The angle from the front pont of ground contact to the front tire to any projection of the apparatus in front of the front axle is considered:

A. Angle of return.

B. Angle of departure.

C. Angle of approach.

D. Lateral angle.

C. Angle of approach. (451)

____ is defined as keeping apparatus in a sate of usefulness or readiness.

A. Repair.

B. Maintenance.

C. Reliability.

D. All of the above are correct.

B. Maintenance. (458)

Checking and documenting the oil level, radiator coolant, fuel level, tires and visible and audible warning signeal is normally considered to be part of ____ maintenance.

A. Daily.

B. Quarterly.

C. Monthly.

D. Periodic.

A. Daily. (22-36)

When performing a capacity test, the first desired pump pressure should be ____ psi.

A. 100

B. 150

C. 200

D. 250

B. 150 (391)

Inspecting all valves would be considered ap part of ____ maintenance.

A. Daily

B. Quarterly

C. Monthy

D. Bimonthly

A. Daily (40)

To select the proper lubricant, consideration must be given to the:

A. Manufacturer's warranty.

B. Climate.

C. Frequency of lubrication.

D. Manufacturer's recommendations.

D. Manufacturer's recommendations. (38)

To ____ means to restore or replace that which has become inoperable.

A. Service.

B. Remove.

C. Maintain.

D. Repair.

D. Repair. (22 and 455)

Apparatus maintenance records serve many functions, such as:

A. Filing warranty claims with the manufacturer.

B. Documenting recurrent repairs.

C. Indicating the type of cleaning solution to be used.

D. Both A and B are correct.

D. Both A and B are correct. (23)

Before turning corners or approaching curves, the DO should:

A. Remain in the same gear and decelerate.

B. Remain in the same gear and apply the brake.

C. Shift a standard transmission into a lower gear.

D. Shift an automatic transmission into a lower gear.

C. Shift a standard transmission into a lower gear. (54)

The distance a vehicle travels from the time the driver begins to apply the brakes until it comes to a complete stop is known as:

A. Braking distance.

B. Total reaction distance.

C. Visual lead distance.

D. Brake performance distance.

A. Braking distance. (62 and 451)

The most common cause(s) of fire apparatus slidding is/are:

A. Driving too fast for road conditions.

B. Anticipating obstacles in the road.

C. Weight shifts of heavy apparatus.

D. Both A and C are correct.

D. Both A and C are correct. (63)

Apparatus are most likely to be involved in an accident at/on:

A. Off/on ramps.

B. Intersections.

C. Freeways.

D. Railroad crossings.

B. Intersections. (60)

Most driving regulations pertain to environmental conditions that are:

A. Snowy and icy.

B. Wat and rainy.

C. Dark and foggy.

D. Dry and clear.

D. Dry and clear. (5 and 49)

A SO of an emergency vehicle who does not obey state, local or departmental driving regulations is:

A. Protected under the Good Samaritan Law.

B. Subject to criminal prosecution only.

C. Exempt from any presecution.

D. Subject to criminal and civil prosecution.

D. Subject to criminal and civil prosecution. (6 and 49)

Unless specifically exempt, when driving fire apparatus, the fire apparatus DOs are generally subject to any/all:

A. NFPA 1901 guidelines.

B. Statues, rules, regulations and ordinances.

C. National Emergency Vehicle Response Commission Guidelines.

D. Department of Motor Vehicle registration rules.

B. Statues, rules, regulations and ordinances. (5 and 49)

Safety bars on fire apparatus are designed to:

A. Be a substitute for safety belts.

B. Keep eequipment from falling off the apparatus.

C. Allow firefighters to stand upright while the vehicle is in motion.

D. Keep a firefighter from falling out of a jump seat.

D. Keep a firefighter from falling out of a jump seat. (58-59)

You are responding to an amergency on a three-lane highway during moderately heavy traffic conditions. You are in the center lane. The vehicle ahead, which you are rapidly overtaking, stops! There is insufficient space to stop without stiking the vehicle. Which of the following evasive tactics should be employed?

