. microbiology services largely ignored
d. role of alliances ignored
e. Emerging infection remains a priority
e. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three clinical stages of pertussis? |
|
Definition
| catarrhal, paroxysmal, convalescence |
|
|
Term
| What does PCR tell us about pertussis? |
|
Definition
| Detects of DNA of organism is present, regardless of infection stage |
|
|
Term
| what is the optimal stage for pertussis specimin collection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Isolation of the pertussis organism ____ if specimen collection is delayed beyond 2 weeks of illness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| W/ real time PCR, attach a ____ probe to ___, and measure the flourescent signal by ______ |
|
Definition
| flourescent, DNA, each cycle |
|
|
Term
| With reverse transcription PCR, RNA - ______- _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Long one- w/ PCR you can ______ a specific segment of DNA, there is ____ specifity, you can use _____ amounts of DNA, the test takes ______ time, and it is run on _______ |
|
Definition
| amplify, high, small, gel electrophoresis |
|
|
Term
| What is the integration of conventional epidemiological approaches w/ laboratory techniques (esp DNA analysis) to track specific strains of pathogens in order to understand their distribution in a pop'n? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Match pertussis stage and description
A. Catarrhal
B. Paroxysmal
C. Convalescence
1. Gradual recovery from weeks to months
2. Onset of runny nose, sneezing, low grade fever, mild/occasional cough like common cold
3. Occurs for 1-6 weeks
4. Occurs for 1-2 weeks
5. Burst of numerous rapid cough followed by whoop, may turn cyanotic, vomiting and exhaustion may occur |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which test separates restriction fragments based on their relative lengths? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gold standard for isolation of an organism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two common methods of staining organisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Laboratory methods + epidemiology = ? |
|
Definition
| excellence in public health |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a program that uses air samplers in undisclosed locations that constantly monitor/sample air, and these filters can be tested using PCR to detect the presence of an organism's DNA |
|
|
Term
| Information from wchih program can assist in detecting emerging resistance patterns, assist w/ outbreaks, and assist in policies for drugs used in production animals? |
|
Definition
| Nat'l antimicrobial resistance monitoring system |
|
|
Term
| Which pathogens are tested for susceptibility by the CDC in accordance w/ NARMS? |
|
Definition
| O157:H7, s. typhi, shigella, non-typhi salmonella |
|
|
Term
| MIC for how many AB are tested by NARMS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is not a benefit/purpose of pulsenet?
a. Facilitate early identification of outbreaks
b. Describe the nature of the outbreak
c. assist epidemiologists in investigating outbreaks
d. separate sporadic and outbreak-associated cases
e. assist in rapid id of outbreak source
f. act as rapid and effective means of communication between public health laboratories |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the fact that pulsenet databases are availabale on demand to participants allow for ____ comparison of patterns |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whcih procedure is characterized by standardized molecular subtyping/fingerprinting of foodborne disease-causing bacteria by pulsed-field gel electrophoresis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Order the steps in a PFGE protocol
1. Compare DNA fingerprints
2. Have agar plug
3. Mage agar gel w/ organism
4. Isolate DNA via cell lysis, wash, protease K
5. load slice into gel wall
6. Cut slice and digest w/ RE |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| W/ southern blot, DNA is transferred from ____ to ______ |
|
Definition
| gel membrane, nylon membrane |
|
|
Term
| What type of probe is added to the membrane w/ IS6110 detection, and how is chemiluminescene detected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is a challenge in investigating related patterns?
