____ is defined as keeping apparatus is a state of usefulness or readiness.

A. Repair.

B. Maintenance.

C. Reliability.

D. All of the above are correct.

B. Maintenance.

Checking and documentling the oil level, radiator coolant, fuel level, tires and visible and audible warning signals is normally considered to be part of ____ maintenance.

A. Daily.

B. Quarterly.

C. Monthly.

D. Periodic.

A. Daily.

All of the statements about an ammeter listed below are correct except:

A. An ammeter indicates the amount of current being drawn form the battery to operate electrical equipment.

B. An ammeter indicates the amount of current being supplied to the battery to charge it.

C. The reading on an ammeter does not include the current being supplied directly from the generator.

D. An ammeter only indicates the amount of current flowing into the battery.

D. An ammeter only indicates the amount of current flowing into the battery.

Checking for voltage, electrolyte level and corrosion are all steps in inspecting:

A. Electronic components.

B. The voltage regulator.

C. Electrical motors.

D. The battery.

D. The battery.

The manufactuters manuals will ____ the Society of Automotive Engineers (S.A.E.) number for the engine oil.

A. Not suggest.

B. Recommend.

C. Require.

D. Not mandate.

B. Recommend.

The oil pressure guage indicates the:

A. Amount of oil in the cranck case.

B. Supply of oil being delivered is adequate.

C. Amount of oil in the transfer case.

D. Type of oil needed for the motor.

B. Supply of oil being delivered is adequate.

To ____ means to restore or replace that which has become inoperable.

A. Service.

B. Remove.

C. Maintain.

D. Repair.

D. Repair.

Which of the follwing is not an electrical charging system?

A. Ammeter.

B. Flowmeter.

C. Voltmeter.

D. Alternator.

B. Flowmeter.

Which of the following conditions could be found while doing routine maintenance on a battery?

A. Loose tie-downs.

B. Corrosion around the battery connections.

C. Coolant levels need filling.

D. A and B only are correct.

D. A and B only are correct.

Batteries produce explosive ____ gas when being charged.

A. Nitrogen.

B. Hydrochloric.

C. Sulfuric.

D. Hydrogen.

D. Hydrogen.

Shutting down a diesel engine immediately after full-load operation may result in:

A. High piston ring wear.

B. Increased oil consumption.

C. Fuel injector damage.

D. Turbo seizure.

D. Turbo seizure.

It is important to maintain ____ of fuel, since you cannot predict how long an apparatus may run during emergency operations.

A. At least one-quarter of a tank.

B. At least a half tank.

C. At least three-fourths of a tank.

D. A full tank.

C. At least three-fourths of a tank.

In an acceptance test, a fully loaded pumper must be able to come to a full stop from 20 mph within:

A. 25 feet.

B. 35 feet.

C. 45 feet.

D. 55 feet.

B. 35 feet.

If a jurisdiction is above 2,000 feet elevation, a(an) ____ test must be performed.

A. Pumping.

B. Engine overload.

C. Pressure control system.

D. Vacuum.

B. Engine overload.

In an acceptance test, a fully loaded pumper must be able to accelerate to ____ mph is 25 seconds.

A. 35.

B. 40.

C. 45.

D. 50.

A. 35.

In an acceptance test, a fully loaded pumper must be able to accelerater to 35 mph in ____ seconds.

A. 25.

B. 35.

C. 45.

D. 50.

A. 25.

The dry vacuum test requires a reading at the end of 5 minutes during which no more than ____ inches of vacuum should be lost.

A. 24.

B. 22.

C. 10.

D. 12.

C. 10.

Maintenance records for all fire department apparatus should be maintained and documented by the:

A. Chief.

B. Officer.

C. DO.

D. Firefighter.

C. DO.

Before turning corners or approaching curves, the DO should:

A. Remain in the same gear and decelerate.

B. Remain in the same gear and apply the brake.

C. Shift a standard transmission into a lower gear.

D. Shift am automatic transmission into a lower gear.

C. Shift a standard transmission into a lower gear.

The most common cause(s) of fire apparatus skidding is/are:

A. Driving too fast for road conditions.

B. Anticipating obstacles in the road.

C. Weight shifts of heavy apparatus.

D. Both A and C are correct.

D. Both A and C are correct.

Apparatus are most likely to be involved in an accident at/on:

A. Off/on ramps.

B. Intersections.

C. Freeways.

D. Railroad crossings.

B. Intersections.

For safe operation and driving of fire apparatus, the driver:

A. Should not exceed 10 miles per hour when leaving the station.

B. Should not race the engine when not moving.

C. Should be aware that lights and sirens may not be heard or seen.

D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct.

