Term
| Concerning snake envenomation: |
|
Definition
| Coagulopathy is the commonest important, systemic clinical syndrome caused by snake envenoming in the world. |
|
|
Term
| Which filarial parasite is Wolbachia free? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Visiting Chile and eating local food. 10 years later dysphagia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Causes of erythema nodosum include all but the following:
Doxycycline
Dapsone
TB
Mycoplasma Pneumonia
Sarcoidosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Praziquantel is the drug of choice for the following infection:
Paragonomiaisis
Strongyloidiasis
Guinea worm
Lymphatic filariasis
Visceral leishmaniasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ethiopian child of 5 diagnosed with Noma. Looks like mucocutaneous leishmaniais but why can't it be? |
|
Definition
| Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is restricted to South America |
|
|
Term
| Regarding cholera and adjunct therapy in <5 years old: |
|
Definition
| Zinc is an important adjunctive therapy for children under 5 |
|
|
Term
The following helminths have no intermediate host in their life cycle:
Select one:
Brugia malayi
Diphylobothrium latum
Opistorchis viverini
Necator americanus
Taenia solium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False?
Infections such as measles, mumps, rubella and chronic otitis media are responsible for approximately two thirds of preventable hearing loss |
|
Definition
False
The WHO states that infections such as mumps, measles, rubella, meningitis, cytomegalovirus infections, and chronic otitis media cause 31% of preventable hearing loss. |
|
|
Term
Cutaneous anthrax tends to occur in areas where the skin is abraded or cut, allowing penetration and localized infection. Describes pathophysiology.
Note that the skin lesion is characteristically non-pruritic and non-purulent. |
|
Definition
| After 1–5 days, a small erythematous papule develops at the site of inoculation and develops into a vesicle containing serosanguineous fluid. The vesicle ruptures forming a central necrotic ulcer. There may be surrounding peripheral vesicles. Ulcer evolves into a central black eschar over 1/52. The eschar separates after 1–2/52 leaving a scar. The lesion is surrounded by oedema. Patients often have fever, malaise and headache. |
|
|
Term
| How can plague be transmitted? |
|
Definition
| directly from person to person by pneumonic cases |
|
|
Term
| In the anopheline mosquito, malarial parasites will only develop if... |
|
Definition
| male and female gametocytes are ingested |
|
|
Term
clinical features of severe malaria are
GCS<11
multiple convulsions
SBP <80. CRT >3S
Pulmonary oedema/ARDs
Abnormal bleeding
Jaundice
What are laboratory features of severe malaria? |
|
Definition
Severe anaemia <8g
Hypoglycaemia <2.2
Acidosis: pH 7.3, BE >8, HCO-3 <15
Raised lactate >5
Renal impairment CR >265
Parasiteamia >10% |
|
|
Term
Meningococcal meningitis in Africa...
There are 12 serogroups of Neisseria meningitidis that have been identified. How many can cause epidemics? |
|
Definition
| 6 of which can cause epidemics |
|
|
Term
| What does Bitot's spot signifiy? |
|
Definition
| This abnormality is an important sign for diagnosing vitamin A deficiency |
|
|
Term
| How can Aedes be differentiated from Culex and Anopheline species? |
|
Definition
| by the angle of the proboscis relative to the body |
|
|
Term
| 30 yr old male from Sudan moved to the UK 6 months ago. PC: 2/12 history of weight loss, night sweats and fever. He has developed abdominal swelling too. On examination, his liver is enlarged 4 cm below the costal margin, and his spleen is palpable just to the left of the umbilicus. Pancytopenia. What is the diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| Visceral leishmaniasis is the most likely diagnosis giving the duration of his symptoms, hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia. The incubation period for Visceral leishmaniasis is 2 to 8 months. |
|
|
Term
| The risk from rabies in the traveller.... |
|
Definition
| is higher in children than in adults |
|
|
Term
| Buruli ulcer is caused by.... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Breast feeding is contraindicated
when the mother has lepromatous leprosy
when the mother is receiving carbimazole
after caesarian section
when the mother is being treated for open tuberculosis
when the mother has mastitis |
|
Definition
| when the mother is receiving carbimazole |
|
|
Term
| On the Mazzotti reaction: |
|
Definition
| Symptoms of this reaction can include exacerbation of eye lesions, skin rashes, fever, respiratory distress and shock |
|
|
Term
| What reaction can occur in patients being treated with Diethylcarbamazine (DEC) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
regarding malaria definitions
The parasite formula refers to .... |
|
Definition
| the qualitative distribution of different parasite subspecies in an infected individual |
|
|
Term
Which of the following infections is transmitted by body lice:
Borrelia burgdorferi infection
Tulaeremia
Scrub typhus
Borrelia recurrentis infection
Listeria monocytogenes infection |
|
Definition
| Borrelia recurrentis infection |
|
|
Term
| Splenic rupture is a rare complication in which malaria? |
|
Definition
| Plasmodium vivax infection. |
|
|
Term
| In East African (Rhodesian) trypanosomiasis how is the disease maintained? |
|
Definition
in nonhuman reservoirs
The transmission cycle of T. b. rhodesiense mainly involves the transmission between nonhuman reservoirs through the tsetse fly, but occasionally humans can be included in the cycle, although their role as reservoirs is limited |
|
|
Term
An adult patient is found to have a mass in the liver. Which parasite might be responsible?
