Term
| When should a patient with HIV begin prophylactic medication for opportunistic infections? |
|
Definition
CD4<200 PCP with TMP/SMX
CD4 <100 Toxo with TMP/SMX
CD4<50 MAC with Azithromycin |
|
|
Term
| What organisms are known to cause infections in the mouth of AIDS patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three structural genes that code for HIV proteins? |
|
Definition
gag: P24 capsid
pol: reverse transcriptase and integrase
env: gp120 and gp41 |
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
GI intolerance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Inhibit cytochrome P450 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Hyperlipidemia/hypertriglyceridemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Lipodystrophy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Pancreatitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Nephrolithiasis |
|
Definition
| Indinavir, Atazanavir (PIs) |
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Increase bilirubin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Bone marrow suppression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Pancreatitis and peripheral neuropathy |
|
Definition
| Didanosine (Zalcitabine and Stavudine as well) (NRTI) |
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Hepatic steatosis |
|
Definition
| Didanosine (and Stavudine) (NRTI) |
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Hypersensitivty reaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Rash |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Neuropsychiatric symptoms (nightmares, vivid dreams, dizziness, worsening depression) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
False positive drug test to cannabinoids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Teratogenic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two HIV envelope proteins and the drugs that interfere with them? |
|
Definition
Gp120: Marviroc (binds to CCR5)
GP41: Enfuvirtide |
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Lactic acidosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What HIV medication has the following side effect?
Megaloblastic anemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Given to pregnant women with HIV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regiment for occupation HIV exposures |
|
Definition
| Zidovudine and Lamivudine |
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Food poisoning as a result of mayonnaise sitting out too long |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Diarrhea caused by Gran (-) nonmotile organism that does not ferment lactose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Rice water stools |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Diarrhea caused by an S-shaped organism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Diarrhea transmitted from pet feces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Food poisoning resulting from reheated rice |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Diarrhea caused by Gram (-) motile organism that doesn't ferment lactose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Traveler's diarrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Diarrhea after a course of antibiotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Diarrhea caused by Gram (-) lactose fermenting bacteria,no fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Diarrhea caused by Gram (-) comma-shaped organism, no fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Diarrhea + recent ingestion of water from a stream |
|
Definition
| Giardia, Entamoeba histolytica |
|
|
Term
What infectious agent most likely corresponds to:
Food poisoning from undercooked hamburger meat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient who visited Mexico presents with bloody diarrhea. What infectious form is found in the stool? |
|
Definition
| Cysts of Entamoeba histolytica |
|
|
Term
| A 32 year old man went camping in northern California 2 weeks ago, had a 2-day stint of diarrhea, and now presents with symptoms of liver damage and jaundice. What is the infecting organism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the names of the following stages in the malaria life-cycle?
Looks like a diamond ring |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the names of the following stages in the malaria life-cycle?
Ruptures the cell host |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the names of the following stages in the malaria life-cycle?
Replicating intracellularly |
|
Definition
| Schizont (early and late) |
|
|
Term
What are the names of the following stages in the malaria life-cycle?
Form injected from the Anopheles mosquito |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the names of the following stages in the malaria life-cycle?
Banana shaped |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient returning from a 2-week vacation in West Africa presents with typical malaria presentation and recurrent fever. What is the mechanism responsible for this patient's recurrent fever? |
|
Definition
| Release of merozoites-- hemolysis |
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Most common helminthic infection in the US |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
One-quarter of the world is infected with it |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Snail host, "swimmer's itch" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Most common predisposing factor for bladder cancer in 3rd world countries |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Contracted by eating undercooked fish and causes an inflammation of the biliary tract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Soil-- enters through skin -- venous blood supply -- lungs -- coughed into pharynx -- swallowed into the intestines where they reside |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Hookworm |
|
Definition
| Ancylostoma duodenale, Necatur americanus |
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Giant roundworm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Contracted by eating undercooked crabmeat and causes inflammation of the lung |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Pork tapeworm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Responsible for lymphatic filariasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Adult patient from Mexico with new onset seizures and brain calcifications |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What helminth matches each of the following statements?
Hematuria in patient from 3rd world country |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What medication is used to treat each of the following parasitic infections?
Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What medication is used to treat each of the following parasitic infections?
Plasmodium vivax or ovale |
|
Definition
| Chloroquine and primaquine |
|
|
Term
What medication is used to treat each of the following parasitic infections?