A DO of an emergency vehicle who does not obey state, local or departmental driving regulations is:

A. Protected under the Good Samaritan Law.

B. Subject to criminal prosecution only.

C. Exempt from any prosecution.

D. Subject to criminal and civil prosecution.

D. Subject to criminal and civil prosecution.

Unless specifically exempt, when driving fire apparatus, the fire apparatus DOs are generally subject to any/all:

A. NFPA 1901 guidelines.

B. Statutes, rules, regulations and ordinances.

C. National Emergency Vehicle Response Commision Guidlines.

D. Department of Motor Vehicle registration rules.

B. Statutes, rules, regulations and ordinances.

You are responding to an emergency on a three-lane highway during moderately heavy traffic conditions. You are in the center lane. The vehicle ahead, which you are rapidly overtaking, stops! There is insufficient space to stop without striking the vehicle. Which of the following evasive tactics should be employed?

A. Slowly move to the right lane and proceed on he call.

B. Brake to reduce speed as you pass on the left side of the stopped vehicle.

C. Brake to reduce speed and pass the stopped vehicle on the right.

D. Accelerate and immediately move to the left lane when passing the stopped vehicle.

B. Brake to reduce speed as you pass on the left side of the stopped vehicle.

You have responded to an emergency on a limited-access highway. Your apparatus is not being used. Which of the following should be done?

A. Position the apparatus across the intersection to block traffic.

B. Use the apparatus as a barrier between the traffic flow and the responders on scene.

C. Postion the apparatus off the highway in an area away from the incident.

D. Position the apparatus as close to the incident as possible so responders will have access to the apparatus.

B. Use the apparatus as a barrier between the traffic flow and the responders on scene.

Over-throttling occurs in diesel engines when more fuel is injected than can be burned. Which of the following is not a result of over-throttling?

A. Overheating of engine coolant.

B. Additional fuel consumption.

C. Oil dilution.

D. Black smoke from the exhaust.

A. Overheating of engine coolant.

The distance a vehicle travels from the point where the driver begins transfering his/her foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal until the apparatus comes to a complete stop is called the ____ distance.

A. Braking.

B. Driver-reaction.

C. Total stopping.

D. Total reaction.

C. Total stopping.

Which of the following hazardous conditions contribute to the adverse effects of weight transfer?

A. Abrupt steeting.

B. Driving on slippery roads.

C. Driving on excessively steep slopes.

D. Both A and C are correct.

D. Both A and C are correct.

The weight carried on most fire apparatus can contribute to ____ due to excessive weight transfer.

A. Skidding.

B. Apparatus rollover.

C. Delay in the driver's brake reaction time.

D. Both A and B are correct.

D. Both A and B are correct.

If an apparatus begins to skid, the DO should:

A. Gradually apply the brakes, bringing the apparatus to a halt.

B. Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid.

C. Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction opposite to the direction of the skid.

D. Quickly release pressure from the accelerator.

B. Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid.

Engine brakes, which assist in braking, are activated when:

A. Pressure is applied to the brake.

B. Brief, rapid brake applications are made.

C. Pressure is released from the accelerator.

D. All of the above are correct.

C. Pressure is released from the accelerator.

When at an intersection, apparatus should be brought to a complete stop if:

A. There are any obstructions that block the view of the intersection.

B. The DO cannot account for all lanes of traffic.

C. It is a controlled intersection.

D. A and B are both correct.

D. A and B are both correct.

According to NFPA 1500, during response to emergency or nonemergency situations, the driver shall ____ at all unguarded railroad crossings.

A. Use caution.

B. Proceed at a maximim or 5 mph.

C. Come to a complete stop.

D. Stop only when a train is in sight from either direction.

C. Come to a complete stop.

Blind and heavily traveled intersections should be approached and crossed:

A. At a speed 10 mph below the posted speed limit.

B. At a maximum speed of 10 mph over the posted speed limit.

C. At a speed allowing for a stop before entering the intersection.

D. Only after coming to a complete stop.

D. Only after coming to a complete stop.

The angle from the rear point of ground contact of the rear tire to any projection of the apparatus behind the rear axle is considered:

A. Angle of return.

B. Angle of departure.

C. Angle of approach.

D. Longitudinal approach.

B. Angle of departure.

Operating engines below the minimum coolant temperature may result in:

A. Excessive cylinder wear.

B. Inefficient operation.

C. Decreased valve deposits.

D. Decreased fuel consumption.

B. Inefficient operation.

All fire apparatus should be equipped with ____ when the apparatus is backing up.

