A fire apparatus with a primary purpose of trasporting 1000 or more gallons of water is considered to be a/an:

A. Attack pumper

B. Aerial device

C. Midi pumper

D. Tanker/tender

D. Tanker/tender

Checking for voltage, electrolyte level and corrosion are all steps in inspecting:

A. Electronic components

B. The voltage regulator

C. Electrical motors

D. The battery

D. The battery

Proper ____ is one of the prime objectives or good maintenance.

A. Troubleshooting

B. Lubrication

C. Vacuum

D. Priming

B. Lubrication

An ammeter indicates the:

A. Top voltage available when the battery is fully charged.

B. Amount of current flowing into the battery.

C. Amount of current being taken into the battery.

D. Both B and C are correct.

D. Both B and C are correct.

Which of the following conditions could be found while doing routine maintenance on a battery?

A. Loose tie downs.

B. Corrosion around the battery connections.

C. Coolant levels need filling.

D. A and B only are correct.

D. A and B only are correct.

Batteries produce explosive ____ gas when being charged.

A. Nitrogen.

B. Hydrochloric.

C. Sulfuric.

D. Hydrogen.

D. Hydrogen.

In an acceptance test, a fully loaded pumper must be able to accelerate to 35 mph in ____ seconds.

A. 25

B. 35

C. 45

D. 50

A. 25

The dry vacuum test requires a reading at the end of 5 minutes during which no more than ____ inches of vacuum should be lost.

A. 24

B. 22

C. 10

D. 12

C. 10

Before an apparatus response from the station, the DO should:

A. Tell passengers to buckle their seat belts, then proceed.

B. Assume everyone is buckled in and proceed.

C. Walk around the apparatus.

D. Assure that everyone is seated and belted.

D. Assure that everyone is seated and belted.

When driving under winter conditions, the DO should follow at a greater distance because the distance to stop on snow and ice is increased ____ times.

A. 3 to 15

B. 2 to 5

C. 10 to 20

D. 1 to 2

A. 3 to 15

Over-throttling occures in diesel engines when more fuel is injected than can be burned. Which of the following is not a result of over-throttling?

A. Overheating of engine coolant.

B. Additional fuel consumption.

C. Oil dilution.

D. Black smoke from the exhaust.

A. Overheating of engine coolant.

If an apparatus begins to skid, the DO should:

A. Graually apply the brakes, bringing the apparatus to a halt.

B. Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid.

C. Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction opposite to the direction of the skid.

D. Quickly release pressure from the accelerator.

B. Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid.

Engine brakes, which assist in braking, are activated when:

A. Pressure is applied to the brake.

B. Brief, rapid brake applications are made.

C. Pressure is released from the accelerator.

D. All of the above.

C. Pressure is released from the accelerator.

Directions: Read each statement below; then choose your answer from alternatives A-D.

1. When approaching an intersection, the DO should should slow the apparatus to a speed of 10 to 15 mph to allow reaction time.

2. The apparatus should be brought to a complete stop if there are any obstructions that block the driver's view.

3. There is no need to slow the apparatus for a green light intersection.

 A. Statement 1 is correct; statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

 B. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct; statement 3 is incorrect.

 C. Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct; statement 3 is incorrect.

 D. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect; statement 3 is correct.

C. Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct; statement 3 is incorrect.

The angle from the rear pont of groud contact of the rear tire to any projection of the apparatus behind the rear axle is considered:

A. Angle of return.

B. Angle of departure.

C. Angle of approach.

D. Longitudinal approach.

B. Angle of departure.

Operating engines below the minimum coolant temperature may result in:

A. Excessive cylinder wear.

B. Inefficient operation.

C. Decreased valve deposites.

D. Decreased fuel consumption.

B. Inefficient operation.

The engine brake and retarder are activated when:

A. The engine is first started.

B. The brake pedal is applied too hard.

C. The brake system fails.

D. Pressure is released from the accelerator.

D. Pressure is released from the accelerator.

All fire apparatus should be equipped with ____ shen the apparatus is backing up.

A. Opti-com.

B. Four-way flashers that notify others.

C. An alarm system that warns others.

D. Rear spotlights.

C. An alarm system that warns others.

When an apparatus driver is faced with a situation requiring evasive tactics, the driver should attempt to pass the overtaken vehicle on:

A. The left side.

B. The right side.

C. Either the left or right side.

D. The passenger side.

A. The left side.

On sharp curves or shen turning corners, apparatus drivers should shift standard transmissions into a ____ gear ____ entering the curve or intersection.