Most malarias |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What medication is used to treat each of the following parasitic infections?
Resistant malarias |
|
Definition
| Mefloquine, quinine, and doxycycline |
|
|
Term
What medication is used to treat each of the following parasitic infections?
Most all flukes and tapeworms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What medication is used to treat each of the following parasitic infections?
Hookworm, pinworm, roundworm |
|
Definition
| -bendazoles, pyrantel pamoate |
|
|
Term
What medication is used to treat each of the following parasitic infections?
Chagas Disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What medication is used to treat each of the following parasitic infections?
Best guess for roundworms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What medication is used to treat each of the following parasitic infections?
Leishmaniasis |
|
Definition
Amphotericin B (visceral)
Sodium stibogluconate (cutaneous |
|
|
Term
| Which two agents are usually used in the treatment of pediculosis capitis and pediculosis pubis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is lindane not the preferred agent in the treatment of lice? |
|
Definition
| Potential neurotoxicity and resistance |
|
|
Term
What bacterial structures have the following functions?
Mediates adherence of bacteria to the surface of a cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterial structures have the following functions?
Protects against phagocytosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterial structures have the following functions?
Provides rigid support to bacterial cell and protects against osmotic pressure differences |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterial structures have the following functions?
Space between the inner and outer cellular membranes in Gram (-) bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterial structures have the following functions?
Motility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterial structures have the following functions?
Bacterial form which provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterial structures have the following functions?
Forms attachment between two bacteria during transfer of DNA material |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterial structures have the following functions?
Genetic material within bacteria that contains genes for antibiotic resistance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stain is required to see Cryptococcus neoformans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stain is required to see Pneumocystis jireovecii |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stain is required to see Chlamydia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What exotoxin matches the following:
Inhibits ACh release leading to flaccid paralysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What exotoxin matches the following:
Lecithinase that causes gas gangrene |
|
Definition
| alpha toxin of C. perfringens |
|
|
Term
What exotoxin matches the following:
Inhibits the inhibitor of adenylate cyclase leading to whooping cough |
|
Definition
| Pertussis toxin (B. pertussis) |
|
|
Term
| Stimulates adenylate cyclase leading to Cl- and water into the gut leading to diarreha |
|
Definition
| cholera toxin of V. cholera and heat labile toxin of ETEC |
|
|
Term
What exotoxin matches the following:
Destroys leukocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What exotoxin matches the following:
Composed of edema factor, lethal factor, and protective antigen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What exotoxin matches the following:
Enterotoxin causing rice-water diarrhea |
|
Definition
| Cholera toxin of V. cholerae |
|
|
Term
What exotoxin matches the following:
Causes scarlet fever |
|
Definition
| Erythrogenic/pyrogenic toxins of S. pyogenes |
|
|
Term
What exotoxin matches the following:
Causes toxic shock syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What exotoxin matches the following:
Inactivates EF-2 leading to pseudomembranous colitis |
|
Definition
| Diptheria toxin of C. diptheria |
|
|
Term
What exotoxin matches the following:
Blocks the release of inhibitor neurotransmitter glycine |
|
Definition
| Tetanospasmin of C. tetani |
|
|
Term
| What 6 bacteria secrete enterotoxins? |
|
Definition
ETEC
V. cholera
Y. enterolitica
S. aureus
Salmonella
Shigella |
|
|
Term
| What organisms are most commonly implicated in subacute endocarditis? |
|
Definition
| Viridans strep, S. epidermidis, Enterococcus |
|
|
Term
| What infections are caused by Group A Strep? |
|
Definition
Bacterial: Impetigo, folliculits, cellulitis, pharyngitis, endocarditis, bacteremia
Exotoxin: Scarlet fever, Toxic Shock Syndrome
Antibodies to: Glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever |
|
|
Term
Which Gram (+) organism matches the following:
Causes scalded skin syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Gram (+) organism matches the following:
White membrane on pharynx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Gram (+) organism matches the following:
Pharyngitis leading to glomerulonephritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Gram (+) organism matches the following:
Most common cause of meningitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Gram (+) organism matches the following:
Most common cause of osteomyelitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Gram (+) organism matches the following:
Serious newborn infections |
|
Definition
| Listeria, GBS (and E. coli) |
|
|
Term
Which Gram (+) organism matches the following:
Infant with poor muscle tone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Gram (+) organism matches the following:
Diarrhea after using antibiotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Gram (+) organism matches the following:
Respiratory distress in a postal worker |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Gram (+) organism matches the following:
Otitis media in children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Gram (+) organism matches the following:
Cellulitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the spore formers? |
|
Definition
| Clostridium, Bacillus, Coxielle burnetii |
|
|
Term
| What are the 1st generation cephalosporins and what are their clinical uses? |
|
Definition
Cefazolin, cephalexin
Gram positives + Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella, UTIs, URIs, Viridans strep endocarditis |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2nd generation cephalosporins and what are their clinical uses? |
|
Definition
Cefprozil, Cefoxitin, Cefaclor, Cefuroxime
1st generation Cephalosporins + H. influenze, Enterobacter, Neisseria, Serratia |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3rd generation cephalosporins and what are their clinical uses? |
|
Definition
Cefdinir
Ceftriaxone
Ceftazidine
Serious gram (-) infections; Ceftriaxone used for meningitis, S. pneumoniae, gonorrhea, Pseudomonas |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4th generation cephalosporins and what are their clinical uses? |
|
Definition
Cefepime
Gram (+) plus Pseudomonas |
|
|
Term
| What classes of bacteria should you not use cephalosporins for? |
|
Definition
| Listeria, atypical pneumoniaes, MRSA, enterococci |
|
|
Term
Which generation of cephalosporing would you choose for each:
UTI prevention
Serratia UTI
N. meningititis
Pseudomonas
Otitis media due to nontypable H. influenzae |
|
Definition
UTI prevention: 1st generation (cephalexin cefazolin)
Serratia UTI: 2nd generation
N. meningititis: 3rd generation
Pseudomonas: cefepime, ceftazidime
Otitis media due to nontypable H. influenzae: 2nd generation |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical uses for ampicillin and amoxicillin? Which has great oral bioavailability? |
|
Definition
Amoxicillin has greater oral ability.
Used for H. inflenzae, E. coli, Listeria, Proteus, Salmonella, Shigella |
|
|
Term
Which penicillin drug would you use given the following infection?
Syphilis
UTI
Pseudomonas
Neonatal infection |
|
Definition
Syphilis: Penicillin G
UTI: Amoxicillin
Pseudomonas: Ticarcillin, Piperacillin
Neonatal infection: Ampicillin, gentamicin |
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Can cause "red man syndrome" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Next step in treatment of otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin |
|
Definition
Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
Cefidinir |
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditits |
|
Definition
Penicillin V,
Cephalexin
Ampicillin/ amoxicillin |
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Increases the nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Aminoglycoside pretender |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Inpatient treatment for MRSA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Sufficient for the treatment of syphilis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Single dose treatment for gonorrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Hospitalized patient with new Gram (+) clusters in blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Treatment for C. diff colitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Broad spectrum coverage for appendicitis |
|
Definition
| Imipenam/cilastatin or meropenem |
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following:
Cell wall inhibitors effective against Pseudomonas |
|
Definition
| Carbapenams, ceftazidime, cefepime, ticarcillin |
|
|
Term
| What antibiotic is used for prevention of MAI in AIDS patients? When should this prophylaxis begin? |
|
Definition
Azithromycin/Clarithromycin at CD4<50
Treat with Clarithromycin and Ethambutol |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism and side effects of isoniazid? |
|
Definition
Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids. Bacterial catalaase-peroxidase (KatG) needed to convert INH to active metabolite
Neurotixic, hepatotoxic (prevent with B6); Drug induced lupus |
|
|
Term
| WHat are the Rs of rifampin? |
|
Definition
RNA polymerase inhibitor
Revs up P450
Red-orange body fluids
Rapid resistance if use alone |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism and side effects of pyrazinamide? |
|
Definition
Inhibits mycobacteria fatty acid synthesis in phagolysosome
SE: hepatotoxic and hyperuricemia |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of ethambutol and what are the side effects? |
|
Definition
Decreases carbohydrate polymerization of mycobacterium cell wall by blocking arabinosyltransferase
SE: Optic neuropathy (red-green color blindness) |
|
|
Term
| What is the distinction between a Ghon complex and a Ghon focus? Are these seen in primary or secondary tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
Ghon focus: middle lob calcified lung scar
Ghon complex: lung scar and lymphadenopathy
Seen in primary tuberculosis |
|
|
Term
What organism is associated with each of the following clues?