A. Opti-com.

B. Four-way flashers that notify orthers.

C. An alarm system that warns others.

D. Rear spotlights.

C. An alarm system that warns others.

The purpose of the Serpentine Course is to simulate:

A. Backing a vehicle into a restricted area.

B. Maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

C. Steering a vehicle in a straight line.

D. Turning a vehicle around in a confined space.

B. Maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

While responding to an emergency where all lanes of traffic are blocked in the same direction as the responding apparatus, the apparatus driver should:

A. Position the apparatus in the middle lane behind the blocked traffic, wait for one lane to clear, then proceed at a reduced rate of speed.

B. Move the apparatus to the farthest point on the right, passing on the right shoulder at an extremely reduced rate of speed.

C. Maintain the current lane position and wait for the lane to clear, then proceed through the intersection at a reduced rate of speed,

D. Move the apparatus into the opposing lane of traffic and proceed through the intersection at an extremely reduced rate of speed.

D. Move the apparatus into the opposing lane of traffic and proceed through the intersection at an extremely reduced rate of speed.

Many accidents involving apparatus are caused by the operator:

A. Focusing too much on the traffic in front of the apparatus.

B. Stopping at intersections.

C. Misunderstanding the capabilities of the apparatus.

D. Both A and C are correct.

C. Misunderstanding the capabilities of the apparatus.

When an apparatus driver is faced with a situation requiring evasive tactics, the driver should attempt to pass the overtaked vehicle on:

A. The left side.

B. The right side.

C. Either the left or right side.

D. The passenger side.

A. The left side.

The purpose of the confined space turnaround is to simulate:

A. Backing a vehicle into a restricted area.

B. Maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

C. Steering a vehicle in a straight line.

D. Reversing the direction of travel in a narrow street.

D. Reversing the direction of travel in a narrow street.

On sharp curves or when turning corners, apparatus drivers should shift standard transmissions into a ____ gear ____ entering the curve or intersection.

A. Lower, after.

B. Higher, before.

C. Lower, before.

D. Higher, after.

C. Lower, before.

The purpose of the diminishing clearance driving skill is to measure a driver's ability to:

A. Maneuver around stopped vehicles.

B. Steer apparatus in a straight line.

C. Parallel park.

D. Turn the vehicle 180 degrees.

B. Steer apparatus in a straight line.

The use of warning devices is essential when responding to an alarm, and in doing so:

A. Negates all traffic laws.

B. Allows passing stopped school buses.

C. Negates most traffic laws.

D. Does not allow the driver to disregard othe drivers.

D. Does not allow the driver to disregard othe drivers.

Being aware of all that is happening and is likely to happen ahead, at the sides and to the rear of the apparatus are techniques of:

A. Aggresive driving.

B. Offensive friving.

C. Defensive driving.

D. Reactive driving.

C. Defensive driving.

The type of pumper which is usually equipped with four-wheel drive and typically has a pump with a capacity of less than 500 gpm is known as a:

A. Midipumper.

B. Minipumper.

C. Tender.

D. All of the above are correct.

B. Minipumper.

The changeover transfer valve on a two-stage pump should be checked for proper operation:

A. Monthly.

B. Weekly.

C. Periodically.

D. Biweekly.

B. Weekly.

Pumps that are commonly used as priming pumps are known as:

A. Centrifugal.

B. Piston.

C. Rotary-gear.

D. Rotary-valve.

C. Rotary-gear.

The spiral chamber of a centrifugal pump in which the velocity given to water by the impeller is converted onto pressure is called the:

A. Body.

B. Discharge housing.

C. Casing.

D. Volute.

D. Volute.

A ____ valve is used to relieve pressure in hose lines after the discharge gates are closed.

A. Discharge.

B. Drain.

C. Bypass.

D. Relief.

B. Drain.

When priming, water enters the pump because:

A. Atmospheric pressure forces it into the pump.

B. The pump pulls the water in from the static source.

C. The rotating motion of the centrifugal pump creates a vacuum.

D. All of the above are correct.

A. Atmospheric pressure forces it into the pump.

A ____ guage is calibrated to read both positive and negative pressure.

