Term
| 1.What is the most common form of hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| 1.What happens with graves' Diease? |
|
Definition
Increased Basal metabolic rate
Thyroic Stimulating Immunoglobulins (TSIs) bind to receptors causing increased synthesis of TH and increased size of thyroid
-Type II hypersensitivity. |
|
|
Term
1.What are the 2 main signs of Graves' Disease?
Are they reversible? |
|
Definition
exopthalmos and pretibial edema
-due to increased secretion of hyaluronic acid causing swelling
-not curable |
|
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Term
| 1.What are other S/S of Graves' disease? |
|
Definition
| increased Ca++ resporption, amenorrhea, ED, decreased libido, weight loss, sweating flushing and poor heat tolerance, fine hair, change in circulation, decreased blinking, eyelid tremors, tachycardia, increased cardiac output, fatigue, lability, respiratory weakness |
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Term
| 2.what is the term for a collection of ilnesses characterized by thought disorders which affect a person's ability to determine reality bs. delusional thoughts? |
|
Definition
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Term
| 2. Schizophrenia affects the gray and white matter of _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| 2.Do genetics and environment play a role in schizophrenia? How? |
|
Definition
genetic loc: chromosome 22q11 deletion
30-50% concordance with twins
some ppl have reduced gene penetrance |
|
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Term
| 2.What are the neuroanatomical alterations in schizophrenia? |
|
Definition
enlarged lateral and 3rd ventricle of the cerebrum.
decreased temporal lobe (emotional control
decreased thalamus and reelin |
|
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Term
| 2.What are the major neurotransmitter alterations in schizophrenia? |
|
Definition
decreased Serotonin (sleep, appetite, 'the motor of life')
decreased norepinephrine (FOCUS)
decreased glutamate (excitatory, learning and memory)
increased dopamine? (JOY) |
|
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Term
| 3.what are the 5 main transmitters and what do they do? |
|
Definition
Serotonin (modulates mood, sleep, and appetite
Dopamine- JOY
Norepinephrine- FOCUS
GABA - inhibits glutamine
Glutamine - stress modulator |
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Term
| 4.What are the two major classifications of mood disorder? |
|
Definition
1.Unipolar or major depressive disorder
2.Bipolar disorder |
|
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Term
| 4. What are the two classifications of Bipolar disorder? |
|
Definition
1. bipolar I -manic episodes and at least one major depressive episode
2. Bipolar II- recurrent major depressive episodes with one or more HYPOMANIC episodes |
|
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Term
| 4. what is the hereditary link with bipolar? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| 4. What are the two major neurotransmitters that play a role in bipolar? |
|
Definition
NE (FOCUS)
serotonin (mood, sleep, appetite)
-both are decreased |
|
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Term
| 4. what effect does the neurodendocrine dysregulation involved in Bipolar have on the adrenal system and thyroid system? |
|
Definition
CORTISOL (stress) levels increased
HYPOTHYROIDISM
=hypothalamus releases CRH, pituitary releases ACTH, adrenal cortex releases too much cortisol
=Hypothalamus releases TRH, blunted TSH release from pituitary, decreased nocturnal TH from thyroid |
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Term
| 4. what are the anatomic changes in bipolar? |
|
Definition
-enlarged lateral ventricles
-atrophied frontal lobe
-increased blood flor in right amygdala |
|
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Term
| 4.what are clinical manifestations of bipolar? |
|
Definition
depression:
-dysphoria (intensely painful mood)
-insomnia
-anorexia, low body weight
-anhedonia
mania:
-grandiosity
-delusions/hallucinations
-increased energy, rapid talking
-poor judgement |
|
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Term
| 4. Treatment for bipolar? |
|
Definition
MAOIs (beware HTN crisis), TCAs, SSRIs (taken only without other drugs), SNRIs
psychotherapy
ECT |
|
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Term
5. what produces antibodies? What is another name for antibodies?