Necator americanus
Trichuris trichiura
Leishmania donovani
Entamoeba coli
Echinococcus granulosus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The dog is not a reservoir of the following zoonosis:
Select one:
Hydatid disease
Rabies
Kala-azar
Paragonomiasis
Leptospirosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In measles why can vaccine efficacy not be calculated |
|
Definition
| because cases cannot be accurately defined |
|
|
Term
The following organisms are correctly paired with their usual reservoirs:
Select one:
Yellow fever virus and Culex sp mosquitoes
Leishmania donovani and Phlebotomus argentipes Culicoides impunctatus is the Scottish Highland midge. Leishmania is transmitted by sand flies (Phlebotomus sp and Lutzomyia sp)
Borrelia duttonii and Pediculus humanus corporis.
Borrelia recurrentis and Ornithodoros moubata
Onchorca volvulus and Simulium sp |
|
Definition
| Onchorca volvulus and Simulium sp |
|
|
Term
| directly observed therapy short course (DOTS) therapy can be given.... |
|
Definition
| Can be given as a three times weekly regimen |
|
|
Term
On pulmonary cavitation (select the incorrect statement):
Select one:
Chronic necrotising aspergillosis or semi-invasive aspergillosis is associated with pulmonary cavities.
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is associated with pulmonary cavities.
In patients infected with Burkholderia pseudomallei, presenting with acute pulmonary disease, cavitation is relatively common.
Cavitary lesions in paragonomiasis are common.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is classically associated with cavitary pulmonary disease. |
|
Definition
| Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is associated with pulmonary cavities. |
|
|
Term
| Concerning the tuberculin test: |
|
Definition
| It relies on the fact that cell-mediated hypersensitivity develops after infection with M. tuberculosis |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not associated with persistent diarrhoea?
Select one:
Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia intestinalis
Tropical sprue
Schistosomiasis
Cholera |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common cause of mortality with scorpion bites |
|
Definition
| Respiratory arrest and loss of protective airway reflexes are common causes of mortality |
|
|
Term
On leprosy, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Select one:
Tuberculoid type leprosy is characterised by asymmetrical peripheral nerve lesions
Type I reactions typically occur within the first 6 months after the start of multi drug therapy (MDT)
The incubation period of leprosy is less than 5 years.
Leprosy is likely transmitted via droplets, from the nose and mouth, during close and frequent contacts with untreated cases
Tuberculoid type is characterised by strong cell-mediated immunity to Mycobacterium leprae |
|
Definition
incorrect answer is...
The incubation period of leprosy is less than 5 years. |
|
|
Term
For which of the following diseases has the WHO declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)
Select one:
MERS-CoV
Mad cow disease
MDR-Tb
Nipah virus infection
H1N1 influenza A (swine flu) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a recognised feature of onchocerciasis?
Select one:
Keratitis
Lymphadenopathy
Calabar swelling
"Hanging groin"
Depigmentation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All but which of these infections are zoonotic?
Select one:
Plasmodium knowlesi malaria This parasite commonly infects macaque monkeys but is also frequently found in humans.
HIV infection
Brucellosis
Leptospirosis
Leishmania infantum visceral leishmaniasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In an outbreak of acute diarrhoea in a refugee camp in Bangladesh:
Select one:
the presence of non-bloody stools with fever would be consistent with enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli infection
the presence of bloody stools and fever would be consistent with cholera
the presence of bloody stools without fever would be consistent giardiasis
the presence of bloody stools and fever would be consistent with bacillary dysentery
the presence of bloody stools and fever would be consistent with Cryptosporidium sp infection |
|
Definition
| the presence of bloody stools and fever would be consistent with bacillary dysentery |
|
|
Term
| In visceral leishmaniasis splenomegaly is present in .... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the helminth that does not form cysts in the tissues of human
Select one:
Taenia saginata
Echinococcus granulosus
Taenia solium
Spirometra mansoni
Trichinella spiralis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the survival rate of treated Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense infection?
Select one:
75%
95%
50%
5%
10% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| neck rigidity and photophobia are not usually seen. |
|
|
Term
Foetal birth weight is not influenced by the following factors:
Select one:
first trimester rubella infection
maternal height
gestational age
multiple pregnancy
maternal smoking |
|
Definition
| first trimester rubella infection |
|
|
Term
Which of the following haemorrhagic fevers is not transmitted by an arthropod?
Select one:
Rift Valley Fever
Yellow fever
Crimean-Congo Haemorrhagic Fever
Lassa fever
dengue fever |
|
Definition
Lassa fever
Usually transmitted through contact with rodent excreta but human to human transmission can also occur |
|
|
Term
| MDA in filarial infections? |
|
Definition
Albendazole plus either ivermectin or DEC as a single oral dose.