A. Compound.

B. Pressure.

C. Discharge.

D. Centrifugal.

A. Compound.

Switch from pressure to volume operation when:

A. Operating from a hydrant.

B. There is reason to believe that more than half of the rated capacity of the pump will be required.

C. A higher than normal pressure will be required.

D. Both A and B are correct.

B. There is reason to believe that more than half of the rated capacity of the pump will be required.

Apparatus equipped with water tanks of less than 500 gallons must provide a tank-to-pump flow rate of ____ gpm. Those with tanks larger than 500 gallons must provide ____ gpm.

A. 500, 700.

B. 250, 500.

C. 200, 400.

D. 500, 750.

B. 250, 500.

A device used to indicate water pressure in pounds-per-square-inch is a ____ guage.

A. Pressure.

B. Vacuum.

C. Flowmeter.

D. All of the above are correct.

A. Pressure.

A "0" psi reading on most pressure gauges is actually ____ psi, pressure at sea level.

A. 10.3

B. 12.5

C. 13.9

D. 14.7

D. 14.7

The ____ is the major component of the centrifugal pump because it provides velocity to the water.

A. Housing.

B. Volute.

C. Vane.

D. Impeller.

D. Impeller.

Given a pump that is in gear and supplied by tank water with no discharges open, what priciple of pressure is represented?

A. Pressure applied to a confined fluid from without is transmitted equally in all directions.

B. Pressure of a liquid on the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel.

C. Pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth.

D. Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it occurs.

A. Pressure applied to a confined fluid from without is transmitted equally in all directions.

Switch from volume/pressure to pressure/volume operation when:

A. A large dischage outlet is being used.

B. More than two-thirds of the rated capacity of the pump will be required.

C. A higher than normal pressure will be required.

D. More than half the rated capacity of the pump will be needed.

B. More than two-thirds of the rated capacity of the pump will be required.

____ enables apparatus to be driven and discharge water on the fire at the same time.

A. Power take-off.

B. Inverter.

C. Power transfer.

D. All of the above are correct.

A. Power take-off.

In a ____ hydrant, a small drain valve opens as the hydrant is closed.

A. Wet-barrel.

B. Dry-barrel.

C. Drafting.

D. High-pressure.

B. Dry-barrel.

The purpose of the ____ is to provide circulating feed from several mains.

A. Distriburors.

B. Water source.

C. Distrubution system.

D. Grid system.

D. Grid system.

Dry hydrants should be opened completely because:

A. They will not work when partially opened.

B. The drain valve is completely closed.

C. A partially opened hydrant traps air.

D. The pressure is greatly reduced.

B. The drain valve is completely closed.

In a water distribution grid, the ____ supplies individual hydrants and blocks of consumers.

A. Primary feeder.

B. Secondary feeder.

C. Distributor.

D. Service line.

C. Distributor.

____ inches is considered the minimum size pipe to be used in residential areas.

A. Four.

B. Six.

C. Eight.

D. Ten.

B. Six.

A ____ distribution system is a network of water mains.

A. Distributor.

B. Primary feeder.

C. District.

D. Grid.

D. Grid.

As a standard practice, it is undesirable to reduce incoming supply pressure below ____ psi.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

C. 20

The water level of a reservoir is 150 feet above a fire hydrant. What is the static reading at the hydrant?

A. 43.4 psi

B. 54.2 psi

C. 65.1 psi

D. 98.6 psi

C. 65.1 psi

The pressure remaining once water has begun flowing is known as ____ pressure.

A. Residual.

B. Static.

C. Flow.

D. Nomal operating.

A. Residual.

When a hose is connected to a hydrant, the static pressure is 80 psi. When a 1.5" line flowing 100 gpm is placed in service, the pressure drops to 70 psi. The estimated remaining gpm available is ____ gpm.

A. 80

B. 100

C. 200

D. 300

C. 200

Available flow from hydrants is estimated by determining the percent drop between the static and ____ pressures.

A. Residual.

B. Flow.

C. Intake.

D. Discharge.

A. Residual.

Friction loss is usually expressed in terms of:

A. Pounds per square inch per 50 feet of hose.

B. Pounds per square inch per 100 feet of hose.

C. Gallons per minute per 50 feet of hose.

D. Gallons per minute per 100 feet of hose.

B. Pounds per square inch per 100 feet of hose.

A 2.5" fog nozzle flowing 225 gpm at a pressure of 100 psi will have a reaction of approximately ____ pounds.