a. cases may need to be reinterviewed
b. recall bias
c. exposures may be difficult to link
d. primary v secondary cases |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- Individuals may be infected by the same strain of an organisms, but the mechanism of transmission may have been different? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the continuous systematic collection of data on illness or infections in a defined population? |
|
Definition
| surveillance of infectious disease |
|
|
Term
| What three things does surveillance involve in addition to collecting data? |
|
Definition
| analysis, interpretation, dissemination |
|
|
Term
| T/F- the nationally notifiable disease list is reviewed periodically, with additions, but not deletions, being made |
|
Definition
| F- both additions and deletions are made |
|
|
Term
| T/F- reporting of nationally notifiable diseases to states/local DOH is voluntary, while reporting to the CDC from states is mandatory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- w/ regards to nationally notifiable diseases, CSTE, w/ input from the CDC makes recommendations annually for the changes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whose responsibility is disease surveillance? |
|
Definition
| local/state/federal gov, world gov/organizations |
|
|
Term
Notifiable diseases for each state are:
a. governed by state law
b. Required to meet national lists
c. Recommendations made to legislature by state health officials to add or delete diseases
d. Outbreaks reportable by law |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are four uses of surveillance data? |
|
Definition
| measure amt of disease in pop'n, measure vaccine effectiveness, id risk factors (like demographics), eradication of a disease |
|
|
Term
| T/F- with active surveillance the health care provider reports diseases to the health department, and with passive surveillance health department personnel contact the health care providers to solicit case reports? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Although generally non-reportable, what are two exceptions for which influenza is reportable? |
|
Definition
| novel strains and pediatric mortality |
|
|
Term
| T/F- MRSA and influenza coinfection is reportable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three components of biowatch? |
|
Definition
| collection, laboratory analysis of filters, response |
|
|
Term
| what are the three ways sentinel reporters can report? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/f- w/ sentinel reporters, it is a CDC initiative, and there is county-state-CDC reporting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/f- sentinel reporters rarely assist in vaccine development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four types of surveillance associated w/ abroviral surveillance? |
|
Definition
| dead bird reporting, sentinel chicken flocks, horse surveillance, human surveillance |
|
|
Term
| What is the reporting cycle for a notifiable disease? |
|
Definition
| ill person- health care provider- health agencies- public; reports, analyses, summaries, recommendations |
|
|
Term
| What is a web-based, automated electronic data collection and analysis available 24/7 and based upon emergency department chief complaints? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following describes the importance of syndromic surveillance
a. rapid detection of naturally occurring and intentionally spread outbreaks
b. situational awareness
c. Allows for quick determination of sero-type
d. allows for a quick response
e. complement to traditional disease reporting system
f. Augments by acquiring real-time syndromic data from hopsital ED |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main syndromic surveillance system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the collection and analysis of real-time or near real-time ED data (usually chief complaint or discharge) in an effort to detect outbreaks and provide situational awareness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are five common sources of surveillance data on ifectious disease? |
|
Definition
| mortality data (primay and underlying CoD), nosocomial infection suveillance data (hospitals report to joint commission), adverse vaccine reactions, food-borne illness via foodnet/pulse-net, targeted disease surveillance for hepatitis, flu, TB, syphilis |
|
|
Term
| What are three types of medical provider reporting for surveillance systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are four types of surveillance systems that are non-medical or syndromic? |
|
Definition
| flu, RSV, MRSA, arboviral |
|
|
Term
| What are four factors to take into account when considering surveillance and determining if there is an outbreak? |
|
Definition
| if higher than 30 day max, higher vll than historical max, if demographics suspect |
|
|
Term
Which is a potential benefit of syndromic surveillance
a. Allow for determination of tx efficacy
b. Can facilitate early detection of an intentional or natural disease outbreak or exposure
c. assurance when there are no outbreaks
d. long term health benefits, monitor community health (for situational awareness) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of influenza and how many of each subtype are there? |
|
Definition
| Hemagglutinin (16) and neuraminidase (9) |
|
|
Term
| T/f- influenza is a member of orthomoxyviridae, is a highly infectious type A and C virus, and incubates rapidly? |
|
Definition
| F- infectious type A and B virus, rest correct |
|
|
Term
| What are the two forms of highly pathogenic avian influenza? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many/what type of surface spikes are on Flu A? |
|
Definition
| hemagglutinin (16) and neuraiminidase (9) proteins |
|
|
Term
| T/F- an orthomoxyvirus like Flu A has 6 segmented genes, an envelope, and SS(-) RNA |
|
Definition
| F- 8 segmented genes, rest correct |
|
|
Term
| T/F- Flue can, in addition to the typical symptoms, can cause eye infection, pneumonia, acute respiratory distress, and be life-threatening? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- primary pneumonia from flu is bacterial and secondary is viral? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- primary, but not secondary, pneumonia from flu can clog airways and make breathing impossible? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1/2 pneumonia, acute respiratory distress, contribute to deaths from heart attack/stroke/cancer, etc |
|
|
Term
| What are two ways in which flu can be treated? |
|
Definition
| vaccine or antiviral meds like adamantane derivatives or neuraminidase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| How is the flu virus spread? |
|
Definition
| Via droplet nuclei and some airborne |
|
|
Term
| What are the incubation and infectious periods of flu? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- it is possible that a portion of all ppl w/ flu will be infectious even though they have no or mild symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| W/ flu, immunity to surface antigens _____ the likelihood of infection and disease severity if infection occurs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ development of Ag variants leads to seasonal epidemics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Shift refers to large scale changes in ____, ____, or _____ that creates a new subtype |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two flu subtypes that cause disease in humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| New flu variants result from ______ AG change/drift resulting from point mutations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Under which condition can antigenic shift lead to a pandemic?