Repeated annually for five years |
|
|
Term
| In sub Saharan Africa why is endemic and chronic hepatitis B infection established in early childhood |
|
Definition
| because there is an absence of effective prophylaxis |
|
|
Term
| Hepatosplenomegaly is a common clinical feature in..... |
|
Definition
| congenital syphilis in infants |
|
|
Term
| Vertical transmission is related to the stage of maternal syphilis. Which stage is associated with highest transmission? |
|
Definition
| early syphilis and specifically, secondary syphilis |
|
|
Term
Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly are characteristically present in
Select one:
Hydatid disease
Kwashiorkor
Schistosomiasis
Toxocariasis
Amoebic liver abscess |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum be prevented? |
|
Definition
| by irrigating eyes of all newborn babies with povidone-iodine solution immediately after delivery, repeated once within first postnatal day |
|
|
Term
| The recommended treatment for gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum .... |
|
Definition
| single dose of IM ceftriaxone (50 mg/kg of bodyweight, maximum 125 mg) |
|
|
Term
| In sub Saharan Africa why is endemic and chronic hepatitis B infection established in early childhood |
|
Definition
| because there is an absence of effective prophylaxis |
|
|
Term
| Hepatosplenomegaly is a common clinical feature in..... |
|
Definition
| congenital syphilis in infants |
|
|
Term
| Vertical transmission is related to the stage of maternal syphilis. Which stage is associated with highest transmission? |
|
Definition
| early syphilis and specifically, secondary syphilis |
|
|
Term
Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly are characteristically present in
Select one:
Hydatid disease
Kwashiorkor
Schistosomiasis
Toxocariasis
Amoebic liver abscess |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum be prevented? |
|
Definition
| by irrigating eyes of all newborn babies with povidone-iodine solution immediately after delivery, repeated once within first postnatal day |
|
|
Term
| The recommended treatment for gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum .... |
|
Definition
| single dose of IM ceftriaxone (50 mg/kg of bodyweight, maximum 125 mg) |
|
|
Term
| when is the risk for transmitting HIV highest? |
|
Definition
| Highest risk for sexual transmission occurs during HIV seroconversion |
|
|
Term
Which of the following infections is transmitted by ticks?
Select one:
Dengue fever
Lyme disease
Japanese encephalitis
Leptospirosis
Scrub typhus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following are correct pairs of organisms and hosts:
Select one:
Salmonella typhi and chickens
Taenia solium cysticerci and cows
Echinococcus granulosus adults and canines
Schistosoma haematobium and Biomphalariasnails
Dengue viruses and rodents |
|
Definition
| Echinococcus granulosus adults and canines |
|
|
Term
| After the bite of an Asian cobra what can happen in the first 6 hours? |
|
Definition
| respiratory paralysis may occur in the first six hours |
|
|
Term
| A patient with borderline leprosy develops tender nerves. You would |
|
Definition
| start prednisolone therapy |
|
|
Term
| A low height for age indicates .... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In severe falciparum malaria hypoglycaemia may be aggravated by treatment .. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| often preceded by the death of rats in the area |
|
|
Term
| In Verruga Peruana, the second stage of Carrión's disease what can be used as a treatment? |
|
Definition
Rifampicin monotherapy can be used to treat this infection.
The first acute stage is known as Oroya Fever. Caused by Bartonella bacilliformis |
|
|
Term
The following techniques are preferred for diagnosis:
Select one:
malarial serology in acute malaria
blood film examination for Gambian sleeping sickness
stool examination in hydatid disease
amoebic serology in amoebic liver abscess
jejunal biopsy in visceral leishmaniasis |
|
Definition
| amoebic serology in amoebic liver abscess |
|
|
Term
| How often should a long-lasting insecticide treated bed net be replaced? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following parasites life cycles does not include an essential snail intermediate host?
Select one:
Opisthorchis viverrini
Schistosoma haematobium
Paragonimus westermani
Fasciola hepatica
Gnathostoma spinigerum |
|
Definition
| Gnathostoma spinigerum - parasitic worm infection |
|
|
Term
Penicillin is the drug of choice for the treatment of
Select one:
Gonorrhoea cause by B-lactamase producing N.gonorrhoea
Lymphogranuloma venereum
Chlamydial urethritis
Granuloma inguinale
Neurosyphillis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true of malaria prophylaxis recommendation in the UK?
Select one:
In some countries, only protective wear and mosquito repellent is recommended.
Chloroquine cannot be purchased without prescription
Anti-malarial vaccine is recommended for all travellers
Doxycycline is not used because it is ineffective against malaria as it is an antibiotic
Doxycycline is available over the counter |
|
Definition
| In some countries, only protective wear and mosquito repellent is recommended. |
|
|
Term
| A returning traveller (visiting Tanzania) presents to your clinic with the above lesion on their right foot. What is the most likely diagnosis?[image] |
|
Definition
| Cutaneous myiasis, likely to be caused by Cordylobia anthropophaga. |
|
|
Term
Chorioretinitis in West Africa is not caused by
Select one:
onchocerciasis
toxocariasis
haemoglobin S-C disesase
rubella
congenital toxoplasmosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In Trypanosoma cruzi infection, the human blood stage is a trypomastigote.