A. 114

B. 110

C. 125

D. 140

A. 114

In drafting operations, pumping ability decreases when:

A. Barometric pressure increases.

B. Atmospheric pressure increases.

C. Atmospheric pressure decreases.

D. Absolute pressure decreases.

C. Atmospheric pressure decreases.

____ denotes a force-per-unit area, with the measurements of force in pounds and the measurement of area in square inches.

A. Flow.

B. Weight.

C. Force.

D. Pressure.

D. Pressure.

A ladder pipe with a 2-inch tip at 80 psi nozzle pressure will have approximately ____ pounds of nozzle reaction.

A. 500

B. 400

C. 55

D. 480

A. 500

What is the approximate friction loss in 400 feet of 2.5" hose flowing 300 gpm?

A. 21 psi

B. 45 psi

C. 72 psi

D. 98 psi

C. 72 psi

What is the friction loss in 300 feet of 2.5" rubber-lined hose flowing 350 gpm?

A. 21 psi

B. 28 psi

C. 56 psi

D. 74 psi

D. 74 psi

What is the approximate engine pump pressure that is necessary to deliver 600 gpm through a fog nozzle on a deck gun using three 2.5" lines? The lines are 400" long and the deck gun is elevated 20 feet above the pumper. (Deck gun FL = 10 psi)

A. 130 psi

B. 150 psi

C. 170 psi

D. 180 psi

B. 150 psi

The formula 29.7 d² √NP can be used to estimate the:

A. Velocity of water in feet-per-minute.

B. Nozzle reaction for fog nozzles.

C. Nozzle reaction for straight tip nozzles.

D. Flow of water in gallons-per-minute.

D. Flow of water in gallons-per-minute.

The  recommended nozzle pressure for 2.5" hand lines with solid bore tips is ____ psi.

A. 50

B. 80

C. 100

D. 150

A. 50

The rocemmended nozzle pressure for solid bore master streams two inches or less is ____ psi.

A. 50

B. 80

C. 100

D. 150

B. 80

The recommended pressure for fog nozzles (all types) is ____ psi.

A. 50

B. 80

C. 100

D. 150

C. 100

When the flow through a hose line increases from 100 gpm to 400 gpm, the friction loss increases ____ times.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 12

D. 16

D. 16

Theoretically, the maximum distance a pump can lift water at sea level is ____ feet.

A. 33.8

B. 25.3

C. 20

D. 14.7

A. 33.8

The formula for the nozzle reaction of a solid-stream nozzle is:

A. NR=gpm/100

B. NR=1.57d²NP

C. NR=.0505Q√NP

D. NR=29.7d²√NP

B. NR=1.57d²NP

Using the "Condensed Q" method as a "rule of thumb", the friction loss is 500 feet of 3-inch fire hose flowing 300 gpm is:

A. 60 psi

B. 55 psi

C. 50 psi

D. 45 psi

D. 45 psi

Using the "Condensed Q" "rule of thumb" formula, the friction loss is 600 feet of 3-inch hose flowing 500 gpm is approximately:

A. 100 psi

B. 125 psi

C. 150 psi

D. 175 psi

C. 150 psi

The friction loss is 300 feet of 3-inch fire hose with 2.5" couplings flowing 500 gpm is approximately:

A. 60 psi

B. 55 psi

C. 33 psi

D. 22 psi

A. 60 psi

What is the desired pump pressure when supplying two lines of 2.5" hose, one 200 feet long and one 300 feet long, each with a 250 gpm nozzle is operating at 100 psi?