A. Lower, after.

B. Higher, before.

C. Lower, before.

D. Higher, after.

C. Lower, before.

The purpose of the diminishing clearance driving skill is to measure a driver's ability to:

A. Maneuver around stopped vehicles.

B. Steer apparatus in a straight line.

C. Parallel park.

D. Turn the vehicle 180 degrees.

B. Steer apparatus in a straight line.

In emergency incidents that occure near railroad tracks, the DO should:

A. Always treat the tracks as an active line.

B. Park the apparatus on the some side of the tracks as the incident.

C. Park the apparatus in a manner that protects the fire hose crossing the tracks.

D. Both A and B are correct.

D. Both A and B are correct.

The use of warming devices is essential when responding to an alarm, and in doing so:

A. Negates all traffic laws.

B. Allows passing stopped school buses.

C. Negates most traffic laws.

D. Does not allow the driver to disregard othe drivers.

D. Does not allow the driver to disregard othe drivers.

The type of pumper which is usually equipped with four-wheel drive and typically has a pump with a capacity less the 500 gpm is known as a:

A. Midipumper.

B. Minipumper.

C. Tender.

D. All of the above are correct.

B. Minipumper.

While conducting a pump capacity test, if the net pump pressure is correct but the nozzle flow (gpm) is too high, the:

A. Discharge gate most be opened further.

B. Discharge gate must be closed further.

C. Throttle setting must be reduced.

D. Both B and C must be done simultaneously.

D. Both B and C must be done simultaneously.

The 50% pump capacity test is conducted at a net pump pressure of:

A. 150 psi for 20 minutes.

B. 150 psi for 10 minutes.

C. 250 psi for 10 minutes.

D. 250 psi for 20 minutes.

C. 250 psi for 10 minutes.

When priming, water enters the pump because:

A. Atmosheric prsuure forces it into to pump.

B. The pump pulls the water in from the static source.

C. The rotating motion of the centrifugal pump creates a vacuum.

D. All of the above are correct.

A. Atmosheric prsuure forces it into to pump.

The ____ on an impellar are curved away from the direction of rotation so tha the natural movement of water will carry it to the edge.

A. Fins.

B. Blades.

C. Vanes.

D. Volute.

C. Vanes.

The device that limits pressure surges by changing engine speed to compensate for changes in flow is called a:

A. Relief valve.

B. Pressure governor.

C. Transfer valve.

D. Pressure relief valve.

B. Pressure governor.

Which type of flowmeter is relatively maintenance free?

A. Spring probe.

B. Paddlewheel

C. Pressure.

D. Gravity.

A. Spring probe.

In a ____ hydrant, a small drain vlave opens as the hydrant is closed.

A. Wet-barrel.

B. Dry-barrel.

C. Drafting.

D. High-pressure.

B. Dry-barrel.

Two main types of modern fire hydrants are:

A. High- and low-pressure.

B. Class A and Class B.

C. Wet- and dry-barrel.

D. Class AA and Calss A.

C. Wet- and dry-barrel.

The purpose of the ____ is to provide circulating feed from several mains.

A. Distributors.

B. Water source.

C. Distributing system.

D. Grid system.

D. Grid system.

____ inches is concidered the minimum size pipe to be used is residential areas.

A. Four.

B. Six.

C. Eight.

D. Ten.

B. Six.

____ -inch pipe is the recommended minimum size for fire hydrant supply mains in business and industrial areas.

A. Six.

B. Eight.

C. Ten.

D. Twelve.

B. Eight.

As a standard practice, it is undesirable to reduce incomming suply pressure below ____ psi.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

C. 20

The pressure remaining once water has begun flowing is known as ____ pressure.

A. Residual.

B. Static.

C. Flow.

D. Normal operating.

A. Residual.

A hydrant with the largest capacity will be one that is connected to a:

A. Dead-end main.

B. Secondary feeder.

C. Primary feeder.

D. Distributor main.

C. Primary feeder.

A one-square-inch column contains water to a height of 100 feet. What is the pressure in psi at the base of the column?