What are the 2 insect stages
What are the 2 human stages? |
|
Definition
the insect stage are spheromastigote, then epimastigote,
the human stages are trypomastigote and amastigote (in tissues).
Promastigote is the stage of the Leishmania parasite in the salivary glands of the sand fly, injected into the human host during a blood meal. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following measures is the most useful in the control of onchocerciasis?
Select one:
felling trees along river banks at sites of man/fly contact
selected use of an anti-onchocercal vaccine
mass treatment with diethylcarbamazine
isolation of human cases
spraying breeding sites of Simulium with insecticide |
|
Definition
| spraying breeding sites of Simulium with insecticide |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of traveller's diarrhoea?
Select one:
Giardia intestinalis
Entamoeba histolytica
Norovirus
Enterotoxic Escherichia coli
Vibrio cholerae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The CCHF virus is transmitted to people ... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a complication of lepromatous leprosy?
Select one:
osteitis
erythema nodosum leprosum
blindness
reversal reaction
ulceration |
|
Definition
| reversal reaction, osteitis |
|
|
Term
Which of the following viruses typically gives rise to persistent or latent infection in man:
Select one:
Zika virus
Yellow fever
Varicella zoster
Hantan
Hepatitis A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do hookworms cause anaemia? |
|
Definition
| The adult worms release hyaluronidase, which degrades intestinal mucosa and erodes blood vessels, resulting in blood loss. They also ingest some blood. |
|
|
Term
| how to treat hookworm anaemia? |
|
Definition
| responds readily to oral iron |
|
|
Term
| This reaction occurs within 24 hours after antibiotic treatment of spirochaetal infections |
|
Definition
| Jarish-Herxheimer reaction |
|
|
Term
Which of the following vaccines is a live attenuated preparation?
Select one:
Meningococcal meningitis vaccine
Tetanus vaccine
Hepatitis B vaccine
Measles vaccine
Pertussis vaccine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Genital ulcers are associated with all but which of the following infections:
Select one:
Syphillis
Gonorrhea
Herpes simplex
Granuloma inguinale
Chancroid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Genital ulcers are associated with all but which of the following infections:
Select one:
Syphillis
Gonorrhea
Herpes simplex
Granuloma inguinale
Chancroid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ART should be started in all TB patients living with HIV regardless of their CD4 cell count |
|
|
Term
| Standard doses of ethmabutol can cause retinol damage? |
|
Definition
False
High doses of ethambutol can cause retinal damage |
|
|
Term
The consumption of inadequately cooked fish can result in infection with
Select one:
Giardia lamblia
Taenia saginata
Clonorchis sinensis
Entamoeba histolytica
Ascaris lumbricoides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is more common in which of the following countries:
Select one:
Chile
Brazil
Argentina
Paraguay
Ecuador |
|
Definition
Brazil.
Almost 90% of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis cases occur in Bolivia, Brazil and Peru. |
|
|
Term
Active immunisation is of protective value immediately after exposure to
Select one:
Hepatitis C virus
Measles virus
Rubella virus
Clostridium tetani
Neisseria meningitides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Liposomal amphotericin B is used to treat
Select one:
Onchocerciasis
Trichomonas vaginalis infection
Visceral leishmaniasis
T.b. gambiense second stage infection
Cryptosporidium sp. infections |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rx of choice for Cryptosporidium sp. infections |
|
Definition
| Nitazoxanide is the drug of choice for cryptosporidiosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Rifampicin (600 mg once a month)
Dapsone (100 mg daily)
Clofazimine (300 mg once a month and 50 mg daily) for 12 months. |
|
|
Term
The skin is not the usual portal of entry for the following parasite:
Select one:
Ankylostoma duodenale
Strongyloides stercoralis
Trypanosoma cruzi
Schistosoma japonicum
Paragonimus westermani |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
One of the following drugs is not correctly paired with one of their major toxic effects:
Select one:
primaquine and hepatitis
pentamidine and diabetes mellitus
chloroquine and retinopathy
suramin and nephritis
melarsoprol and encephalopathy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pentamidine a/w which complication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chloroquine can cause which eye problem? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| suramin a/w which complication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| melarsoprol a/w which complication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which sprue a/w fat malabsorbtion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Carrion's Disease is another name for Oroya fever. how is it transmitteD? |
|
Definition
| It is transmitted by sandflies of the genus Lutzomyia |
|
|
Term
| Regarding diphtheria how is active immunity gained in tropical countries? |
|
Definition
| Skin infection with Corynebacterium diphtheriaeis an important source of active immunity in children in tropical countries |
|
|
Term
| Infection with Loa loa is characteristically associated with... |
|
Definition
| Calabar swellings - transient subcutaneous swelling marking the migratory course through the tissues of adult Loa loa worms |
|
|
Term
Infection with Strongyloides stercoralis
Select one:
only affects children
may cause a syndrome of cough and eosinophilia during the state of larval migration
always causes and intensely itchy rash at the site of larval penetration
is particularly common where people and pigs share living spaces
is commonly acquired by drinking contaminated water |
|
Definition
| may cause a syndrome of cough and eosinophilia during the state of larval migration |
|
|
Term
Select the infection that is transmitted by the faecal-oral route:
Select one:
Paragonomiasis
Plague
Rift Valley Fever
Typhoid
Schistosomiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Regarding tetanus:
Select one:
Tetanus infection confers robust immunity
Generalised tetanus, in which all muscle groups are affected, is very rare
Tetanus toxin binds to post-synaptic membranes at neuromuscular junctions
Benzodiazepines are the first-line therapy for spasm control in most countries.
Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming aerobic gram-positive bacillus |
|
Definition
| Benzodiazepines are the first-line therapy for spasm control in most countries. |
|
|
Term
Recognised causes of cutaneous larva migrans include:
Select one or more:
Schistosoma haematobium
Onchocera volvulus
Wuchereria bancrofti
Ankylostoma caninum
Trichuris trichiuria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On Aedes albopictus what does it transmit? |
|
Definition
| Aedes albopictus transmits yellow fever virus. |
|
|
Term
| This painless and odourless ulcer presents on the knee of a teenage boy in Ghana. He reports living near a river. The boy reports no other symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?[image] |
|
Definition
| Buruli Ulcer. The floor of the ulcer may have a white, cotton-wool-like appearance. The ulcer is painless and odourless unless there is secondary bacterial infection. Caused by Mycobacterium ulcerans. Risk factors include proximity to a body of water and failure to wear covering clothing. |
|
|
Term
On diagnosis of tuberculosis
Select one:
Chest x-ray is always necessary for the diagnosis of tuberculosis.
Molecular diagnostics are only useful in a research setting
False negative and false positive tuberculin skin test results are uncommon.
At least 2 sputum samples should be examined microscopically for AAFB in any patient who has been coughing for 3 weeks.
The GeneXpert needs to be operated by highly trained laboratory technicians |
|
Definition
At least 2 sputum samples should be examined microscopically for AAFB in any patient who has been coughing for 3 weeks.
Anyone can be trained to use geneexpert |
|
|
Term
Sodium stibogluconate is a suitable drug for treating
Select one:
Hydatid disease
Schistosomiasis
Visceral leishmaniasis
African trypanosomiasis
Hepatic amoebiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Paragonimus westermani infection Rx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On Paragonimus westermani infection:
Select one:
Ivermectin is the drug of choice to treat this infection Praziquantel is used to treat paragonomiasis.
Time from infection to oviposition is 15 - 20 days
Pickling crab or crayfish kills metacercariae present in these intermediate hosts.
It causes hepato-cellular carcinoma in West Africa
The life cycle of this parasite includes two intermediate hosts |
|
Definition
| The life cycle of this parasite includes two intermediate hosts |
|
|
Term
Extra-intestinal amoebiasis can be caused by infection with
Select one:
Iodamoeba butschlii
Entamoeba coli
Isospora belli
Entamoeba histolytica
Entamoeba polecki |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Case-control studies should include two groups that are ........ EXCEPT for their outcome / disease status. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following drugs or drug combinations is used to produce a radical cure of infection with Plasmodium vivax:
Select one:
Tafenoquine
Primaquine
Chloroquine and primaquine
Chloroquine and ACT
Quinine sulfate plus doxycycline |
|
Definition
| Chloroquine and primaquine |
|
|
Term
Which of the following further investigations should not be forgotten in patients with Chagas disease?
Select one:
Electrocardiogram
Electroencephalogram
Echocardiogram
Barium meal
Barium swallow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following interventions is of proven value in controlling falciparum malaria in endemic regions:
Select one:
Vaccination of pregnant women against malaria
Community wide use of pyrethroid impregnated bed nets
Chlorination of drinking water
Population based prophylactic treatment
Mass treatment with primaquine |
|
Definition
| Community wide use of pyrethroid impregnated bed nets, Population based prophylactic treatment |
|
|
Term
| This lesion presents in the groin area of a patient that recently returned from an extended trip around South East Asia. What is the most likely diagnosis?[image] |
|
Definition
| Scrub typhus is difficult to diagnose as the presentation is very non-specific. An eschar at the site of bite is pathognomic and the single most useful diagnostic clue. |
|
|
Term
HIV transmission to a healthcare worker is most likely following:
Select one:
Spital from a HIV positive person onto intact skin
Injury from hollow-bore needle used to draw blood from a patient with HIV seroconversion illness
Sharing a room with an HIV positive person that is coughing
Blood splash into eye following venesection from HIV positive patient
Needlestick injury incurred whilst suturing an HIV positive person with fully suppressed viral load on anti-retroviral therapy |
|
Definition
| Injury from hollow-bore needle used to draw blood from a patient with HIV seroconversion illness |
|
|
Term
| What is the WHO recommended duration for the treatment of patients with confirmed rifampicin-susceptible and isoniazid-resistant tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In immunisation programmes:
Select one:
Diphteria/pertussis/tetanus vaccine is contraindicated in children with cerebral palsy
BCG vaccination is contraindicated in infants of HIV-positive mothers
oral poliomyelitis vaccine cannot cause paralytic poliomyelitis
Hepatitis B vaccine should be stored at minus 20C
measles vaccine produces seroconversion in over 90% of recipients if given at the age of 9 months |
|
Definition
| measles vaccine produces seroconversion in over 90% of recipients if given at the age of 9 months |
|
|
Term
Which of the following helminths are correctly paired with a mechanism by which they may cause disease in humans?