A. Slowly move to the right lane and proceed on the call.

B. Brake to reduce speed as you pass on the left side of the stopped vehicle.

C. Brake to reduce speed and pass the stopped vehicle on the right.

D. Accelerate and immediately move to the left lane when passing the stopped vehicle.

B. Brake to reduce speed as you pass on the left side of the stopped vehicle. (65-66)

The weight carried on most fire apparatus can contribute to ____ due to excessive weight transfer.

A. Skidding.

B. Apparatus rollover.

C. Delay in the driver's brake reaction time.

D. Both A and B are correct.

D. Both A and B are correct. (62-64)

If an apparatus begins to skid, the DO should:

A. Gradually apply the brakes, bringing the apparatus to a halt.

B. Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid.

C. Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction opposite to the direction of the skid.

D. Quickly release pressure from the accelerator.

B. Turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid. (64)

The purpose of the alley dock skill is to simulate:

A. Backing a vehicle into a restricted area.

B. Maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

C. Steering a vehicle in a straight line.

D. Turning a vehicle around in a confined space.

A. Backing a vehicle into a restricted area. (71-73)

Because of the size of an apparatus, as well as the clearance needed when backing, the DO should:

A. Back up very slowly, assuring that everyone hears the back-up alarm.

B. Assign a firefighter to clear the way and warn the DO of any obstacle obscured by blind spots.

C. Place traffic cones around the area where the backing up will occur.

D. Turn on all emergency lights, check all mirrors, then proceed to back up in a slow, safe manner.

B. Assign a firefighter to clear the way and warn the DO of any obstacle obscured by blind spots. (59)

The purpose of the Serpentine Course is to simulate:

A. Backing a vehicle into a restricted space.

B. Maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

C. Steering a vehicle in a straight line.

D. Turning a vehicle around in a confined space.

B. Maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners. (71-73)

While responding to an emergency where all lanes of traffic are blocked in the same direction as the responding apparatus, the apparatus driver should:

A. Postition the apparatus in the middle lane behind the blocked traffic, wait for one lane to clear, then proceed at a reduced rate of speed.

B. Move the apparatus to the farthest point on the right, passing on the right shoulder at an exremely reduced rare of speed.

C. Maintain the current lane position and wait for the lane to clear, then proceed through the intersection at a reduced rate of speed.

D. Move the apparatus into the opposing lane of traffic and proceed through the intersection at an extremely reduced rate of speed.

D. Move the apparatus into the opposing lane of traffic and proceed through the intersection at an extremely reduced rate of speed. (60)

The purpose of the confined space turnaround is to simulate:

A. Backing a vehicle into a restricted area.

B. Maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

C. Steering a vehicle in a straight line.

D. Reversing the direction of travel of a vehicle in a narrow street.

D. Reversing the direction of travel of a vehicle in a narrow street. (72)

The confined space turnaround maneuver allows an operator to turn the apparatus ____ degrees.

A. 180

B. 90

C. 45

D. 270

A. 180 (72)

Which of the following driving skills would not require using a spotter?

A. Confined space turnaround.

B. Serpentine.

C. Diminishing clearance.

D. Alley dock.

C. Diminishing clearance. (72-73)

To effectively judge the ability of a vehicle to pass through areas of restricted horizontal and vertical openings, the operator must know:

A. Vehicle dimensions.

B. Department standard operating guidelines.

C. The vehicles weight.

D. All the above are correct.

A. Vehicle dimensions. (72-74)

Studies have shown that an emergency vehicle going faster than ____ mph can possibly putrun its own warning devices.

A. 15

B. 70

C. 50

D. 35

C. 50 (67)

At a speed of 60 mph, a siten is only audible up to ____ feet in front of the vehicle.

A. 12

B. 50

C. 100

D. 200

A. 12 (67)

When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, units should travel at least ____ feet apart.