A. 434

B. .434

C. 43.4

D. 4.34

C. 43.4

The operation in which each impeller of a centrifugal pump discharges into a common outlet is known as:

A. Parallel.

B. Single stage.

C. Series.

D. Pressure.

A. Parallel.

A 2.5" fog nozzle flowing 225 gpm at a pressure of 100 psi will have a reaction of approximatley ____ pounds.

A. 114

B. 110

C. 125

D. 140

A. 114

A good method for determining lift in a fire department pump is that for each ____ of indicated vacuum, water will rise ____.

A. Pound, one inch.

B. Inch, one foot.

C. Inch, one inch.

D. Pound, on foot.

B. Inch, one foot.

A ladder pipe with a 2" tip at 80 psi nozzle pressure will have approximately ____ pounds of nozzle reaction.

A. 500

B. 400

C. 55

D. 480

A. 500

Approximately how much water will be delivered from a 1.25" smooth bore nozzle if the nozzle pressure is 50 psi?

A. 200 gpm

B. 273 gpm

C. 328 gpm

D. 400 gpm

C. 328 gpm

The flow from a 1" nozzle tip with a nozzle pressure of 50 psi is approximately ____ gpm.

A. 190

B. 210

C. 220

D. 230

B. 210

What is the friction loss in 300 feet of 2.5" rubber-lined lose flowing 350 gpm?

A. 21 psi

B. 28 psi

C. 56 psi

D. 74 psi

D. 74 psi

What is the friction loss in 400 feet of 3" hose with 2.5" couplings, flowing 400 gpm? (coeficient = .8)

A. 130 psi

B. 51 psi

C. 13 psi

D. 512 psi

B. 51 psi

What is the approximate engine pump pressure that is necessary to deliver 600 gpm through a fog nozzle on a deck gun using three 2.5" lines? The lines are 400 feet long and the deck gun is elevated 20 feet above the pumper. (C=0.2)(Deck gun FL = 10psi)

A. 130 psi

B. 150 psi

C. 170 psi

D. 180 psi

B. 150 psi

PDP = (NP)+(FL)+/-(EL)+(AL)

NP=100

FL=32

EL=10

AL=10

*Figure 200gp on one 2.5" in CQ2L

If the friction loss in 300 feet of hose is 70 psi, what will the friction loss be in 450 feet of the same size hose, flowing the same amount of water?

A. 90 psi

B. 96 psi

C. 105 psi

D. 128 psi

C. 105 psi

The recommended nozzle pressure for 2.5" hand lines with solid bore tips is ____ psi.

A. 50

B. 80

C. 100

D. 150

A. 50

The amount of work that a pump must do to produce a fire stream is called ____ pressure.

A. Net-pump

B. Residual

C. Discharge

D. Maximum discharge

A. Net-pump

When the flow through a hose line increases from 100 gpm to 400 gpm, the friction loss increases ____ times.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 12

D. 16

D. 16

 Nozzle reaction is explained by the law of physics that states:

A. A body in motion tends to stay in motion.

B. Gravity acts equally in all directions at all times.

C. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

D. A kinetic reaction occurs when an equal or greater force is applied.

C. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

What engine pump pressure is necessary to deliver 200 gpm through 200 feet of 2.5" hose to a fog nozzle at ground level?

A. 104 psi

B. 116 psi

C. 122 psi

D. 135 psi

B. 116 psi

The formula for the nozzle reaction of a solid-stream nozzle is:

A. gpm/100

B. 1.57d2NP

C. .0505Q√NP

D. 29.7D2√NP

B. 1.57d2NP

Using the "condenced Q" method as a "rule of thumb", the friction lossin 500 feet of 3-inch fire hose flowing 300 gpm is:

A. 60 psi

B. 55 psi

C. 50 psi

D. 45 psi

D. 45 psi

When a pumper is supplying four lines of 2.5" hose, each equipped with a 250 gpm fog nozzle at 100 psi, and each 300 feet long, the pump discharge pressure required is most nearly:

A. 250 psi

B. 138 psi

C. 158 psi

D. 190 psi

B. 138 psi

Which of the following formulas is used to determine the area of a circle?