Select one:
Ascaris and blood loss
Schistosoma mansoni and pulmonary hypertension
Paragonimus and ascending cholangitis
Hook worms and intestinal obstruction
Echinococcus granulosus and malabsorption |
|
Definition
| Schistosoma mansoni and pulmonary hypertension |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the intermediate host of Schistosoma mansoni? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| intermediate host for Schistosoma haematobium and Schistosoma intercalatum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which country can both the T.b. gambiense and T.b. rhodesiense forms of trypanosomiasis be found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the Indian subcontinent, transmission of Leishmania donovani is anthroponotic. What does this mean? |
|
Definition
| Anthroponotic refers to transmission of Leishmania from an infected human being, where humans act as reservoirs of the disease. |
|
|
Term
In the Indian subcontinent, transmission of Leishmania donovani is anthroponotic. Anthroponotic is best described as which of the following:
Select one:
Swine---Sandfly---Human transmission
Rodent---Sandfly---Human transmission
Human---Sandfly---Human transmission
Cow---Sandfly---Human transmission
Dog---Sandfly---Human transmission |
|
Definition
| Human---Sandfly---Human transmission |
|
|
Term
| On Strongyloides stercoralis infection the infective larvae are .... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On Strongyloides stercoralis what role do rhabditiform larvae play? |
|
Definition
| The rhabditiform larvae can either be passed in the stool or can cause autoinfection |
|
|
Term
On Strongyloides stercoralis infection:
Select one:
Ivermectin is not recommended for the treatment of hyper-infection syndrome
The intermediate host for Strongyloides stercoralis is the cat
Corticosteroid use can lead to hyperinfection syndrome, dissemination, and death if unrecognised.
Rhabditiform larvae are the normal infectious life cycle stage.
Diethylcarbamazine is the first line treatment for Strongyloides stercoralis infection |
|
Definition
| Corticosteroid use can lead to hyperinfection syndrome, dissemination, and death if unrecognised. |
|
|
Term
[image]
Which of the following is true for the patient in this photograph |
|
Definition
| This patient was most likely the victim of a viper bite |
|
|
Term
Common features in elapid snake bites.
Elapid include cobras and coral snakes |
|
Definition
| Ptosis, frothing at mouth and drowsiness are common complications |
|
|
Term
Regarding HIV
Select one:
Men who have sex with men are the key population where new infections are occurring globally
The number of new cases of HIV / year globally has been static over the last decade
Due to improved access to diagnostics globally 90% of people living with HIV know their status
The country with the highest prevalence of HIV in adults (aged 15-49) is Botswana at 21.9%
HIV is more prevalent in men than women |
|
Definition
| The country with the highest prevalence of HIV in adults (aged 15-49) is Botswana at 21.9% |
|
|
Term
| Which country has the highest prevalence of HIV? |
|
Definition
| The country with the highest prevalence of HIV in adults (aged 15-49) is Botswana at 21.9% |
|
|
Term
Post kala azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL)
Select one:
is associated with Leishmania mexicana
is caused by a reaction to dead leishmania
is associated with an enormous number of life leishmania parasites in the skin
is associated with multiple itchy and ulcerative skin lesions
only occurs in chronic cases of kala azar |
|
Definition
is associated with an enormous number of life leishmania parasites in the skin
PDDL occurs 2-10 years after completion of treatment in cases of visceral leishmaniasis (Leishmania donovani). Accessible life parasites in the skin serve as ideal human reservoir. Clinically, the condition in non ulcerative but may be very itchy. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements best describes Hepatitis E
Select one:
It was previously known as non-A non-B hepatitis
Is associated with high mortality during third-trimester pregnancy
Is very rare in the UK
Does not cause chronic hepatitis
Is most commonly acquired through sexual transmission |
|
Definition
| Is associated with high mortality during third-trimester pregnancy |
|
|
Term
Melioidosis is chiefly acquired
Select one:
by living in rat infested areas
by person to person transmission
by ingesting unpasteurised dairy products
by handling infected fowl (chickens, ducks)
percutaneously from exposure to contaminate soil and mud |
|
Definition
percutaneously from exposure to contaminate soil and mud
Melioidosis is caused by the bacterium Burkholderia pseudomallei, gram negative bacteria that thrive in moist soil, mud and surface water. It is predominately a disease of tropical climates, especially in Southeast Asia and northern Australia where it is widespread. Humans contract melioidosis by inhalation, ingestion or from contaminated injuries. The bacteria can penetrate unbroken skin. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not recognised by WHO as a neglected tropical disease?
Select one:
Yaws
Buruli ulcer
HIV
Leprosy
Snakebite |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Massive splenomegaly is not associated with which of the following conditions:
Select one:
Schistosomiasis
Lymphoma
Haemoglobinopathies
Visceral leishmaniasis
Brucellosis |
|
Definition
Brucellosis
only causes mild-moderate splenomegaly |
|
|
Term
Which of these is least effective in the management of cholera?
