The angle from the front point of ground contact of the front tire to any projection of the apparatus in the front of the front axle is considered the:

A. Angle of return

B. Angle of departure

C. Angle of approach

D. Lateral angle

C. Angle of approach

Pg. 451

______ is defined as keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness.

A. Repair

B. Maintenance

C. Reliability

D. All of the above

B. Maintenance.

Pgs 22 & 458

Checking and documenting the oil level, radiator coolant, fuel level, tires, and visible and audible warning signals is normally considered to be part of ______ maintenance.

A. Daily

B. Quarterly

C. Monthly

D. Periodic

A. Daily

Pgs 22-36

When performing a capacity test, the first desidered pump presure should be ____psi.

A. 100

B. 150

C. 200

D. 300*

B. 150

Pg 391

Inspecting all valves would be considered a part of _______ maintenance.

A. Daily

B. Quarterly

C. Monthly

D. Bi Monthly

A. Daily

Pg 40

To select the proper lubricant, consideration must be given to the:

A. Manufacturers wattanty

B. Climate

C. Frequency of lubrication

D. Manufacturers recommendations

D. Manufacturers recommendations

Pg 38

To _____ means to restore to replace that which has become inoperable.

A. Service

B. Remove

C. Maintain

D. Repair

D: Repair.

Pgs 22 & 455

Apparatus maintenance records serve many functions, such as

A. Filing warranty claims with the manufacturer.

B. Documenting recurrent repairs.

C. Indicating the type of cleaning solution to be used.

D. Both A and B are correct.

D: Both A& B are correct.

Pg 23

Before turning corners or approaching curves, the driver operator should:

A. Remain in the same gear and decelerate.

B. Remain in the same gear and apply the brake.

C. Shift a standard transmission into a lower gear.

D. Shift an automatic transmission into a lower gear.

C: Shift a standard transmission into a lower gear.

Pg. 54

The distance a vehicle travels from the time the driver begins to apply the braked until it comes to a complete stop is known as:

A. Braking distance.

B. Total reaction time.

C. Visual lead distance.

D. Brake performance distance.

A: Braking distance.

Pgs. 62 & 451

The most common cause(s) of fire apparatus skidding is/are:

A. Driving to fast for road conditions.

B. Anticipating obstacles in the road.

C. Weight shifts of heavy apparatus.

D. Both A and C are correct.

D: Both A and C are correct.

Pg 63

Apparatus are most likely to be involved in an accident at/on:

A. Off/on ramps.

B. Intersections.

C. Freeways

D. Railroad crossings.

B: Intersections

Pg 60

Most driving regulations pertain to environmental conditions tht are:

A. Snowy and icy.

B. Wet and rainy.

C. Dark and foggy.

D. Dry and clear.

D: Dry and clear.

Pgs 5 & 49

A driver/operator of an emergeny vehicle who does not obey state, local, or departmental driving regulations is:

A. Protected under the Good Samaritan Lew.

B. Subject to criminal prosecution only.

C. Exempt from any persecution.

D. Subject to criminal and civil prosecution.

D: Subject to criinal and civil prosecution.

Pgs 6 & 49

Unless specifically exempt, when driving fire apparatus, the fire apparatus operators/drivers are generally subject to any/all:

A NFPQ 1901 guidelines.

B. Statutes, rules, regulations and ordinances.

C. National Emergency Vehicle Response Commission Guidlines.

D. Department of Motor Vehicle registration rules.

B: Statutes, rules regulations and ordinances.

Pg 5-49

Safety bars on fire apparatus are designed to:

A. Be a substitute for safety belts.

B.Keep equipment from falling off the apparatus.

C. Allow firefighters to stand upright while the vehicle is in motion.

D. Keep a firefighter from falling out of the jump seat.

D: Keep a firefighter from falling out of a jump seat.

Pg 58-59

You are responding to an emergency on a three lane highway during moderately heavy traffis conditions. YOu are in the center lane. The vehicle ahead, which you are repidly overtaking, stops! The is insufficent space to stop without striking the vehicle, Which of the following evasive tactics should be employed?

A. Slowly move to the right lane and proceed to the call.

B. Brake to reduce speed as you pass on the left side of the stopped vehicle.

C. Brake to reduce speed and pass the stopped vehicle on the right.

D. Accelerate and immediately move to the left lane when passing the stopped vehicle.

B: Brake to reduce speed as you pass on the left side of the stopped vehicle.