a. variant retains ability to replicate well in humans
b. it is sufficiently transmissible between humans
c. if variant has new surface HA or NA that evade existing flu Ab
d. variant has point mutations leading to amino acid substitutions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During a pandemic, localized epi studies look to determine which of the following?
a. pop'n at highest risk of illness
b. pop'n at highest risk of death
c. infectiousness of virus
d. effectiveness of control measures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- there should be reporting of an unusual influenza virus to the WHO w/i 1 week? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two purposes of the modern flu surveillance system? |
|
Definition
a)monitor beginning, peak, and end of season
b) determine which viruses are causing illness |
|
|
Term
| Which flu strain is of potential concern to cause a pandemic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What will occur if avian viruses acquire human genes? |
|
Definition
| This will facilitate person-to-person transmission |
|
|
Term
| T/F- the flu potential for pandemic comes from the fact that all flu viruses can mutate and reptilian flu can cause illness in humans? |
|
Definition
| F- avian flu causes illness in humans, rest accurate |
|
|
Term
| Describe the cycles of H5N1 in humans and animals |
|
Definition
waterfowl-domestic birds
waterfowl and domestic birds to mammals, esp swine
domestic birds to humans and waterfowl |
|
|
Term
| There are ____ nat'l flu centers in over ____ countries that monitor flu activity and virus isolates throughout the world |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- the three methods of flu surveillance in Fl are (+) culture specimens sent to the state lab and network of sentinel physician practices? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- the network of sentinel physician practices can include stats like flu-like illness as percentage of office visits and flu cultures in selected practices? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three key epi findings that likely led to the evolution of bird flu (H5N1) |
|
Definition
| nomadic/free range ducks, live bird markets, cultural practices |
|
|
Term
| How do nomadic and fee range ducks contribute to the evolution of H5N1? |
|
Definition
| via contact w/ wild water birds, virus shedding and spreading, reservoir of infection |
|
|
Term
| T/F- viral spread is _____ in flocks by direct contact? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are natural hosts of birdflu? |
|
Definition
| domestic fowl, ducks, geese, turkeys, guinea fowl, quail, pheasants |
|
|
Term
| How many subtypes of swine flu are there and what are they? |
|
Definition
| 4- H1N1, H1N2, H3N2, H3N1 |
|
|
Term
| What is a respiratory disease that occurs in pigs caused by flu A? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- swine flu is a virus that usually infects humans, regardless of contact w/ swine? |
|
Definition
| F- rarely infects humans, usually only if have direct contact w/ swine |
|
|
Term
| T/F- w/ regards to avian flu in Fl, the Fish and wildlife conservation commission monitors poultry flocks and the DACS monitors wild birds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a common method of monitoring for avian flu?