A. 2∏²

B. ∏r²

C. L x H x W

D. 2∏

B. ∏r²

Excessive engine temperatures during pumping operations can be controlled by using the:

A. Tank-to-fill valve.

B. Auxiliary cooler.

C. Radiator cooler.

D. Immersion bypass.

B. Auxiliary cooler.

Prior to changing from tank water to an external source:

A. Make sure all air is bled from the intake.

B. Engage the P.T.O.

C. Put the pump into gear.

D. Engage the transmission.

A. Make sure all air is bled from the intake.

Which primer utilizes the venturi principle?

A. Exhaust primer.

B. Rotary-gear primer.

C. Rotary-vane primer.

D. Vacuum primer.

A. Exhaust primer.

An apparatus equipped with a 1000 gallon tank that is supplying two preconnected handlines, one flowing 150 gpm and another flowing 100 gpm, will supply the lines for only ____ minutes.

A. Two

B. Three

C. Four

D. Six

C. Four

A relief valve bypasses excess water from the discharge side of the pump to the:

A. Pump intake.

B. Bleeder valve.

C. Water tank.

D. Bypass valve.

A. Pump intake.

The actual maximum height to which water will be lifted when the intake gauge reads 9 inches of mercury is ____ feet.

A. 9.0

B. 9.59

C. 10.17

D. 10.76

C. 10.17

When calculating the time for a water shuttle operation, timing starts when:

A. Water begins drafting from the tank.

B. The dump valve is opened on the tender.

C. The tender is empty.

D. The tender returns with a new tank of water.

B. The dump valve is opened on the tender.

Natural static water supply sources include:

A. Lakes.

B. Streams.

C. Swimming pools.

D. Both A and B are correct.

D. Both A and B are correct.

One method of calculating the capacity of a water shuttle operation in gpm is to divide:

A. Tank size by the trip time.

B. Gpm available by the tank size.

C. Travel time by the required flow.

D. Tank size by the required flow.

A. Tank size by the trip time.

When a centrifugal pump loses prime at draft, check for:

A. Loose intake connection.

B. A clogged strainer.

C. An open pump drain.

D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct.

When pumping from a hydrant, it is essential that the:

A. Strainer is clean.

B. Hydrant is fully open.

C. Compund gauge always read 20 lbs. negative pressure.

D. All of the above are correct.

B. Hydrant is fully open.

A 5" diameter hose would be expected to flow approximately the same amount as:

A. Two 2.5" hoses.

B. Three 2.5" hoses.

C. Four 2.5" hoses.

D. Five 2.5" hoses.

C. Four 2.5" hoses.

In a large defensive operation, the main positioning factor is to:

A. Be close enough to operate pre-connects efficiently.

B. Avoid parking in an area of high radiant heat.

C. Avoid areas of possible flying embers.

D. Both B and C are correct.

D. Both B and C are correct.

The DO must always make sure that the ___ are completely open when filling or dumping is taking place to prevent damage to the tank.

A. Compartment doors.

B. Vents.

C. Valves.

D. Hydrants.

B. Vents.

Three primary methods can be used to operate a dump site. Which one of the following choices is not a method of operation?

A. Direct pumping

B. Relay pumping

C. Nurse tender

D. Portable water tank

B. Relay pumping

In a shuttle operation, what is the available gpm for fire flow if:

Tanker A: 3000 tanker, trip time 12 min.

Tanker B: 2500 tanker, trip time 10 min.

Tanker C: 1000 tanker, trip time 10 min.

A. 6501 gpm.

B. 2166 gpm.

C. 540 gpm.

D. 203 gpm.

D. 203 gpm.

Once the power take-off has been properly activated and the pump is engaged, the vehicle speedometer should show a speed of:

A. 0 mph.

B. 15 mph.

C. 20 mph.

D. Slightly above 0 mph.

D. Slightly above 0 mph.

A fire hydrant with an orange bonnet and cap will flow ___ gpm.

A. Less than 500

B. 1000 - 1499

C. 500 - 999

D. Greater than 1500

C. 500 - 999

With a 1000 gpm pumper, what is the pumping capacity of the pumper with a 20' lift?