Pg 62-64

The weight carried on most fire apparatus can contribute to _______ due to excessive weight transfer.

A. Skidding.

B. Apparatus roll over.

C. Delay in the driver's brake reaction time.

D. Both A and B are correct.

D. Both A and B are correct.

Pg. 62-65

If an appartus begins to skid, the driver/operator should: A. Gradually apply the brakes, bringing the apparatus to a halt.

B. Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid.

C. Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction opposite to the direction of the skid.

D. Quickly release pressure from the accelerator.

B: Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid.

Pg 64

The purpose of the alley dock is to simulate:

A. Backing a vehicle into a restricted area.

B. Maneuvering around a parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

C. Steering a vehicle in a straight line.

D. Turning a vehicle around in a confined space.

A: Backing a vehicle into a restricted area.

Pg 71-73

Because of the size of the apparatus, as well as the clearance needed when backing, the DO should:

A. Back up very slowly, assuring that everyone hears the back-up alarm.

B. Assign a firefighter to clear the way to warn the DO of any obstacle obscured by blind spots.

C. Place traffic cones around the area where the backing up will occur.

D. Turn on all emergency lights, check mirrors, then proceed to back up in a slow safe manner.

B: Assign a firefighter to clear the way to warn the DO of any obstacle obscured by blind spots.

Pg 59

The purpose of the serpentine course is to simulate:

A. jBacking a vehicle into a restricted area.

B. maneuvering around a parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

C. Steering a vehicle in a straight line.

D. Turning a vehicle around in a confined space.

B: Maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

Pg 71-73

While responding to an emergency where al l lanes of traffic are blocked in the same direction as ther responding apparatus, the apparatus driver should:

A. Position the apparatus in the middle lane behind the blocked traffic, wait for one lane to clear, then proceed at a reduced rate of speed.

B. Move the apparatus to the furthest point on the right, passing on the right shoulder at an extremely reduced rate of speed.

C. Maintain the current lane position and wait for the lane to clear, then proceed through the intersection at a reduced rate of speed.

D. Move the apparatus into the opposite lane of traffic and proceed through the intersection at extremely reduced rate of speed.

D: Move the apparatus into the opposing lane of traffic and proceed through the intersection at an extremely reduced rate of speed.

Pg 60.

The purpose of the confined space tyrn around is to simulate:

A. Backing a vehicle into a restricted area.

B. Maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

C. Steering a vehicle in a straight line.

D. Reversing the direction of travel of a vehicle in a narrow street.

D: Reversing the direction of travel of a vehicle in a narrow street.

Pg 72.

The confined space turnaround maneuver allows an operator to turn the apparatus ______ degrees.

A. 180

B. 90

C. 45

D. 270

A: 180

Pg 72.

Which of the following friving skills would not require using a spotter?

A. Confined space turnaround

B. Serpentine

C. Diminishing clearance

D. Alley dock

C: Diminishing clearance.

Pg 59 & 72-73

To effectively judge the ability of a vehicle to pass through areas of restricted horizontal and vertivle openings, the operator must know:

A. Vehicle dimensions

B. Department SOGs

C The vehicle weight

D. All of the above are correct

A: Vehicle dimensions

Pg 72-74

Studies have shown that an emergency vehicle going faster than ______ MPH can possibly outrun its own warning device.

A. 15

B. 70

C. 50

D. 35

C: 50 MPH

Pg 67

At a speed of 60 MPH, a siren is only audible up to _______ feet in front of the vehicle.

A. 12

B. 50

C. 100

D. 200

A: 12 ft.

Pg 67.

When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, units should travel at least ______ feet apart.

A. 100-200

B. 200-300

C. 300-500

D. 600

C: 300-500 ft.

Pg 68

The purpose of an inverter on an apparatus is to transform:

A. DC crrent into AC Current

B. AC current into DC current

C. 12 volts to 24 volts

D. 220 volts to 110 volts

A: DC current into AC current.

Pg 17.

During a pump capacity test, a pumper should deliver _____ of its rated capacity at 250 psi pump pressure for 10 minutes.

A. 100%

B. 50%

C. 70%

D. 40%

B: 50%.

Pg 392.

Proper apparatus maintenance includes visually checking the tank water level:

A. Daily

B. Quarterly

C. Periodically

D. Biweekly

A: Daily.

Pg 40.

The changeover transfer valve on a two-stage pump should be checked for proper operation:

A. Monthly

B. Weekly

C. Periodically

D. Bi weekly

B: Weekly

Pg. 41.