a. WHO and CDC regional labs that test animal and human specimens
b. WHO OIE tests bird samples |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- w/ regards to bird flu monitoring, frequent updates are provided, and lab surveillance allows for implementation of needed control measures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- there is no FDA approved H5N1 vaccine? |
|
Definition
| F- there is, approved in 2007 |
|
|
Term
| T/F- there have been two outbreaks of bird flu in the US, the Delaware (H5N2) and Texas (H7N2)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- the Tx bird flu involved 12k chickens and was highly pathogenic, while the DE bird flu involved 7K chickens and was low pathogenic? |
|
Definition
| F- numbers reversed, rest correct |
|
|
Term
| How does HIV weaken the body's immune system and allow for opportunistic infections? |
|
Definition
| Virus invades T cells, replicates, and ifnectsm ore T cells |
|
|
Term
| What are the subtypes of HIV-1, and which is the dominant strain in the US? |
|
Definition
| A-H, and 1; B dominant in US |
|
|
Term
| Which individuals does AIDS include? |
|
Definition
| all ppl w/ HIV w/ <200 CD4+ t cells/ ml blood, and/or have 1 or more of 26 opportunistic infections or malignancies |
|
|
Term
| W/ HIV-2, the immunodeficiency is _____, the virus develops ______, it is _______ infectious at beginning stages, and ______ w/ disease duration |
|
Definition
| milder, slower, less, inc |
|
|
Term
| T/f- HIV-2 responds to the same drugs as HIV-1, and is common in the US? |
|
Definition
| F- does not respond to same drugs, rare in the US |
|
|
Term
| In which pop'n in the US is HIV/AIDS incidence highest? |
|
Definition
| homos, IV drug users, heterosexuals w/ specific risk factors |
|
|
Term
Classify the symptoms as related to early or late HIV/AIDS disease
A. 1-4 weeks
B. Months to >10 yrs
1. Enlarged lymph nodes,
2. lack of energy,
3. weight loss,
4. frequent fever/sweats,
5. persistent/frequent yeast infections,
6. headache,
7. fever,
8. vision loss,
9. short term memory loss,
10. persistent rashes/flaky skin
11. PID that does not respond to treatment
12. Tiredness |
|
Definition
| A- 6,7,1,12; B- 2,3,4,5,8,9,10,11 |
|
|
Term
| Since 2003, HIV prevelance has ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rank ethnicities according to incidence of HIV/AIDS cases among adults and adolescents:
1. Asian
2. American Indian/ Alaska native
3. Hispanic/Latino
4. White
5. Black
6. Native Hawaiian/Pacific Islander |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The incidence of AIDS diagnoses among adults/adolescents between 1985 and 2008, has ____ in whites, ______ in blacks, _____ in Hispanic/Latinos, _____ in Asians, and ____ in Native Hawaiin/PAcific islander |
|
Definition
| dec, inc, inc,stayed same, stayed same |
|
|
Term
| Among virtually all age groups, the incidence of HIV (not AIDS) infection is ______ in men than women |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rank region of the ocuntry in accordance w/ % of AIDS cases; West, Midwest, NE, South |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In 2008, for adults and children, the # of ppl living w/ HIV is _____, the # of new HIV infections is _______, and deaths due to AIDS is ________ |
|
Definition
| 33.4 million, 2.7 million, 2.0 million |
|
|
Term
| Which regions in particular has seen increasing # of HIV/AIDS cases since 1995? |
|
Definition
| Russia/E Europe, SE ASIA, subsaharan Africa |
|
|
Term
| In 2008, how many children >15 yrs of age are though to be living w/ HIV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fill in the statistics: in 2008 there are _____ new HIV infections, ____% are in low/middle income countries, _____ are in children/ ppl under 15, _____ are in adults, ___% are among women, and ____ % are amoung ppl 15-24 |
|
Definition
| 7400, 97, 1200, 6200, 48, 40 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 most common sources of Hepatitis C infection? |
|
Definition
| IV drug use, sexual contact |
|
|
Term
| What is a pathological condition of the body of body part caused by a virus, bacteria, fungus, or protozoan trnasmitted by sexual contact? |
|
Definition
| Sexually transmitted infection |
|
|
Term
Classify these STIs as either viral, bacterial, or parasitic:
A. Viral
B. Bacterial
C. Parasitic
1. Trichomonas
2. Gonorrhea
3. Syhpilis
4. Chlamydia
5. Genital Herpes
6. HPV
7. Hep B
8. HIV
9. Bacterial vaginosis
10. Chancroid
11. Lymphogranuloma venereum
12. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1
13. Cytomegalovirus
14. Scabies
15. Pediculosis |
|
Definition
| A-5,6,7,8,12,13,B-2,3,4,10,11,9,C-1,14,15 |
|
|
Term
| What are the main symptoms associated w/ HPV, and how long does it take for them to appear after contact? |
|
Definition
| small bumy warts (look flat or like cauliflower) on anus/sex organs, itching/burning around sex organs; 1-20 months after contact |
|
|
Term
| T/F- w/ HPV, if the wart goes away, then the virus does too? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- a mother can give HPV to a child during birth, especially to their eyes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is an effective method to prevent HPV infection? a. condom use b. annual PAP exam c. abstinence/ limit # of sexual partners d. screen partners to reveal subclinical infection e. vaccine |
|
Definition
| c,b,e (can't detect subclinical infection) |
|
|
Term
| In which demographic is HPV ifnection most common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which HPV strains are the most high risk ones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- the warts you cannot see (flat and flesh colored) will get you? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F- HPV can cause cervical cancer, and there are 26 strains which can cause genital infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two STI can cause pelvic inflammatory disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some common symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease? |
|
Definition
| pelvic pain, mild vaginal dishcarge, lower back pain, bleeding between prds, fever, nausea, vomiting, heavier periods |
|
|
Term
| T/F- PID can lead to ectopic pregnancies and infertility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which area of the US has the highest chlamydia rates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/f- w/ chlamydia, 50% of women are asymptomatic and 75% of men are? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a common symptom of Chlamydia in men?