A. 100 to 200

B. 200 to 300

C. 300 to 500

D. 600

C. 300 to 500 (68)

The purpose of an inverter on an apparatus is to transform:

A. DC current into AC current.

B. AC current into DC current.

C. 12 volts to 24 volts.

D. 220 volts to 110 volts.

A. DC current into AC current. (17)

During a pump capacity test, a pumper should deliver ____ of its rated capacity at 250 psi pressure for 10 minutes.

A. 100%

B. 50 %

C. 70 %

D. 40 %

B. 50 % (392)

Proper apparatus maintenance includes visually checking the tank water level:

A. Daily.

B. Quarterly.

C. Periodically.

D. Biweekly.

A. Daily. (40)

The changover transfer velve on a two-stage pump should be checked for proper operation:

A. Monthly.

B. Weelky.

C. Periodically.

D. Biweekly.

B. Weelky. (41)

In the fire service, each pump impeller in a housing is commonly called a:

A. Casing.

B. Body.

C. Pump.

D. Stage.

D. Stage. (209-210)

The following conditions which affect(s) pumping ability is/are:

A. Ambient temperature.

B. Barometric pressure.

C. Atmospheric pressure.

D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct. (382-383)

Apparatus equipped with water tanks of less than 500 gallons must provide a tank-to-pump flow rate of ____ gpm. Those with tanks larger than 500 gallons must provide ____ gpm.

A. 500, 700

B. 250, 500

C. 200, 400

D. 500, 750

B. 250, 500 (393)

Dry hydrants should be opened completely because:

A. They will not work when partially opened.

B. The drain valve is completely closed.

C. A partially opened hydrant traps air.

D. The pressure is greatly reduced.

B. The drain valve is completely closed. (255-256)

In a water distribution grid, the ____ supplies individual hydrants and blocks of consumers.

A. Primary feeder.

B. Secondary feeder.

C. Distributor.

D. Service line.

C. Distributor. (120-121)

____ is/are caused by corrosion, rust, chemical constituents of the water and growth of biological organisms.

A. Encrustation.

B. Sedimentation.

C. Filtration.

D. All of the above are correct.

A. Encrustation. (123)

A ____ distribution system is a network of water mains.

A. Distributor.

B. Primary feeder.

C. District.

D. Grid.

D. Grid. (120)

For business and industrial districts, water mains should be at least:

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

B. 8 (120)

The water level of a reservoir is 150 feet above a fire hydrant. What is the static reading at the hydrant?

A. 43.4 psi

B. 54.2 psi

C. 65.1 psi

D. 98.6 psi

C. 65.1 psi (112)

The pressure ramaining once water has begun flowing is known as ____ pressure.

A. Residual.

B. Static.

C. Flow.

D. Normal operating.

A. Residual. (113)

The part of the total pressure not used to overcome friction or gravity while forcing water through fire hose, pipe, fittings and adapters is known as:

A. Static pressure.

B. Friction loss.

C. Residual pressure.

D. Flow pressure.

C. Residual pressure. (113)

____ pressure is the difference between the pump discharge pressure and the incoming pressure from the hydrant.

A. Maximum discharge.

B. Residual.

C. Net discharge pressure.

D. Pump intake.

C. Net discharge pressure. (164, 190 and 458)

Friction loss is usually expressed in terms of:

A. Pounds per square inch per 50 feet of hose.

B. Pounds per square inch per 100 feet of hose.

C. Gallons per minute per 50 feet of hose.

D. Gallons per minute per 100 feet of hose.

B. Pounds per square inch per 100 feet of hose. (142-143)

In drafting operations, pumping ability decreases when:

A. Barometric pressure increases.

B. Atmospheric pressure increases.

C. Atmospheric pressure decreases.

D. Absolute pressure decreases.

C. Atmospheric pressure decreases. (296-297)

What is the approximate friction loss in 400 feet of 2.5" hose flowing 300 gpm?

A. 21 psi

B. 45 psi

C. 72 psi

D. 98 psi

C. 72 psi (142-143)

The formula (29.7)(D2)(VNP) can be used to estimate the:

A. Velocity of water in feet-per-minute.

B. Nozzle reaction for fog nozzles.

C. Nozzle reaction for straight tip nozzles.

D. Flow of water in gallons-per-minutes.

D. Flow of water in gallons-per-minutes. (127)

The recommended nozzle pressure for solid bore master streams two inches or less is ____ psi.