Select one:
Ensuring rapid and easy access to oral rehydration solution
Mass administration of antibiotics to the community
Initiating surveillance in the community
Giving zinc as an adjunctive treatment to children under 5 who are affected
Start a health education campaign on best hygiene practice |
|
Definition
Mass administration of antibiotics to the community
not recommended, as it has no proven effect on the spread of cholera and contributes to increasing antimicrobial resistance. |
|
|
Term
Choose the correct answer regarding rapid diagnostic tests (RDT) for malaria
Select one:
Mutations in the parasite histidine-rich protein may result in false-negatives
RDT can be used as a test of cure upon completion of treatment
Malaria RDTs are superior to thick film in persons with low parasitaemia levels
Malaria RDTs provide a quantitative result
RDT cassettes can be re-used if the test is negative |
|
Definition
| Mutations in the parasite histidine-rich protein may result in false-negatives |
|
|
Term
Regarding typhoid:
Select one:
Widal test is a highly specific test for Typhoid
Patients defervesce quickly once they start appropriate treatment
Blood cultures are positive over 50% of the time
The injectable Vi capsular polysaccharide vaccine should be given every 2 years to maintain protection
Rose spots are often present in the first week of illness |
|
Definition
| Blood cultures are positive over 50% of the time |
|
|
Term
Regarding management of TB in Malawi, which of the following is true
Select one:
HIV status is known in 99% of those with confirmed disease
Treatment success rates for smear positive patients is around 50%
Multi-drug resistance rates are around 10%
International sources provide equivalent funding to domestic sources to support management of this disease here
Co-infection with HIV is over 75% |
|
Definition
| HIV status is known in 99% of those with confirmed disease |
|
|
Term
Which of these facts is most accurate regarding cancer?
Select one:
70% of all deaths from cancer occur in high income countries
Palliative care is available for approximately 50% of those who need it globally
The majority of cancers are not preventable
Vaccination programmes have minimal impact on cancer rates
Tobacco use is responsible for more than 1 in 5 of all cancer related deaths |
|
Definition
| Tobacco use is responsible for more than 1 in 5 of all cancer related deaths |
|
|
Term
Cavitatory lung lesions on CXR are most likely are seen in patients with tuberculosis and which other pulmonary infection?
Select one:
Legionnaire’s disease
Paragonimiasis
Strongyloidiasis
Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia
Schistosomiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Regarding anthrax:
Select one:
Mediastinal widening on CXR is an uncommon sign in inhalational
anthrax
Spores can remain viable in the environment for as long as 100 years
Lethal toxin is released by Bacillus cereus
Anthrax vaccine is routine for postal workers in the United States
Cutaneous anthrax typically looks red |
|
Definition
| Spores can remain viable in the environment for as long as 100 years |
|
|
Term
| What is anthrax caused by/. |
|
Definition
Anthrax is caused by B. anthracis.
Mediastinal widening and pleural effusions are typical.
Microbiological testing for anthrax should be performed in an isolation cabinet |
|
|
Term
In malaria, the release of activated hypnozoites
Select one:
is most often due to persistent subclinical Plasmodium falciparum infection
is most often due to persistence of the hepatic phase of Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale
is most often due to an inadequate treatment of a first infection
is most common after treatment of malaria with primaquine
is most often due to persistent subclinical Plasmodium malariae or Plasmodium knowlesi |
|
Definition
| due to persistence of the hepatic phase of Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale |
|
|
Term
The human flea (Pulex irritans)
Select one:
Can transmit cat-scratch disease
Burrows under the skin
Can transmit plague
Can transmit Oroya fever
Can transmit endemic typhus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pulex irritans does not burrow under the skin. An example of a flea that burrows under the skin is .... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Oroya fever is transmitted by the bite of .... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endemic typhus is transmitted by fleas of the species ... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
[image]
Which of the following diseases are most likely to be associated with this clinical sign:
Typhus
Loxoscelism
Lyme disease
Anthrax
Leech wound |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lymphatic filariasis
Select one:
Has almost been eradicated by the launch of the Global Programme to Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis (GPELF)
Is transmitted mainly by Simulium damnosum
Is rarely asymptomatic
Could be prevented by mass administration of preventative chemotherapy
Is mostly caused by Onchocerca volvulus |
|
Definition
| Could be prevented by mass administration of preventative chemotherapy |
|
|
Term
An eleven year old boy is brought to your clinic in central Africa after a snakebite.
Select one:
The gums should be examined at regular intervals for signs of bleeding
The victim should be encouraged to mobilise to prevent spasms
The victim should be given low molecular weight heparin to prevent clots
The dose of anti-venom should be adjusted for the patient’s weight
A ligature should be applied distal to wound puncture site |
|
Definition
| The gums should be examined at regular intervals for signs of bleeding |
|
|
Term
[image]
Which of the following is true for the patient in this photograph? |
|
Definition
This patient was most likely the victim of a viper bite
The majority of viper and cobra venoms cause local pain, swelling, and erythema |
|
|
Term
| snail host for S haematobium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a questions asks you to identify form a bladder washing and the patient has been swimming in freshwater the likely organism is.... |
|
Definition
Schistosoma haematobium
Snail bulinus is the intermediate host. |
|
|
Term
| You're asked to identify a taenia progrottid that measuures 12mm long. Which one is it? |
|
Definition
T saginata. Usually longer proglottids.