A. 125 psi

B. 107 psi

C. 138 psi

D. 162 psi

C. 138 psi

The friction loss in 200' of 2.5" fire hose, with a flow of 90 gpm, is approximately:

A. 3.24 psi

B. 2.07 psi

C. 1.62 psi

D. 6.28 psi

A. 3.24 psi

The total friction loss in 500 feet of 3-inch fire hose with 300 gpm flowing is approximately:

A. 4 psi

B. 36 psi

C. 63 psi

D. 105 psi

B. 36 psi

The recommended method of determining the exact friction loss of any appliance is to:

A. Check NFPA tables.

B. Run tests with each appliance used by the department.

C. Review manufacturer's specifications.

D. Both A and C are correct.

B. Run tests with each appliance used by the department.

Excessive engine temperatures during pumping operations can be controlled by using the:

A. Tank-to-fill valve.

B. Auxiliary cooler.

C. Radiator cooler.

D. Immersion bypass.

B. Auxiliary cooler.

A straight stream is considered:

A. A deflection solid stream.

B. A non-deflected solid stream.

C. A pattern of an adjustable fog nozzle.

D. A pattern of a smooth orifice nozzle.

C. A pattern of an adjustable fog nozzle.

An operator obtains a reading of 17 inches of mercury on the intake gauge while drafting and flowing water. This indicates:

A. A lift of approcimately 17 feet.

B. The pump is cavitating.

C. That the gauge is not working properly since it should be reading in psi.

D. That there is and air leak in the system.

A. A lift of approcimately 17 feet.

The device that can be used to determine pressure at the opening of a smooth bore opening is a:

A. Venturi meter.

B. Pitot tube.

C. Flow meter.

D. Compound gauge.

B. Pitot tube.

Which primer utilizes the venturi principle?

A. Exhaust primer.

B. Rotary-gear primer.

C. Rotary-vane primer.

D. Vacuum primer.

A. Exhaust primer.

The main purpose of a relief valve is to:

A. Relieve excessive pressure within the pump.

B. Allow increase to pump discharge.

C. Transfer excessive pressure back to the discharge side of the pump.

D. Prevent the increase in pump discharge when not pumping.

A. Relieve excessive pressure within the pump.

For drafting purposes, "lift" is measured from the ____ of the pump.

A. Bottom of the strainer to the top.

B. Surface of water to center.

C. Surface of water to bottom.

D. Bottom of the strainer to the center.

B. Surface of water to center.

A relief valve bypasses excess water from the discharge side of the pump to the:

A. Pump intake.

B. Bleeder valve.

C. Water tank.

D. Bypass valve.

A. Pump intake.

During an effective water shuttle operation requiring two pumpers, the pumper located near the emergency scene is called the:

A. Fill site pumper.

B. Dump site pumper.

C. Source pumper.

D. Shuttle tender/tanker.

B. Dump site pumper.

In a working fire, which of the following apparatus has the highest priority for position?

A. Aerial apparatus.

B. Chief's car.

C. Tender/tanker.

D. Engine.

A. Aerial apparatus.

Flowmeters can be used to assist the DO in all of the following applications except:

A. Diagnosing water flow problems.

B. Determining the percentage of foam concentrate.

C. Relay pumping.

D. Standpipe operations.

B. Determining the percentage of foam concentrate.

Using the hand method, determine the total pressure loss due to friction in 600 feet of 2.5" hose when a fog nozzle is flowing 150 gpm at 100 psi.

A. 4.5 psi

B. 145 psi

C. 27 psi

D. 127 psi

C. 27 psi

 Using the Condensed "Q" Formula, determine the total pressure loss for each line:

Line 1: 600 feet of 3" hose flowing 400 gpm.

Line 2: 800 feet of 3" hose flowing 300 gpm.

A. Line 1 TPL = 96 psi. Line 2 TPL = 72 psi

B. Line 1 TPL = 16 psi. Line 2 TPL = 9 psi.

C. Line 1 TPL = 48 psi. Line 2 TPL = 27 psi.

D. Line 1 TPL = 192 psi. Line 2 TPL = 144 psi.

A. Line 1 TPL = 96 psi. Line 2 TPL = 72 psi

When determinimg the size of a water tender/tanker, a department should consider:

A. Dump sites.

B. Travel time for response.

C. Valve capacity.

D. Bridge weight restrictions.

D. Bridge weight restrictions.

When calculating the time for a water shuttle operation, timing starts when:

A. Water begins drafting from the tank.

B. The dump valve is opened on the tender.

C. The tender is empty.

D. The tender returns with a new tank of water.

B. The dump valve is opened on the tender.

Natural static water supply sources include:

A. lakes.

B. Streams.

C. Swimming pools.

D. Both A and B are correct.

D. Both A and B are correct.

Which of the following is not a consideration or factor in determining the usability of a static water source.

A. Silt and debris.

B. Depth of water.

C. Water pressure.

D. Freezing weather.

C. Water pressure.

When a centrifugal pump loses prime at draft, check for:

A. Loose intake connection.

B. A clogged strainer.

C. An open pump drain.

D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct.