Are they part of the innate or adaptive immune system? |
|
Definition
Immunoglobulins
produced by plasma cells
part of adaptive immune system (humoral and cell-mediated) |
|
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Term
| 5/7. what are the 5 types of immunoglobulins? |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
-most abundant
-most of the protection against infection
-crosses placenta
-predominant in secondary response |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| most common in body secretions |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Largest in size
FIRST antibody produced during primary (initial) response |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
least abundant
-specialized for allergic responses and parasites |
|
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Term
| 6. what is the role of immunity? |
|
Definition
defense against a foreign antigen
production of memory cells
key: it has MEMORY |
|
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Term
| 6. what is primary immunity? |
|
Definition
has a latent phase of 5-7 days where b-cell differentiation occurs, allowing for clonal selection, processing of antigens, and B&T cell maturation/proliferation
first exposure: IgM detected first, then IgG
second exposure: IgG first to respond in great numbers |
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Term
| 6. What is the role of boosters for vaccination? |
|
Definition
| increase the number of memory cells and sustain protective levels of both antibodies and t-cells |
|
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Term
| 6. what is the role of humoral immunity? |
|
Definition
a form of immunity mediated by circulating antibodies (immunoglobulins IgA, IgB, and IgM), which coat the antigens and target them for destruction by polymorphonuclear neutrophils
-also activates the complement system. |
|
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Term
| 6. What is the role of cell mediated immunity? |
|
Definition
| Immune responses mediated by activated, antigen-specific T lymphocytes. These T cells may function as effector cells or may orchestrate propagation of the inflammatory response and cellular recruitment through their secretion of cytokines and chemokines |
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Term
| 6.how do attenuated vaccines work? |
|
Definition
| weakened, live virus (MMR, varicella, polio) |
|
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Term
| 6.how do recombinant vaccines work? |
|
Definition
| DNA inserted encoding of an antigen that stimulates an immune response (Hep B, HPV) |
|
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Term
| 6.how do inactivated vaccines work? |
|
Definition
| dead virus (hep A, polio (injected), influenza) |
|
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Term
| 8. Which yeields more ATP molecules, aerobic or anaerobic respiration? |
|
Definition
aerobic respiration uses oxygen and yields many more molecules
-anaerobic cellular respiration does NOT use oxygen and yields only 2 ATP molecules |
|
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Term
| 8. What is the function of ATP? |
|
Definition
| it is an energy-transferring molecule, stored in carbs, lipids, and protein |
|
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Term
| 8. What is expended for a cell to engage in active transport? |
|
Definition
| expenditure of energy, appropriate fuel, and ATP |
|
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Term
| 8. What does cancer tend to use for catabolism? |
|
Definition
| cancer prefers anaerobic glycolysis, preferring an acidic and anoxic environment that supports rapid growth of cancer |
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Term
9/43.
What are the four hypersensitivity Responses, which are mediated by antibodies, and which ones are immediate or latent? |
|
Definition
Immediate: (mediated by antibodies) -Type I: IgE mediated -Type II: Tissue Specific -Type III: Immune complex mediated
Latent: (mediated by T-lymphocytes) -Type IV: Cell mediated |
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Term
| 9.What is the role of histamine in a Type I hypersensitivity? Examples. |
|
Definition
Histamine contracts bronchi, increases vascular permeability, increases edema/vasodilation
H2 receptors provide negative feedback for mast cell degranulation
Ex.: Hay Fever |
|
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Term
| 9.What are the 5 mechanisms of TypeII hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
Determined by tissue expressing the antigen
1. Cell destroyed by antibody and complement
2. Phagocyosis by macrophages
3. Antibody and complement attract neutrophils that degranulize
4. Antibody dependent Cell-mediated toxicity (NK cells)
5. Binding of cell receptors causing malfunction |
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Term
| 9.What are examples of Type II hypersensitivity? Allergy, autoimmune, alloimmune: |
|
Definition
Allergy: drug allergy, leads to hemolysis
Autoimmune: thrombocytopenia, graves' disease
Alloimmune: hemolytic disease of the newborn, ABO mismatched transfused blood |
|
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Term
| 9.What happens in a Type III hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
Immune complex mediated, caused by soluble antigen deposits in tissue
usually these are filtered by the kidneys and cleared by macrophages |
|
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Term
| 9.What are examples of Type III hypersensitivity? Allergy, autoimmune, alloimmune: |
|
Definition
Allergy: Gluten allergy
Autoimmune: SLE (Lupus)
Alloimmune: Anaphylaxis to IgA in IV immunoglobulin, Vaccines? |
|
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Term
| 9.What happens in a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
Mediated by T-lymphocytes
Tc cells attach/kill cells directly, releasing toxins and recruit macrophages
Macrophages release: lysosomal enzymes, toxic ROS (reactive oxygen species) |
|
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Term
| 9.What are examples of Type IV hypersensitivity? Allergy, autoimmune, alloimmune: |
|
Definition
Allergy: Poison IVY
Autoimmune: Hashimoto Thyroidosis, Type I DM, Rheumatoid arthritis
Alloimmune:Graft rejection, Mantoux (TB) test |
|
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Term
| 10. What are free radicals? |
|
Definition
molecules with unpaired electron; unstable
capable of injurious chemical bonds to proteins, lipids, carbs.