The following conditions which affects pumping ability are:

A. Ambient temperature

B. Barometric pressure

C. Atmosperic pressure

D. All of the above

D: All of the above.

Pg 382-383

Apparatus equiped with water tanks of less than 500 gallons must provide a tank-to-pump flow rate of _____ gpm. Those with tanks larger than 500 galoons must provide _____ gpm.

A. 500,700

B. 250,500

C. 200,400

D. 500,750

B: 250,500

Pg. 393

______ pressure is the difference between the pump discharge pressure and the incoming pressure from the hydrant.

A. Maximum discharge

B. Residual

C. Net pump discharge

D. Pump intake

C: Net pump discharge.

Pg 164, 190 & 458

In a working fire, which of the following appratus has the highest priority for position?

A. Aerial apparatus

B. Chiefs car

C. Tander/tanker

D. Engine

A: Aerial.

Pg. 82-8?

A dual-pumping operation is:

a. Two pumpers requiring the same GPM

B. Two pumpers with equal discharge pressure.

C. mainly utilized during relay operations

D. Placing a second pumper at a hydrant and connecting both pumpers intake-to-intake.

D. Placing a second pumper at a hydrant and connecting both pumpers intake-to-intake.

Pg. 88.

When pulling up to a hydrant, turning the front wheels to a 45 degree angle:

A. will protect ther driver in the event the truck is rear ended.

B. Will make it easier to adjust the apparatus if needed.

C. Will keep the vehicle out of the road.

C. Is required only in icy conditions.

B: Will make it easier to adjust the apparatus if needed.

Pg. 85-86

The high cost of foam has pronpted departments to use water instead of foam during testing. Because of the difference in _____ the rate of pickup is slightly different.

A. Weight

B. Specific gravity

C. Surface tension

D. Viscosity

D: Viscosity

Pg. 395

 All of the statements abnout an ammeter listed below are correct except:

A. An ammeter indicates the amount of current being drawn from the bettery to operate the electrical equipment.

B. Am ammeter indicates the amount of current being supplied to the battery to charge it.

C. The reading on the ammeter does not include the current being supplied directly from the generator.

D. An ammeter only indicates the amount of current flowing into the battery.

D: An ammeter only indicates the amount of current flowing into the battery.

Pg. 451

Checking for voltage, electrolyte level, and corrosion are all steps in inspecting:

A. Electonic components

B. The voltage regulator

C. Electrical motors

D. The battery

D. The battery

Pg. 37

The maneufacturer's manuals will _____ the Society of Automotive Engineers (S.A.E.) number for the engine oil.

A. Not suggest

B. Recommend

C. Rquire

D. Not mandate

B: Recommend.

Pg 38.

The oil pressure guage indicates the:

A. Amount of oil in the crank case.

B. Supply of foil being delivered is adequate.

C. Amount of oil in the transfer case.

D. Type of oil needed for the motor.

B; Supply of oil being delivered is adequate.

Pg 236-237.

Whicj of the following is not an electrical charging system?

A. Ammeter.

B. Flowmeter.

C. Voltmeter.

D. Alternator.

B: Flowmeter.

Pg 22.

Which of the following conditions could be found while doing routine maintenance on a bettery?

A. Loose tie downs.

B. Corrosion around the bettery connections.

C. Coolant level needs filling.

D. A and B only are correct.

D: A and B omly are corrent.

Pg 37.

Batteries produce explosive _____ gas when being charged?

A. Nitrogen.

B. Hydrochloric

C. Sulfuric

D. Hydrogen

D: Hydrogen

Pg 39.

Shutting down a diesel engine immediately afer full load operation may result is:

A: High piston ring wear.

B. Increased oil consumption.

C. Fuel injector damage.

D. Turbo seizure.

D: Turbo deizure.

Pg. 56.

It is important to maintain _____ of fuel, since you cannot predict how long an apparatus may run during emergency operations.

A. At least 1/4 of a tank.

B. At least 1/2 of a tank.

C. At least 3/4 of a tank.

D. A full tank.

C: At least 3/4 of a tank.

Pg 32.

In an acceptance test, a fully loaded pumper must be able to come to a full stop from 20mph within:

A. 25ft

B. 35ft

C. 45ft

D. 55ft

B: 35ft.

Pg 381.

If a juristiction is above 2000 ft elevation, a _____ test must be performed:

A. Pumping

B. Engine overload

C. Pressure control system

D. Vacuum

B: Engine overload.