When lowering a strainer into the water, it should have ____ inches of water around it.

A. 24

B. 18

C. 12

D. 36

A. 24

When priming a centrifugal pump, it is necessary to:

A. Make the pump air tight.

B. Run the engine at proper speed.

C. Open discharge gates slowly when pressure gauge indicates 50 to 100 psi.

D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct.

When making an intake connection at a hydrant, the intake hose should:

A. Be as tight as possible.

B. Have a slight curve.

C. Be slightly higher than the pump intake.

D. All of the above are correct.

B. Have a slight curve.

On a working fire, if the apparatus must position up a long, narrow driveway, it is best if:

A. The apparatus leaves all the supply hose at the end of the driveway.

B. The appatatus lays the supply hose in as it moves into position.

C. It had second apparatus bring its supply hose by reversing out.

D. All of the above are correct.

B. The appatatus lays the supply hose in as it moves into position.

In a large defensive operations, the main positioning factor is to:

A. Be close enough to operate pre-connects efficiently.

B. Avoid parking in an area of high radiant heat.

C. Avoid areas of possible flying embers.

D. Both B and C are correct.

D. Both B and C are correct.

The DO must always make sure the ____ completely open when filling or dumping is taking place to prevent damage to the tank.

A. Compartment doors.

B. Vents.

C. Valves.

D. Hydrants.

B. Vents.

Three primary methods can be used to operate a dump site. Which one of the following choices is not a method of operation?

A. Direct pumping.

B. Relay pumping.

C. Nurse tender.

D. Portable water rank.

B. Relay pumping.

In a shuttle operation, what is the available gpm for fire flow if:

Tanker A: 3000 tank, trip time 12 minutes.

Tanker B: 2500 tank, trip time 10 minutes.

Tanker C: 1000 tank, trip time 10 minutes.

A. 6501 gpm.

B. 2166 gpm.

C. 540 gpm.

D. 203 gpm.

D. 203 gpm.

When using 2.5" or 3" hoselines to supply the pumper directly off hydrant pressure, it is recommended that the lines be no longer than:

A. 100 feet.

B. 150 feet.

C. 200 feet.

D. 300 feet.

D. 300 feet.

NFPA requires that a pumper must pump its rated capacity at ____ of lift.

A. 8 feet.

B. 10 feet.

C. 12 feet.

D. 20 feet.

B. 10 feet.

The minimum depth of water required to pull a draft is:

A. 2 feet.

B. 4 feet.

C. 6 feet.

D. 8 feet.

B. 4 feet.

If an apparatus and crew arrive on scene where no fire conditions are evident, or there is a nothing-showing mode, it is advisable to position the apparatus:

A. Near the main entrance.

B. At the hydrant.

C. At the nearest intersection.

D. Near the FDC.

A. Near the main entrance.

In a relay pump operation, any adjustment of pressure at the source pumper is made to maintain the minimum ____ pressure at the next pumper in line.

A. Discharge.

B. Static.

C. Intake.

D. Flow.

C. Intake.

A dual-pumping operation is:

A. Two pumpers requiring the same gpm.

B. Two pumpers with equal discharge pressure.

C. Mainly utilized dering relay operations.

D. Placing a second pumper at a hydrant and connecting both pumpers intake-to-intake.

D. Placing a second pumper at a hydrant and connecting both pumpers intake-to-intake.

Development of effective fire streams is dependent upon:

A. Friction.

B. Nozzle pressure.

C. Elevation.

D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct.

Pump discharge pressure (PDP) is equal to:

A. NP/FL.

B. NP x TPL.

C. NP + TPL.

D. NF²/NP.

C. NP + TPL.

Using the coefficient method, determine the pressure loss due to friction in the following layout:

Two 1000', 3" hoses to one 300', 2.5" hose with a 1.25" tip at 50 psi. (Don't count appliance loss)

A. 65 psi.

B. 120.20 psi.

C. 86.5 psi.

D. 21.5 psi.

C. 86.5 psi.

When relay pumping, if the intake pressure drops below 20 psi:

A. The throttle most be increased.

B. These is danger of a cavitation.

C. The relay valve is set too low.

D. High pump discharge pressure is needed.

B. These is danger of a cavitation.

The residual pressure reading at the intake gauge of a pumper in a relay pumping operation should not fall below ____ psi.