-ROS is common
-polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons |
|
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Term
11
....pH = 7.56, CO2 = 28, HCO3 = 25 |
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Definition
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Term
11
....pH = 6.96, CO2 = 71, HCO3 = 16 |
|
Definition
|
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Term
11
....pH = 7.16, CO2 = 82, HCO3 = 29 |
|
Definition
| PARTLY COMPENSATED RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS |
|
|
Term
11
...pH = 7.50, CO2 = 9, HCO3 = 7 |
|
Definition
| PARTLY COMPENSATED RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS |
|
|
Term
11
....pH = 7.75, CO2 = 29, HCO3 = 40 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11
....pH = 7.33, CO2 = 66, HCO3 = 35 |
|
Definition
| PARTLY COMPENSATED RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS |
|
|
Term
11
....pH = 6.68, CO2 = 85, HCO3 = 10 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11
...pH = 7.35, CO2 = 42, HCO3 = 23 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11
...pH = 7.21, CO2 = 60, HCO3 = 24 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11
....pH = 7.48, CO2 = 19, HCO3 = 14 |
|
Definition
| PARTLY COMPENSATED RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dangerous, rare disorder caused by excessive stress |
|
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Term
12
what causes thyroid storm and what are the S/S? |
|
Definition
elevated levels of T4/T3 caused by:
infection
trauma
pulmonary/vascular/cardiac disorders
burns
seizures
surgery
emotional distress
dialysis
OB complications
S/S: high temp, high HR, dysrhythmias, agitation and delirium, N/V, diarrhea, low circulating Volume |
|
|
Term
12
What is the treatment for thyroid storm? |
|
Definition
1. propyltiouracil/methamazole
2. beta-blockers
3. steroids |
|
|
Term
1,12
Thyrotoxicosis results in... |
|
Definition
increased metabolic rate
heat intolerance
increased sensitivity of tissue to sympathetic division of ANS
Goiter
Other S/S: bone resorption (hypercalcemia), increased catabolism, hypermetabolism, increased CO, restlessness, insomnia, decreased vital capacity (weakness of respiratory muscles) |
|
|
Term
1,12
What is the cause of Graves' Disease? |
|
Definition
Type II sensitivity
stimulation of thyroid by autoantibodies (TSI-thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins) directed at TSH receptor |
|
|
Term
1,12
How do the TSIs affect the thyroid and TH? |
|
Definition
-hyperplasia of thyroid (goiter)
-increased synthesis of TH (esp T3)
(decreased TSH) |
|
|
Term
1,12
what are the 2 key S/S for graves' disease. |
|
Definition
-exopthalmos
-pretibial myxedema
=NOT REVERSIBLE with treatment |
|
|
Term
1,12
Treatment for Graves' disease? |
|
Definition
antithyroid drugs
radioactive iodine
surgery |
|
|
Term
1,12
what is the major complication for treatment of thyrotoxicosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13.
What are typical bacteria? |
|
Definition
cell wall (has peptidoglycan)
cell membrane
no nuclear membrane
reproduce by binary fission
susceptible to antibiotics, but not antifungal agents |
|
|
Term
14.
What as the difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria? |
|
Definition
gram negative bacteria have cell walls that contain lipopolysaccharides that are released during lysis of the bacteria
gram negative release endotoxins that stimulate inflammatory mediators, fever; antibiotics cannot prevent this
ex:whooping cough, H. Infl., e-coli, h-pylori |
|
|
Term
15.
what is the #1 cancer killer in the US and the world? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15.
what is the #1 environmental and occupational cause of lung cancer? |
|
Definition
asbestos
-causes mesothelioma, arises from epithelium covering the serous membrane |
|
|
Term
15.
where does lung cancer most often arise? |
|
Definition
| the epithelium of the respiratory tract |
|
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Term
15.
where is non-small cell lung cncer found?
what are the manifestations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15.
what is the most common non-small cell lung cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15.
What is the most aggressive form of lung cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15.
Where does small cell lung cancer arise from?
what risk factor is it most correlated with?
what are some chemicals it can release? |
|
Definition
arises from central part of the lung
a major risk factor is smoking
can release ACTH, aldosterone, ADH |
|
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Term
16.