Lymphadenopathy and a new kitten
Dog bite
Ixodes tick
Rabbit hunter
Pet prairie dog |
|
Definition
Lymphadenopathy and a new kitten: Bartonella hensalae
Dog bite: Pasturella multicida
Ixodes tick: Borrelia burgdorferi
Rabbit hunter: Tularemia
Pet prairie dog: Yersinia pestis |
|
|
Term
| What is the Rickettsial triad of symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antibiotic should be used to treat the following infections?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Early Lyme disease
Late Lyme disease
Syphilis
Leprosy
Bacterial vaginosis |
|
Definition
Mycoplasma pneumoniae: macrolide (azithromycin) or FQs
Rocky Mountain spotted fever: doxycycline
Early Lyme disease: doxycycline
Late Lyme disease: Ceftriaxone (IM)
Syphilis: Penicillin
Leprosy: Dapsone, rifampin, clofazimine
Bacterial vaginosis: Metronidazole |
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Found in SW US including west Texas and California |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Found in Mississippi and Ohio River basins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Causes San Joaquin Valley fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Found in rural Latin America |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Associated with plant thorns and cutaneous injury |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Found in states east of the Mississippi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Found in bird and bat droppings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Mold form contains barrel-shaped arthroconidia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Associated with dust storms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Broad based budding of yeast |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Multiple budding of yeast form |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Causes diaper rash |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Opportunistic mold with septate hyphae that branch at a 45 angle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Opportunistic mold with irregular nonseptate hyphae that branch at wide angles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Causes thrush in immunocompromised patients and vulvovaginitis in women |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Known for causing pneumonia in AIDS patients, start Bactrim prophylaxis when CD4<200 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which fungus matches each of the following statements?
Yeast known for causing meningitis in AIDS patients |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What infections are associated with birds? |
|
Definition
Histoplasma
Cryptococcus neoformans
Chlamydophila psittcii
H5N1
West Nile Virus |
|
|
Term
| Most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prophylaxis for Cryptococcus in AIDS patients |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment for Sporothrix schenckii |
|
Definition
| Potassium Idodide and Itraconazole |
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
Interferes with microtubule function |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
Swish and swallow for oral candidiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor used in invasive aspergillosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
Binds ergosterol leading to membrane pores |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
Inhibits ergosterol synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
Most common treatment for onychomycosis |
|
Definition
| Terbinafine, Itraconazole, Fluconazole |
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
SE: arrhythmias and nephrotoxicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
Deposits in keratin-containing tissues |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
Inhibits hormon synthesis and cytochrome P450 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
SE: liver dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
SE: Teratogenic, carcinogenic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
Used for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS |
|
Definition
| Amphoterecin B and flucytosine |
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
Converted to fluorouracil, inhibits DNA synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal fits each of the following statements?
Drug of choice for sporotrichosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use and side effects of griseofulvin? |
|
Definition
Oral treatment of superficial infections, inhibits growth of dermatophytes
SE: teratogenic, carcinogenic, confusion, headaches, increases P450 metabolism, hepatotoxic |
|
|
Term
| What drugs should be avoided in patient with an allergy to a sulfa? |
|
Definition
| Celecoxib, furosemide, probenecid, thiazides, TMP-SMX, sulfasalazine, sulfonylureas, acetazolamide |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can cause SJS? |
|
Definition
| Penicillins, sulfa drugs, anti seizure (ethosuxomide, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin), allopurinol |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical uses for TMP-SMX? |
|
Definition
| UTIs, Salmonella, Shigella, MRSA, PCP prophylaxis |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism for Nitrofurantoin? |
|
Definition
Mechanism: Bacteriocidal, reduced by bacterial proteins to a reactive intermediate that inactivates bacterial ribosomes.