A. 1000 gpm

B. 750 gpm

C. 600 gpm

D. 400 gpm

C. 600 gpm

When using 2.5" or 3" hoselines to supply the pumper directly off hydrant pressure, it is recommended that the lines be no longer than:

A. 100 feet

B. 150 feet

C. 200 feet

D. 300 feet

D. 300 feet

____ inches of vacuum is required to lift water 10 feet at sea level.

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 20

B. 10

The minimum depth of water required to pull a draft is:

A. 2 feet

B. 4 feet

C. 6 feet

D. 8 feet

B. 4 feet

A sudden stoppage of water moving through a hose or pipe may result is:

A. Watere surge

B. Water hammer

C. Nozzle hammer

D. Hydrant hammer

B. Water hammer

Apparatus positioning could be determined by the:

A. DO

B. Incindent commander

C. Company officer

D. All of the above are correct

D. All of the above are correct

If an apparatus and crew arrive on scene where no fire conditions are evident, or there is a nothing-showing mode, it is advisable to position the apparatus:

A. Near the main enterance.

B. At the hydrant.

C. At the nearest intersection.

D. Near the FDC.

A. Near the main enterance.

In a relay pump operation, any adjustment of pressure at the source pumper is made to maintain the minimum ____ pressure at the next pumper in line.

A. Discharge

B. Static

C. Intake

D. Flow

C. Intake

In a relay pumping operation, which of the following should be positioned nearest the water source?

A. The largest capacity pumper.

B. The smallest capacity pumper.

C. The pumper with the largest water tank.

D. The pumper with the largest discharge hose.

A. The largest capacity pumper.

The pressure that is created by the weight of air and varies depending on elevation is known as ____ pressure.

A. Absolute

B. Atmoshperic

C. Barometric

D. Head

B. Atmoshperic

Two methods of relay pumping are the ____ relay method and the ____ relay method.

A. Metropolitan, rural

B. Basic, high-volume

C. Maximum distance, constant pressure

D. Task force, strike team

C. Maximum distance, constant pressure

Relay operations should be shut down from the ____ first.

A. Source pumper

B. Fire scene

C. Relay pumper

D. Largest pumper

B. Fire scene

The residual pressure reading at the intake gauge of a pumper in a relay pumping operation should not fall below ____ psi.

A. 10

B. 20

C. 5

D. 14.7

B. 20

The most efficient method of unloading a tender/tanker is to:

A. Dump the water into portable tanks using gravity.

B. Dump the water into a portable tank using a jet-assisted dump valve.

C. Pump the water into a dump using two 3" lines.

D. A and B are equally efficient.

D. A and B are equally efficient.

A 2000 gallon tender makes the round trip between the dump site and fill site in 12 minutes. The flow rating for the tender is ____ gpm.

A. 50

B. 97

C. 150

D. 167

C. 150

A primary reason for eductor failure is:

A. Too high from concentration.

B. Too low from concentration.

C. Improper cleaning and maintenance of equipment.

D. The wrong brand of foam is being used.

C. Improper cleaning and maintenance of equipment.

When pumping to a standpipe system, a pump operator should always allow ____ friction loss for the standpipe itself.

A. 5 psi per floor

B. 5 psi

C. 10 psi

D. 25 psi

D. 25 psi

When supplying automatic sprinkler systems, pressure should be built up slowly to a minimum of ____ psi at the fire department connection.

A. 100

B. 150

C. 200

D. 250

B. 150

Approximately ____ psi should be added to the desired engine pressure for each floor above the standpipe connection that will have operating fire streams.

A. 25

B. 15

C. 5

D. 10

C. 5 psi

When using hose lines above ground, the usual pressure calculation is to add ____ psi for each story of the building below the fire floor.

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 2

A. 5

When positioning a pumper to supply a fire department connection, the driver must consider the:

A. Size of the riser.

B. Swuare footage of the building.

C. Positioning requirements of other apparatus.

D. All of the above are correct.

C. Positioning requirements of other apparatus.

When supplying a sprinkler connection, a minimum of ____ should be used:

A. Two 3" lines

B. Two 1.75" lines

C. One 2.5" line

D. One 3" line

D. One 3" line

The purpose of the fire department check valve in a fire department connection is to:

A. Prevent excess pressure from damaging the system.

B. Prevent the domestic water supply from entering the riser.

C. Prevent water from a sprinker system from flowing back into the fire department connection.

D. Prevent water flow into the main drain.

C. Prevent water from a sprinker system from flowing back into the fire department connection.

When supplying a sprinkler system, a good rule of thumb is to maintain a pump discharge pressure of ____ psi.

A. 125

B. 150

C. 175

D. 200

B. 150