Do mycoplasma bacteria have a rigid cell wall?
Are mycoplasma bacteria pleomorphic? |
|
Definition
lack rigid cell wall
small and pleomorphic (able to assume different shapes) |
|
|
Term
16.
Does mycoplasma pneumoniae cause typical or atypical pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17.
What is an endogenous virus?
give an example. |
|
Definition
A virus that stays swithin a cell for a period of latency until it is activated
i.e. herpes zoster |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
an increase in the number of circulating monocytes often seen in bacterial infections or the recovery phase of infection
-normal condition with the newborn |
|
|
Term
18.
where are monocytes created and develop? |
|
Definition
produced in the bone marrow
they develop into macrophages at the site of inflammation
-happens in TB, Endocarditis |
|
|
Term
19.
What is lymphocytosis?
when is it seen? |
|
Definition
an increase in the number of lymphocytes in the blood
-happens with thyrotoxicosis, adrenal insufficiency, and mycoplasma pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
19.
what infections and conditions most commonly show lymphocytosis? |
|
Definition
most common in acute viral infections
i.e.: epstein-barr virus, mono, CMV, pertussis; hepatitis |
|
|
Term
20.
what is eosinopenia?
what are common causes? |
|
Definition
a decrease in circulating numbers of eosinophils
i.e.: Cushing syndrome, steroids, stress; stress from shock, trauma, and burns |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
aka granulocytosis
a high number of neutrophil granulocytes in blood.
-happens in early stages of inflammation
i.e.: myelocytic leukemia, THYROID STORM, MI, DKA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
an increase in the number of white cells in the blood, especially during an infection
-normally accompanied by a 'left shift'
caused by: infection, fever, drugs, hormones, malignancies |
|
|
Term
23.
what is thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
low number of platelets
associated with: colorectal and genitourinary cancer |
|
|
Term
24.
What are interleukens? |
|
Definition
aka cytokines
produced by macrophages and lymphocytes by recognizing pathogens or in inflammation
-enhancement of the acquired immune response |
|
|
Term
24.
Give and example of a pro-inflammatory cytokine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
24.
Give an example of an anti-inflammatory cytokine. what does it do? |
|
Definition
| IL-10: suppresses growth of lymphocytes and production of proinflammatory cytokines |
|
|
Term
25.
What is interferon and what does it do? |
|
Definition
low molecular weight proteins that primarily:
-protect against VIRAL infections
-modulate inflammatory response |
|
|
Term
25.
Where are TypeI and TypeII interferon produced, respectfully? |
|
Definition
Macrophages-typeI
T-lymphocytes-typeII |
|
|
Term
25.
Do interferon kill infections directly? |
|
Definition
| NO, they merely prevent further infection of cells. |
|
|
Term
25.
What does Interferon do for the Adaptive Immune Response? |
|
Definition
Enhances its effectiveness
--Interferon is used to treat and control multiple sclerosis, an autoimmune disorder |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Series of Reactive Proteins in plasma that works with antibodies to destroy antigens
-able to destroy pathogens directly |
|
|
Term
26.
What is HSCRP and what are normal values? |
|
Definition
High Sensitivity C-Reactive Protein
Normal: 1.0-3.0mg/L |
|
|
Term
26.
Increased complement is a ______ sign for treatment working? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the passage of blood cells through the intact walls of the capillaries |
|
|
Term
26.
Complement works with every other component of the inflammatory response (T or F) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| identifying the invading particle to the phagocyte |
|
|
Term
26.
What are the 3 ways the Complement cascade is activated? |
|
Definition
Classic(75%): antibodies bound to antigens
Lectin(24%): Mannose-containing bacterial carbohydrates
Alternative(1%): Polysaccharides found on cell walls of fungus and gram Neg bacteria |
|
|
Term
26.
What are the Four functions of Complement? |
|
Definition
-Anaphylactic activity
-Leukocyte chemotaxis
-Opsonization-by neutrophils and macrophages
-Cell Lysis-proenzymes then destroy cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Series of Reactive Proteins in plasma that works with antibodies to destroy antigens
-able to destroy pathogens directly |
|
|
Term
26.
What is HSCRP and what are normal values? |
|
Definition
High Sensitivity C-Reactive Protein
Normal: 1.0-3.0mg/L |
|
|
Term
26.