Pg 382.

In an acceptance test, a fully loaded pumper must be able to accelerate to _____mph is 25 seconds:

A. 25

B. 40

C. 45

D. 50

A: 35mph.

Pg 380.

In an acceptance test, a fully leaded pumper must be able to accelerate to 35mph in _____ seconds.

A. 25

B. 35

C. 45

D. 50

A: 25 seconds.

Pg 380.

The dry vacuum test requires a reading at the end of 5 minutes during which no more than _____ inches of vacuum should be lost.

A. 24

B. 22

C. 10

D. 12

C: 10 inches.

Pg 388-389

maintenance records for all fire departmnent apparatus should be maintained and documented by the:

A. Chief

B. Officer

C. Driver/Operator

D. Firefighter

C: Diver/Operator.

Pg 23.

for safe operation and driving of fire apparatus, the driver:

A. Should not exceed 10mph when leaving the station.

B. Should not race the engine when not moving.

C. Should be aware the lights and sirens may not be heard or seen.

D. All of the above are correct.

D: All of the above are correct.

Pg 67-74.

You have responded to an emergency on a limited-access highway. Your apparatus is not being used. Which of the following should be done?

A. Position the apparatus across the intersection to block traffic.

B. Use the apparatus as a barrier between the traffic flow and the responders on scene.

C. Position the apparatus off the highway in an area away from the incident.

D. Position the apparatus as close to the incident as possible so responders will have access to the apparatus.

B: Use the apparatus as a barrier between the traffic flow and the responders on scene.

Pg 99-100.

Over-throttling occurs in diesel engines when more fuel is injected than can be burned. Which of the following is not a result of over-throttling?

A. Overheating of engine coolant.

B. Additional fuel consumption.

C. Oil dilution.

D. Black smoke from exhaust.

A. Overheating of the engine coolant.

Pg 55.

The distance a vehicle travels from the point where the driver begins transfering his foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal intil the apparatus comes to a complete stop is called the _____ distance.

A. Braking

B. Driver-reaction

C. Total stopping

D. Total reaction

C: Total stopping.

Pg 61-62

Which of the following hazardous conditions contribute to the adverse effects of weight transfer?

A. Abrupt steering

B. Driving on slippery roads

C. Driving on excessively steep slopes

D. Both A and C are correct

D: Both A and C are correct.

Pg 63.

Engine brakes, which assist in braking are activated when:

A. Pressure is applied to the brake.

B. Brief, rapid brake applications are made.

C. Pressure is released from the accelerator

D. All of the above are correct.

C: Pressure is released from the accelerator.

Pg 55.

The engine brake and retarder are activated when:

A. The engine is first started.

B. The brake pedal is applied to hard.

C. The brake system fails.

D. Pressure is released from the accelerator.

D: Pressure is released from the accelerator.

Pg 55.

When at an intersection, apparatus should be brought to a complete stop it:

A. There are any obstructions that block the view of traffic.

B. The driver cannot account for all lanes of traffic.

C. It is a controlled intersection.

D. A and B are both correct.

D. A and B are both correct.

Pg 60.

According to NFPA 1500, during response to emergency or non emergency situations, the driver shall _____ at all unguarded railroad crossing.

A. Use caution.

B. Proceed at a maximum of 5 mph.

C. Come to a complete stop.

D. Stop only when a train is in sight from either direction.

C: Come to a complete stop.

Pg 14.

Blind and heavily traveled intersections should be approached and crossed:

A. At a speed of 10 moh below the posted speed limit.

B. At a maximum speed of 10mpoh over the posted speed limit.

C. At a speed allowing for a stop defore entering the intersection.

D. Only after coming to a complete stop.

D: Only after coming to a complete stop.

Pg 60.

The angle from the rear point of ground contact of the rear tire to any projection of the apparatus behind the rear axle is considered:

A. Angle of return.

B. Angle of departure.

C. Angle of approach.

D. Longitudinal approach.

B: Angle of departure.

Pg 451.

Operating engines below the minimum coolant temperature may result in:

A. Excessive cylinder wear.

B. Inefficient operation.

C. Decreased valve deposites.

D. Decreased fuel consumption.

B: Inefficient operation.

Pg 236.

All fire apparatus should be equipped with _____ when the apparatus is backing up.

A. Opti com

B. Four-way flashers to notify others

C. An alarm system that warns others

D. Rea spotlights

C: An alarm system that warns others.