Acquired by eating undercooked or infected beef. |
|
|
Term
| an egg found on a sputum sample measures 88 x 43um. Identified as paragonimus. What are its 1st and 2nd intermediate hosts? |
|
Definition
1st is snail
2nd is crustacean |
|
|
Term
| How is entameoba transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which disease do triatome bugs transmit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| treatment for giardia infection? |
|
Definition
| metronidazole or tinidazole. |
|
|
Term
| the lyre shaped marking on the thorax is an identyfying feature of which mosquito? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the natural lifespan of onchocerca volvulus adult worm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| L1 larvae measuring approx 200um identified in stool sample as Strongyloides stercoralis. Name a complication of this infection in those who are immunosuppressed. |
|
Definition
| hyperinfection syndrome AKA disseminated strongyloidiasis. |
|
|
Term
| you're asked to identify organisms from a liver cysts aspirate approx 100um long. most likely organism? |
|
Definition
| protoscolesces of Echinococcus granulosus |
|
|
Term
| definitive host for echinoccocus granulosus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Geographical distribution of Schistosoma japonicum? |
|
Definition
China
Indonesia
Phillipines |
|
|
Term
| A worm measuring 200um has been isolated form a patient in Myanmar and ID'd as Brugiya malayi. What time of day do you need to sample your patient to ID this condition? |
|
Definition
| Nocturnal sampling 9pm-3am |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A flea measures 2.5mm no genal or pronotal combs. what is it most likely to be?[image] |
|
Definition
| oriental rat flea, Xenopsylla cheopis |
|
|
Term
| Fancy name for oriental rat flea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how many intermediate hosts does ascaris lumbricoides have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sheathed
240-300 µm L on in stained blood smears and 275-320 µm in 2% formalin treated samples
Curved body
Tail is tapered to a point.
The cells of the body are loosely packed and can be visualised individually (in good stains)
Cells do not extend to the tip of the tail. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Out of wucheria bancrofti, brugiya malayi and onchocerca volvulus which one is unsheathed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| describe the gametocyte of P vivax |
|
Definition
| Gametocytes of Plasmodium vivax are round to oval and usually fill the host cell. The infected RBC is usually noticeably larger than uninfected RBCs. The cytoplasm is usually a darker blue and contains fine pigment granules throughout. |
|
|
Term
microfiliraie of onchocerva volvulus are unsheathed and measure...
Treatment options for onchocerca volvulus which causes river blindness? |
|
Definition
300-315um in length
Rx: ivermectin |
|
|
Term
| Why fly transmits african trypanosomiasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Identify this egg
The eggs measure 30-35 micrometers in diameter and are radially-striated. The internal oncosphere contains six refractile hooks.[image] |
|
Definition
| Taenia eggs. Saginata and solium eggs are indistuishable. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| s haematobium. where does it reside in the human host? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where do S. mansoni, S. japonicum, S. mekongi and S. intercalatum reside in the human host? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mebendazole
Albendazole or
ivermctin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how is an est ascaris infection diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| microscopic identification of eggs in stools. |
|
|
Term
| list 4 complications a/w entamaeoba infection |
|
Definition
amoebic abscess (usually in liver)
Amaeboma (usually in ileoceacal valve)
Haemorrhage
Post dysenteric UC |
|
|
Term
| risks of having malaria in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
still birth
foetal growth retardation
severe malaria
maternal anaemia |
|
|
Term
| rx for infection with dwarf tapeworm hymenolepis nana |
|
Definition
sigle dose of praziquantel
Niclosamide has also been widely used. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hookworm egg
The eggs are thin-shelled, colorless and measure 60-75 µm by 35-40 µm. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which hookworms do not cause creeping eruptions? |
|
Definition
| Necator americanus and acylostoma duodenales do not cause creeping eruptions. |
|
|
Term
| How does microfilariae of Brugia timori differ from brugia malayi?? |
|
Definition
| Microfilaria of Brugia timori differ from Brugia malayi by a having a longer cephalic space, a sheath that does not stain with Giemsa, and a larger number of single-file nuclei towards the tail. Microfilariae circulate in the blood. |
|
|
Term
| Where in the body would you find the adult form of Brugia timori? |
|
Definition
| Adult Brugia timori live in the lymphatic vessel of their hosts. |
|
|
Term
| describe daily routine of lutzomyia sandfly |
|
Definition
Daytime:rests in cool dark sheltered places like cracks in houses.
Nightitme:after dusk they become active and can fly short distances. both sexes feed on nectar but females need blood meal to lay eggs. |
|
|
Term
| which malaria film type would show RBC? |
|
Definition
Thin film.
In thick film the cells are lysed. |
|
|
Term
| In which malaria does the cytoplasm elongate across the host RBC forming a band form as the trophozoites mature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you get infected with fasciola hepatica/buski?
The eggs are 140um in diameter |
|
Definition
| Ingesting contaminated water plants |
|
|