A. 50

B. 80

C. 100

D. 150

B. 80 (127)

The recommended pressure for fog nozzles (all types) is ____.

A. 50

B. 80

C. 100

D. 150

C. 100 (127-130)

What is the nozzle reaction from a 1.25" tip at 50 psi nozzle pressure:

A. 17 lbs

B. 123 lbs

C. 98 lbs

D. 112 lbs

B. 123 lbs (137)

The pressure created by a column of water due to elevation is known as ____ pressure.

A. Atmospheric

B. Base

C. Head

D. Static

C. Head (111-112 and 456)

A ____ is used to find the flow pressure at a discharge opening.

A. Flow gauge.

B. Velocity gauge.

C. Pitot tube and gauge.

D. Compound gauge.

C. Pitot tube and gauge. (113)

Theoretically, the maximum distance a pump can lift water at sea level is ____ feet.

A. 33.8

B. 25.3

C. 20

D. 14.7

A. 33.8 (297)

Using the "condensed Q" "rule of thumb" formula, the friction loss in 600 feet of 3-inch hose flowing 500 gpm is approximately:

A. 100 psi

B. 125 psi

C. 150 psi

D. 175 psi

C. 150 psi (199)

The friction loss in 300 feet of 3-inch fire hose with 2.5" couplings flowing 500 gpm is approximately:

A. 60 psi

B. 55 psi

C. 33 psi

D. 22 psi

A. 60 psi (142-143)

To calculate friction loss in 2.5" fire hose when the flow is near 100 gpm, which of the following formulas should be used?

A. FL = 2Q²+Q

B. FL = 2Q²

C. FL = CQ²L

D. FL = 2Q²÷½Q

C. FL = CQ²L (142-143)

What is the desired pump pressure when supplying two lines of 2.5" hose, one 200 feet long and one 300 feet long, each with a 250 gpm nozzle operating at 100 psi?

A. 125 psi

B. 107 psi

C. 138 psi

D. 162 psi

C. 138 psi (155, 161-164)

The friction loss in 200 feet of 2.5" fire hose, with a flow of 90 gpm, is approximately:

A. 3.24 psi

B. 2.07 psi

C. 1.62 psi

D. 6.28 psi

A. 3.24 psi (142-143)

The total friction loss in 500 feet of 3-inch fire hose with 300 gpm flowing is approximately:

A. 4 psi

B. 36 psi

C. 63 psi

D. 105 psi

B. 36 psi (142-143)

In an auxiliary cooling system, heat is transferred from the engine cooling water to the:

A. Transmission cooler.

B. Radiator.

C. Pump discharge.

D. Pump water.

D. Pump water. (239-240)

The formula used to determine water flow from any solid stream nozzle when the nozzle pressure and tip diameter are known is:

A. CQ²L

B. 29.7 d² √NP

C. 14.7 X D X √NP

D. 29.7d² X .434

B. 29.7 d² √NP (127)

The transition from the water tank to an external water supply:

A. Should be made prior to putting the pump into gear.

B. Must be accomplished when attack lines are not operating.

C. Must be made without disrupting the fire attack.

D. Should be accomplished once the external supply is connected to the proper discharge.

C. Must be made without disrupting the fire attack. (247-249)

A ____ indicates flow in gallons per minute.

A. Compound gauge.

B. Vacuum gauge.

C. Flowmeter.

D. Bourdon tube.

C. Flowmeter. (192)

The DO has set the apparatus up for the pumping operation. If the tachometer shows an rpm reading, but the speedometer does not, it could indicate that the:

A. Transmission is in the wrong gear.

B. Transmission is not engaged.

C. A and B are both correct.

D. Pump is cavitating.

C. A and B are both correct. (249)

The device that can be used to determine pressure at the opening of a smooth bore opening is a:

A. Venturi tube.

B. Pitot tube.

C. Flow meter.

D. Compound gauge.

B. Pitot tube. (113 and 459)

The main purpose of a relief valve is to:

A. Relieve excessive pressure within the pump.

B. Allow increase to pump discharge.

C. Transfer excessive pressure back to the discharge side of the pump.

D. Prevent the increase in pump discharge when not pumping.

A. Relieve excessive pressure within the pump. (228-229)

When pumping from a tank and attack lines are being used intermittently, what are some of the ways the pump operator can ensure that the pump does not overheat?