Indications UTI cystitis (not pyelonephritis) by E. coli or S. saprophyticus (not Proteus)
Safe in pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| What are the SEs of fluoroquinolones? |
|
Definition
GI upset, contraindicated in pregnancy and in children (damage to cartilage), tendon damage/rupture
Used in long term care for CF patients |
|
|
Term
| What organisms are the most common causes of UTI? |
|
Definition
| E. coli, S. saprophyticus, Klebsiella, Proteus (Serratia, Enterobacter, Pseudomonas) |
|
|
Term
| A culture reveals Gram negative oxidase positive diplococci. What is the likely organism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Osteomyelitis in a patient with diabetes mellitus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Sepsis, DIC, adrenal hemorrhage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
5-year-old with pharyngitis, drooling, and X-ray revels thumb sign |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Osteomyelitis in a patient with sickle cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Alcoholic with aspiration pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Child with a new puppy develops severe abdominal pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Burn wound infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Motile organism that causes UTI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Most common form of travelers' diarrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Life-threatening meningitis and purpura |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Common cause of both UTI and pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Corneal infections in contact lens wearers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Gram (-) organism matches each of the following descriptions?
Septic arthritis in young, sexually active patients |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical uses and SE of aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
Severe GN rod infections, neonatal infections, E. coli spesis and pneumonia, bowel surgery
Nephrotoxic (esp. with cephalosporins), Ototoxic (esp. with loop diuretics), Teratogenic |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical uses for tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
VACUM THe BedRoom
V. cholera, Acne, Chlamydia, Ureaplasma urealyticum, Mycoplasma penumoniae, Tularemia, H. pylori, Borrelia, Rickettsia |
|
|
Term
| What should you never take with tetracyclines? What are the side-effects of tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
Milk, antacids, iron-containing preparations
SE: GI distress, discoloration of teeth in children, decrease in bone growth, photosensitivity, blue discoloration |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical use and side-effects of chloramphenicol? |
|
Definition
Meningitis
SE: Anemia, aplastic anemia, grey baby syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical uses and side effects of clindamycin? |
|
Definition
Anaerobic infections
Aspiration pneumonia
Lung abscesses
MRSA
SE: pseudomembranous colitis |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism, clinical use, and SE of Streptogramins |
|
Definition
Quinupristin/Dalfopristin
Synthesized by the bacteria Streptomyces virginiae
Streptogramin A: binds peptidyl transferase of the 50S ribosomal subunit (similar to chloramphenicol)
Streptogramin B: prevents protein chain extension
Uses: MRSA, VRE, staph, and strep skin infections
SE: hepatoxicity, pseudomembranous colitis |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are used in H. pylori triple therapy? |
|
Definition
Clarithromycin
Amoxicillin
PPIs
(Metronidazole) |
|
|
Term
| What antibiotics are restricted to tpical use because of nephrotoxicity? |
|
Definition
| Polymyxins (attach and disrupt cell membrane, inactivates endotoxin) |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are effective against Pseudomonas? |
|
Definition
| Ticarcillin, Piperacillin, Cefepime, Ceftazidine, Aztreonam, Aminoglycosides |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotics should especially be avoided in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
Cautious SAFe Moms Take Really Good Care
Chloramphenicol
Sulfonamides
Aminoglycosides
Fluoroquinolones
Metronidazole (before 1st trimester)
Tetracyclines
Rifampin
Griseofulvin
Clarithromycin |
|
|
Term
| Prophylaxis for exposure to meningococcal or H. influenzae type B meningitis |
|
Definition
| Ciprofloxacin or Rifampin (in children) |
|
|
Term
| What are the live attenuated vaccines? |
|
Definition
| Yellow Fever, Chickenpox, Small Pox, Sabin's Polio, MMR, intranasal influenza, Shingles, rotavirus |
|
|
Term
| What is the DNA structure of most all of the DNA viruses? What are the exceptions? |
|
Definition
| Linear dsDNA except parvovirus (dsDNA) and papilloma, polyoma, hepadna (circular) |
|
|
Term
| What live virus vaccines should be considered for HIV-positive patients with CD4<200? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which virus acquires its envelope from the nucleus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which viral families do not have an envelope? |
|
Definition
Papilloma, Adenovirus, Polyoma, Parvo
Calicivirus, Picornavirus, Reovirus, Hepevirus |
|
|
Term
| What group of patients is prone to esophagitis caused by CMV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T cells in response to EBV; foamy cells in mononuclueosis |
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Erythema infectiosum (AKA fifth disease) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Heterophile-positive mononucleosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Can cause conjunctivitis or diarrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Enlarged cell with owl's eye inclusions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Identified with a pap smear |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Milkmaid's blisters |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Gingivostomatitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Hides in sensory ganglis of S2 and S3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Hides in trigeminal ganglia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Hides in dorsal root ganglia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Viral family of JC virus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Downey cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Multinucleate giant cells on Tzanck test |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Only DNA virus that is non double stranded |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Roseola |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which DNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Heterophile negative mononucleosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which RNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Hand foot and mouth disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which RNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Break bone fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which RNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Common cold |
|
Definition
| Rhinovirus (Picornavirus) and Coronavirus |
|
|
Term
Which RNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Fever, jaundice, black vomit |
|
Definition
| Yellow fever (flavivirus) |
|
|
Term
Which RNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Meningitis in summer months |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tourniquet test helps diagnose hemorrhagic disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which RNA virus is associated with each of the following statements?