Increased complement is a ______ sign for treatment working? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the passage of blood cells through the intact walls of the capillaries |
|
|
Term
26.
Complement works with every other component of the inflammatory response (T or F) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| identifying the invading particle to the phagocyte |
|
|
Term
26.
What are the 3 ways the Complement cascade is activated? |
|
Definition
Classic(75%): antibodies bound to antigens
Lectin(24%): Mannose-containing bacterial carbohydrates
Alternative(1%): Polysaccharides found on cell walls of fungus and gram Neg bacteria |
|
|
Term
26.
What are the Four functions of Complement? |
|
Definition
-Anaphylactic activity
-Leukocyte chemotaxis
-Opsonization-by neutrophils and macrophages
-Cell Lysis-proenzymes then destroy cells |
|
|
Term
27.
What allow malignant cells direct access into the venous blood and lympatics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
27.
What is tissue selectivity in relation to cancer and neovascularization? |
|
Definition
different types of cancer tend to only grow and metastasize to certain tissues
i.e.: lymphomas spread to spleen but not bone |
|
|
Term
28.
What is another name for immunotransmitters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
28/40.
Are cytokines pro- or anti- inflammatory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
28/40.
what is the role of the cytokine? |
|
Definition
mediates interactions between cells to kill bacteria
-involved in inflammatory and immune response |
|
|
Term
28/40.
what are the 3 types of cytokines? |
|
Definition
-interleukins
-TNF (alpha)
-Interferon |
|
|
Term
28/40.
what cell secretes cytokines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
28/40.
are cytokines involved in fever? |
|
Definition
| yes, TNF alpha is an endogenous pyrogen |
|
|
Term
29.
What is immune specificity? |
|
Definition
| each T or B cell recognizes only one antigen, but together they recognize a host of foreign antigens (adaptive immunity) |
|
|
Term
29.
What is the key feature about the immune response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
30.
What are the two key features of a stem cell? |
|
Definition
self-renew: some fraction fo the cell divisions create new stem cells
multi-potent: ability to differentiate into multiple different cell types |
|
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
31.
what is the role of the plasma cell? |
|
Definition
| factory-secretes a single class or subclass of antibody with one variable region-specific to one antigenic determinant |
|
|
Term
31.
What are the two mediators of humoral immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
32.
What does humoral immunity protect against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
33.
What is the term used to describe proteins found on the surface of lymphocytes or other cells? |
|
Definition
| Clusters of differentiation |
|
|
Term
34.
What is the leading cause of pediatric acquired heart disorders in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
34.
What is Kawasaki disease? |
|
Definition
Cardiovascular disease characterized by:
-inflamed heart and vessels
-coronary artery aneurysm
-thickening and stenosis
=self limiting
=may result in cardiac sequelae |
|
|
Term
34.
What are signs/symptoms needed to diagnose Kawasaki disease? |
|
Definition
*Fever for 5 days, unresponsive to Abx
*4/5 of the following:
-Bilateral conjunctivitis without exudation
-erythema of oral mucosa (strawberry tongue)
-changes in epithelium in extremities: edema, erythema, rash, peeling skin
-polymorphous rash to perineum
-lymphadenopathy |
|
|
Term
34.
What are the stages to Kawasaki disease? |
|
Definition
I (0 - 12 days): inflammation of capillaries, venuoles, arterioles, and heart
II (12-35days): inflammation of larger vessels, coronary aneurysms
III (26-40days): medium-sized arteries begin granulation process, small vessel inflammation decreases
IV( >40days): scarring of vessels, thickening of tunic intima, calcification, coronary artery stenosis |
|
|
Term
35.
What cardiac syndrome is associated with delections on chroosome 22 and DiGeorge syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
35.
what four defects are associated with Tetraolgy of Fallot? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
35.
What is the overriding problem associated with tetralogy of Fallot? |
|
Definition
| low oxygenation of blood via the ventricular septal defect (VSD), preferntial flow of the mixed blood from both ventricles through the aorta [flow obstructed via the pulmonary valve] |
|
|
Term
35.
how is tetralogy of Fallot corrected? |
|
Definition
-patch closure of the VSD
-resection of infundibular or valvular stenosis
-augmentation of the right ventricle outflow tract |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inability to suppress secretion of ADH (excessive secretion)
excess blood volume leads to decreased sodium concentration in blood |
|
|
Term
36.
Where is ADH produced and released? |
|
Definition
produced in hypothalamus
released by pituitary gland |
|
|
Term
36.