A. Set the circulation valve to tank position.

B. Crack open the tank fill valve.

C. Discharge the booster reel into the tank.

D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct. (225, 248 and 257)

The maximum height to which water can be drafted is near ____ feet, as opposed to the theoretical lift of 33.8 feet.

A. 10

B. 25

C. 14.7

D. 30

B. 25 (297)

For drafting purposes, "lift" is measured from the ____ of the pump.

A. Bottom of the strainer to the top.

B. Surface of water to center.

C. Surface of water to bottom.

D. Bottom of the strainer to the center.

B. Surface of water to center. (296)

One gallon of water weighs ____ pounds.

A. 5.60

B. 7.12

C. 8.33

D. 9.12

C. 8.33 (332)

One primary way to increase the efficiency of water shuttle operations is to:

A. Decrease the time required to fill the tender.

B. Increase the size of the dump tank.

C. Decrease the required fire flow.

D. Increase the size of the attack pumper.

A. Decrease the time required to fill the tender. (333)

In a working fire, which of the following apparatus gas the highest priority for position?

A. Aerial apparatus

B. Chief's car

C. Tander/tanker

D. Engine

A. Aerial apparatus (81-82)

Flowmeters can be used to assist the DO in all of the following applications except:

A. Diagnosing water flow problems.

B. Determining the percentage of foam concentrate.

C. Relay pumping.

D. Standpipe operations.

B. Determining the percentage of foam concentrate. (194)

Using the hand method, determine the total pressure loss due to friction in 600 feet of 2.5" hose when a fog nozzle is flowing 150 gpm at 100 psi.

A. 4.5 psi

B. 145 psi

C. 27 psi

D. 127 psi

C. 27 psi (198)

Using the Condensed "Q" Formula, determine the total pressure loss for each line":

Line 1 is 600 feet of 3-inch hose flowing 400 gpm.

Line 2 is 800 feet of 3-inch hose flowing 300 gpm.

A. Line 1 TPL = 96 psi. Line 2 TPL = 72 psi.

B. Line 1 TPL = 16 psi. Line 2 TPL = 9 psi.

C. Line 1 TPL = 48 psi. Line 2 TPL = 27 psi.

D. Line 1 TPL = 192 psi. Line 2 TPL = 144 psi.

A. Line 1 TPL = 96 psi. Line 2 TPL = 72 psi. (199)

Which of the following is not a consideration or factor in determining the usability of a static water source?

A. Silt and debris.

B. Depth of water.

C. Water pressure.

D. Freezing weather.

C. Water pressure. (303)

Which of the following is an important consideration for water shuttle operation?

A. The location of the dump site.

B. The location of the fill site.

C. The route of travel for the tenders.

D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct. (336)

The dump site pumper should ____ on the end of the hard intake hose for the ability to remove the most water from a portable tank.

A. Remove the streainer.

B. Use a floating strainer.

C. Use a jet strainer.

D. Use a low-level strainer.

D. Use a low-level strainer. (348)

A dual-pumping operation is:

A. Two pumpers requiring the same gpm.

B. Two pumpers with equal discharge pressure.

C. Mainly utilized during relay operations.

D. Placing a second pumper at a hydrant and connecting both pumpers intake-to-intake.

D. Placing a second pumper at a hydrant and connecting both pumpers intake-to-intake. (88)

Development of effective fire streams is dependent upon:

A. Friction.

B. Nozzle pressure.

C. Elevation.

D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct. (141)

Quantity of water flowing, diameter of hose and length of hose are all factors that influence:

A. Engine pressure.

B. Friction loss.

C. Critical velocity.

D. Discharge pressure.

B. Friction loss. (114-116)

Pump discharge pressure (PDP) is equal to:

A. NP/FL

B. NP X TPL

C. NP + TPL

D. NF²/NP.

C. NP + TPL (161)

Using the Coefficient Method, determine the pressure loss due to friction in the following hose assembly. 