A. 10

B. 20

C. 5

D. 14.7

B. 20

The formula for calulating the gpm flow rate for a tender is:

A. Tank size + 10% divided by trip time.

B. Tank size - 10% divided by trip time.

C. Tank size divided by trip time - 10°

D. Tank size divided by trip time + 10º

B. Tank size - 10% divided by trip time.

The most efficient method of unloading a tender/tanker is to:

A. Dump the water into portable tanks using gravity.

B. Dump the water into a portable tank using a jet-assisted dump valve.

C. Pump the water into a dump using two 3-inch lines.

D. A and B are equally efficient.

D. A and B are equally efficient.

Fire fighting foam consists of approximately ____ percent water.

A. 6-10

B. 3-6

C. 94-99.9

D. 40-60

C. 94-99.9

An example of a polar sovent is:

A. Fuel oil.

B. Acetone.

C. Kerosene.

D. Both A and C are correct.

B. Acetone.

When using an in-line eductor, the back pressure must not exceed ____ pressure:

A. 20-25 percent of the inlet.

B. 65-70 percent of the inlet.

C. 94-99 percent of the inlet.

D. 40-50 percent of the inlet.

B. 65-70 percent of the inlet.

The process that causes foam concentrate to move through the device and into the water stream is called the ____ priciple.

A. Venturi.

B. Syphon.

C. Suction.

D. Flow.

A. Venturi.

You are trying to generate foam using an in-line eductor and a five-gallon bucket of foam. The foam that is being generated is of very poor quality. Which of the following is/are a common reason(s) for the failure?

A. Eductor and nozzle do not match.

B. Air leak in the pump.

C. Pressure relief is not set.

D. All of the above are common reasons for failure.

A. Eductor and nozzle do not match.

The high cost of foam has prompted departments to use water instead of foam during testing. Because of the difference in ____ the rate of pickup is slightly different.

A. Weight.

B. Specific gravity.

C. Surface tension.

D. Viscosity.

D. Viscosity.

Directions: Read each statement below and select your answer from alternatives A-D below.

1. The foam concentrate inlet to the eductor should not be more than three feet above the liquid surface of the foam concentrate.

2. If the inlet is too high, foam may not be inducted at all.

3. If the inlet is too high, foam may ge very lean.

A. Statement 1 is correct; statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

B. All statements are correct.

C. Statement 1 is incorrect; statements 2 and 3 are correct.

D. Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect; statement 2 is correct.

C. Statement 1 is incorrect; statements 2 and 3 are correct.

When using foam, the selection of a proportioner depends on:

A. The foam solution flow requirements and length and size of the attack line.

B. Available water pressure and type of product burning.

C. Required ratio of foam and length and size of the attack line.

D. The foam solution flow requirements and available water pressure.

D. The foam solution flow requirements and available water pressure.

Most alcohol-resistant foams are effective in controlling hydrocabon fires when used at a ____ concentration.

A. Three percent.

B. Six perecent.

C. Ten percent.

D. Thirty-six percent.

A. Three persent.

A primary reason for eductor failure is:

A. Too high from concentration.

B. Too low from concentration.

C. Improper cleaning and maintenance of equipment.

D. The wrong brand of foam is being used.

C. Improper cleaning and maintenance of equipment.

When pumping to a standpipe system, a pump operator should always allow ____ friction loss for the standpipe system itself.

A. 5 psi per floor.

B. 5 psi.

C. 10 psi.

D. 25 psi.

D. 25 psi.

Pump discharge pressures in excess of ____ psi may damage the standpipe system and result is breaks.

A. 100

B. 200

C. 150

D. 175

B. 200

The pump discharge pressure needed to supply standpipes depends upon the:

A. Height of the fire floor.

B. Size and number of fire streams in operation.

C. Friction loss in the standpipe.

D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct.

When using hose lines above ground, the usual pressure calculation is to add ____ psi for each story of the building below the fire floor.

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 2

A. 5

When supplying a sprinkler connection, a minimum of ____ should be used.

A. Two 3" lines.

B. Two 1.75" lines.

C. One 2.5" line.

D. One 3" line.

 D. One 3" line.

When supplying a sprinkler system, a good rule of thumb is to maintain a pump discharge pressure of ____ psi.

A. 125

B. 150

C. 175

D. 200

B. 150