Pg 59.

Many accidents involving apparatus are caused by the operator:

A. Focusing too much on the traffic in front of the apparatus.

B. Stopping at intersections.

C. Misunderstanding the capabilities of the apparatus.

D. Both A and C are correct.

C: Misunderstanding the capabilities of the apparatus.

Pg 48.

When the apparatus driver is faced with a situation requiring evasive tactics, the driver should attempt to pass the overtaked vehicle on:

A. The left side.

B. The right side.

C. Either the left or right side.

D. The passenger side.

A: The left side.

Pg 49 and 66.

On sharp curves of when turning corners, apparatus drivers should shift standard transmissions into a _____ gear _____ entering the curve or intersection.

A. Lower, after

B. Higher, before

C. Lower, before

D. Higher, after

C. Lower, before.

Pg 54.

The use of warning devices in essentioal when responding to an alram, and in doing so:

A. Negates all traffic laws.

B. Allows passing stopped school buses.

C. Negates most traffic laws.

D. Does not allow the driver to disreard other drivers.

D: Does not allow the driver to disregaurd other drivers.

Pg 67.

Being aware of all that is happening and is likely to heppen ahed, at the sides, and to the rear of the appartus are techniques:

A. Aggressive driving.

B. Offensive driveing.

C. Defensive driving.

D. Reactive driving.

C: Defensive driving.

Pg 74.

The type of pumper which is usually equiped with four-wheel drive and typically has a pump with a capacity of less than 500 gpm is known as a:

A. Midi pumper.

B. Mini pumper.

C. Tender.

D. All of the above.

B: Mini pumper.

Pg 10.

A devise used to indicate water pressure in punds-per-swuare-inch is a ____ guage.

A. Pressure

B. Vacuum

C. Flow meter

D. All of the above are correct

A: Pressure guage.

Pg 459.

_____ enables apparatus to be driven and discharge water on the fire at the same time.

A. Power take off

B. Inverter

C. Power transfer

D. All of the above

A. Power take off.

Pg 12 and 459.

When amking an intake connection at a hydrant, the intake hose should be:

A. Be as tight as possible

B. Have a light curve

C. Be slightly higher than the pump intake

D. All of the above are correct

B: Have a light curve.

Pg 86.

On a working fire, if the apparatus must position up a long narrow driveway, it is best if:

A. The apparatus leaves all the supply hose at the end of the driveway.

B. The apparatus lays the supply hose in as it moves into position.

C. It has second apparatus bring its supply hose by reversing out.

D. All of the above.

B: The apparatus lays the supply hose in as it moves into position.

Pg 77.

In a large defensive operation, the main positioning factor is to:

A: Be close enough to operate pre-connects efficiently.

B: Avoid parking in an area of high radiant heat.

C. Avoid areas of possible flying embers.

D. Both B and C are correct.

D: Both B and C are correct.

Pg 78.

In an apparatus and crew arrive on scene where no fire conditions are evident, or there is a nothing-showing mode, it is advisable to position the apparatus:

A. Near the main entrance.

B. At the hydrant.

C. At the nearest intersection.

D. Near the FDC.

A: Near the main entrance.

Pg 77.

A dual-pumping operation is:

A. Two pumpers requiring the same GPM.

B. Two pumpers with wqual discharge pressure.

C. Mainly utilized during relay operations.

D. Place a second pumper at a hydrant and connecting both pumper intake-to-intake.

D. Place a second pumper at a hydrant and connecting both pumpers intake-to-intake.

Pg 88.

Proper _____ is one of the prime objectives of good maintenance.

A. Troubleshooting

B. Lubrication

C. Vacuum

D. Priming

B: Lubrication.

Pg 38.

A ammeter indicates:

A. Top voltage available when the battery is fully charged.

B. Amount of current floiwing into the battery.

C. Amount of current being taked from the battery.

D. Both B and C are correct.

D: Both B and C are correct.

Pg 451

Before an apparatus response from the station, the DO should:

A. Tell passengers to buckle their seatbelt, then proceed.

B. Assume everyone is buckled and proceed.

C. Walk around the apparatus.

D. Assure that everyone is seated and belted.

D: Assure that eveyone in seated and belted.

Pg 50 and 57.

When driving under winter conditions, the DO should follow at a greater distance because the distance to stop on snow and ice in increased _____ times.

A. 3 to 15

B. 2 to 5

C. 10 to 20

D. 1 to 2

A: # to 15.

Pg 66.