Two 1000', 3" lines siamesed to one 300', 2.5" hose with a 1.25" tip flowing 50 psi.

A. 65 psi

B. 120.20 psi

C. 86.5 psi

D. 21.5 psi

C. 86.5 psi (153)

Using the Hand Method, determine the pump discharge required to supply the following hose assenbly:

Line 1: 150', 2.5", fog nozzle flowing 250 gpm.

Line 2: 400', 2.5", fog nozzle flowing 250 gpm.

A. 175 psi.

B. 150 psi.

C. 125 psi.

D. 100 psi.

B. 150 psi. (161-163)

When repay pumping, the smallest capacity pumper should be:

A. Used at the fire scene.

B. Used at the water source.

C. Positioned closest to the command post.

D. In the middle of the relay operation.

A. Used at the fire scene. (321)

When relay pumping, if the intake pressure drops below 20 psi:

A. The throttle must be increased.

B. There is danger of cavitation.

C. The relay valve is set too low.

D. High discharge pressure is needed.

B. There is danger of cavitation. (321)

When pulling up to a hydrant, turning the front wheels to a 45 degree angle:

A. Will protect the driver in the event the truck is rear-ended.

B. Will make it easier to adjust the apparatus, if needed.

C. Will keep the vehicle out of the road.

D. Is required only in icy conditions.

B. Will make it easier to adjust the apparatus, if needed. (85-86)

The formula for calculating the gpm flow rate for a tender is:

A. Tank size + 10% divided by trip time.

B. Tank size - 10 % divided by trip time.

C. Tank size divided by trip time - 10ο.

D. Tank size divided by trip time + 10ο.

B. Tank size - 10 % divided by trip time. (353)

Fire fighting foam consists of approximately ____ percent water:

A. 6-10

B. 3-6

C. 94-99.9

D. 40-60

C. 94-99.9 (357)

An example of a polar solvent is:

A. Fuel oil

B. Acetone

C. Kerosene

D. Both A and C are correct.

B. Acetone (356)

When using an in-line eductor, the back pressure must not exceed:

A. 20-25 percent of the inlet.

B. 65-70 percent of the inlet.

C. 94-99 percent of the inlet.

D. 40-50 percent of the inlet.

B. 65-70 percent of the inlet. (366)

The process that causes foam concentrate to move through the device and into the water stream is called the ____ principle.

A. Venturi

B. Syphon

C. Suction

D. Flow

A. Venturi (366 and 463)

Directions: Read the following statements and then select your answer from alternatives A-D below:

1. There are two basic types of foam.

2. Foam solution is the completed product after aur is introduced.

3. Foam works by separating, cooling or suppressing.

A. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

B. Statement 1 is correct; statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

C. Statements 1 and 3 are correct; statement 2 is incorrect.

D. Statement 3 is correct; statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

C. Statements 1 and 3 are correct; statement 2 is incorrect. (356-357)

The ____ is the most common type of portable foam proportioner.

A. In-line eductor.

B. High expansion foam eductor.

C. Around-the-pump proportioner.

D. Expansion proportioner.

A. In-line eductor. (366)

The high cost of foam gas prompted departments to use water instead of foam during testing. Because of the difference in ____ the rate of pickup is slightly different.

A. Weight

B. Specific Gravity

C. Surface tension

D. Viscosity

D. Viscosity (395)

Pump discharge pressures in excess of ____ psi may damage the standpipe system and results in breaks.

A. 100

B. 200

C. 150

D. 175

B. 200 (272)

The pump discharge pressure needed to supply standpipes depends upon the:

A. Height of the fire floor.

B. Size and number of fire streams in operation.

C. Friction loss in the standpipe.

D. All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct. (272)