Is there edema with SIADH? |
|
Definition
| no edema, but there is volume expansion and hypertension |
|
|
Term
36.
what are the causes of SIADH? |
|
Definition
small cell lung cancer is common
also related to: infection, trauma, guillan Barre', MS, surgery, Lung Ca, GI Ca, GU Ca, lymphoma, Ewing's Sarcoma, pulmonary infections and asthma, and multiple types of drugs |
|
|
Term
36.
What is the treatment for SIADH? |
|
Definition
Diet:
fluid restriction
Increased Na+ intake |
|
|
Term
36.
what is a common cause of irreversible damage related to SIADH? |
|
Definition
| If serum Na+ drops too low, irreversible damage may occur |
|
|
Term
36.
What is required to diagnose SIADH? |
|
Definition
1. decreased serum osmolality, decreased serum Na+
2. increased urine osmolarity
3. urine Na+ = oral Na+ intake
4. normal renal, adrenal, and tyroid function
5. absence of conditions that cause increased or decreased volume status |
|
|
Term
35.
What is the overriding problem associated with tetralogy of Fallot? |
|
Definition
| low oxygenation of blood via the ventricular septal defect (VSD), preferntial flow of the mixed blood from both ventricles through the aorta [flow obstructed via the pulmonary valve] |
|
|
Term
35.
how is tetralogy of Fallot corrected? |
|
Definition
-patch closure of the VSD
-resection of infundibular or valvular stenosis
-augmentation of the right ventricle outflow tract |
|
|
Term
37.
What is the 2nd leading cause of death (second to prematurity) in the first year of life. |
|
Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
38.
define psychoneuroimmunology |
|
Definition
| study of the interaction of consciousness, brain, and spinal cord, and the body's defenses against external infection and abnormal cell division |
|
|
Term
38.
what is the association between stress and adverse heart effects? |
|
Definition
MI:increased BP during periods of mental or acute emotional stress with increased myocardial oxygen demand
LVD:increase in sudden CP and SOB after acute emotional stress or trauma, r/t cortisol and HPA axis response
Ventricular Dysrhythmias: acute strees precipitates 20% of serious ventricular dysrhythmias |
|
|
Term
39.
What type of immunity is mediated by T-cells (t-lymphocytes)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
39.
What antibodies are involved in cell-mediated immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
39.
Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for defending against what types of pathogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
39.
What are the functions of t-cells in cell-mediated immunity? |
|
Definition
-direct killing of foreign cells, including those infected by virus or cancerous [mediated by cytotoxic t-cells]
-assist or activate other cells to secrete cytokines (such as macrophages) |
|
|
Term
39.
what is the role of cytotoxic cells in cell-mediated immunity? |
|
Definition
| attack and kill targets directly (viruses or cancer), or inhibit virus-infected cells |
|
|
Term
39.
what is the role of t-reg cells in cell-mediated immunity? |
|
Definition
| prevent attack of self antigens and restrict immune response |
|
|
Term
39.
what is the role of memory t-cells in cell-mediated immunity? |
|
Definition
| - induce secondary cell-mediated immune response |
|
|
Term
3.
levels of what neurotransmitters are decreased in depression? |
|
Definition
at least one of three of the following:
serotonin
norepinephrine
dopamine |
|
|
Term
3.
What are 3 catecholamines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3.
What is chronically activated in debression? |
|
Definition
HPA axis
-hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal |
|
|
Term
3.
What is the relationship between glutamate and GABA? |
|
Definition
Both are neurotransmitters
Glutamate is a stress modulatory
GABA inhibits glutamate |
|
|
Term
13.
what is the distinction regarding atypical bacteria? |
|
Definition
| they cannot be stained by gram staining |
|
|
Term
16.
Are mycoplasma bacteria typical or atypical bacteria?
can the be phagocytized? |
|
Definition
atypical bacteria
no, they cannot be phagocytized |
|
|
Term
41.
what are protease inhibitors? |
|
Definition
antiviral drugs to treat HIV/AIDS and hepatitis caused by hepatitis C virus.
-prevent viral replication by selectively binding to viral proteases (e.g. HIV-1 protease) and blocking proteolytic cleavage of protein precursors |
|
|
Term
41.
what type of reaction is a wheal and flare reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
42.
what are symptoms of a wheal and flare reaction?
what type of hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
localized release of histamine, urticaria, white fluid-filled blisters(wheals) and redness(flare)
Type I hypersensitivity |
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