A. Discharge from penis
B. Burning w/ peeing
C. Fever
D. Testicular swelling |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a common symptom of Chlamydia in women?
A. Vaginal discharge
B. Burning w/ peeing
C. Fever
D. Low back pain
E. Nausea
F. Painful intercourse
G. PID
H. Bleeding b/w prds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for chlamydia symptoms to appear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common demographic for chalmydia in men, women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the best ways to prevent gonorrhea infection? |
|
Definition
| abstinence/monogamy, condoms, screening all pregnant women, annual test |
|
|
Term
| Overall, since 1989 until 2007, and especially from 1989-1997, the rate of gonorrhea in the US has _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a common symptom of gonorrhea in men?
a. White/yellow/green discharge
b. Asymptomatic
c. Swollen testicles
d. Painful urination |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a common symptom of gonorrhea in women?
a. Asymptomatic
b. Painful urination
c. Discharge
d. PID
e. White/yellow/green discharge |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the drugs gonorrhea is sometimes resistant to? |
|
Definition
| penicillin, tetracycline, flouroquinolones, spectinomycin |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a common pregnancy related complication stemming from gonorrhea infection?
a. Premature delivery/spontaneous abortion
b. Blindness
c. Joint infection
d. Potentially fatal blood infection in the baby |
|
Definition
| all are potential complications |
|
|
Term
| T/F- Hep A and E are transmitted by blood/sexual/perinatal transmission, while Hep B,C, and D are trnasmitted by the fecal-oral route? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mortality of Hep A is _____, of B is ____, C is ___, D is ____, and E is ___ |
|
Definition
| low, mod to high, mod to high, high, low-mod |
|
|
Term
| Which type of hepatitis can become chronic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of hepatitis can are self-limiting, and which requires co-infection w/ B and can lead to superinfections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are typical HAV symptoms? |
|
Definition
| jaundice, fatigue, abdominal pain, loss of appetite, nausea, diarrhea, fever, none in children under 3 |
|
|
Term
| How can one protect themselves from HAV? |
|
Definition
| Ig, vaccine, hygiene, sanitization, or lifelong immunity |
|
|
Term
| What are some common symptoms fo Hep B? |
|
Definition
| jaundice, fatigue, ab pain, loss of apetite, nausea, vomiting, joint pain, chronic liver disease |
|
|
Term
| Since the late 1980s, the incidence of HBV has _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some of the major global hotspots of HBV? |
|
Definition
| E Canada, Africa, Oceana, E/C Europe |
|
|
Term
| Where are areas of high prevalence of HCV? |
|
Definition
| Africa, Latin America, Central/SE Asia |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of liver transplants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the incubation prd of HCV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can one prevent HBV infection? |
|
Definition
| vaccination, condoms, do not share works/toiletries, test if pregnant, Ig 12 hrs after birth |
|
|
Term
| What are the common symptoms of HCV? |
|
Definition
| dark urine, abdominal pain, jaundice, fatigue, loss of apetite, nausea; 90% of cases asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
| What are some common ways to protect one's self from HCV? |
|
Definition
| Get A and B vaccines, condoms, avoid sharing works/toiletries, avoid tattoos/piercings, do not donate blood/organ/tissue if (+), test if pregnant, use specifc tx (50% effective) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common source of HBV infection? |
|
Definition
|
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