Infects motors neurons of the anterior horn |
|
Definition
| Poliovirus (Picornavirus), West Nile Virus (Flavivirus) |
|
|
Term
Which virus fits the following statement?
Barking seal cough |
|
Definition
| Parainfluenza (Paramyxovirus) |
|
|
Term
Which virus fits the following statement?
Brassy cough |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which virus fits the following statement?
Negri bodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which virus fits the following statement?
Diarrhea in children during winter months |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which virus fits the following statement?
Aseptic meningitis |
|
Definition
| Coxsackie, Echovirus, Enterovirus |
|
|
Term
| Common cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of atypical/walking pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common fungal infection of the lung in the Texas/Gulf Coastal region |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Associated with pneumonia acquired from air conditioners |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of pneumonia in children 1 year old or younger |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of pneumonia in children and young adults |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common cause of pneumonia in patients with other health problems |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of viral pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endogenous flora in 20% of adults |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common bacterial cause of COPD exacerbation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common pneumonia in ventilator patients and those with cystic fibrosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An adolescent presents with cough and rust-colored sputum. What does the gram stain of the sputum show? |
|
Definition
| S. pneumoniae-- Gram (+) diplococci |
|
|
Term
What are the most common causes of pneumonia for each of the following patient populations?
6w-18 y
18-40y
40-65y
Elderly |
|
Definition
6w-18 y: RSV, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, S. pneumo
18-40y: Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, S. pneumo
40-65y: Mycoplasma, H. influenzae, anaerobes, S. pneumo, viruses
Elderly: Mycoplasma, S. pneumo, influenza, anaerobes, gram negative rods |
|
|
Term
| What CSF finding would you see in a patient with TB meningtitis? |
|
Definition
| Similar to viral meningitis: increase opening pressure and protein, decrease in glucose and lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| What are the TORCHS infections? |
|
Definition
| Toxoplasma, Other (B19), Rubella, CMV, HSV, HIV, Syphilis |
|
|
Term
| Which STD is associated with a strawberry cervix? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the urease-positive bugs? |
|
Definition
CHuck Norris hates PUNKSS
Cryptococcus, H. pylori, Proteus, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Klebsiella, S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus |
|
|
Term
| What are the Facultative intracellular bugs? |
|
Definition
Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacutativeLy
Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia pestis |
|
|
Term
| What are catalase positive bugs? |
|
Definition
PLACESS for your cats
Pseudomonas, Listeria, Aspergillus, Candida, E. coli, S. aureus, Serratia |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria has Protein A as a virulence factor? |
|
Definition
| S. aureus. Binds Fc regional of Ig to prevent opsonization and phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria have IgA protease as a virulence factor? |
|
Definition
SHiN
S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Neisseria to colonize respiratory mucosa |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria have M protein has a virulence factor? |
|
Definition
Group A streptococci
Helps prevent phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of Shiga toxin/ Shiga-like toxin? |
|
Definition
| Inactivates 60 S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of edema factor of B. antrhacis? |
|
Definition
| Mimics adenylate cyclase enzyme |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action for pertussis toxin? |
|
Definition
| Overactivates adenylate cyclase by disabling Gi, impairing phagocytosis to permit survival of microbe. |
|
|
Term
| What is C. perfringen's exotoxin? |
|
Definition
| Alpha toxin: Phospholipase that degrades tissue and cell membranes. Degrades PLC leading to myonecrosis. |
|
|
Term
| What are two superantigens that cause shock? |
|
Definition
| TSST-1 of S. aureus and Exotoxin A of S. pyogenes. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have genes for bacterial toxins that are encoded in a lysogenic phage? |
|
Definition
ABCDE
ShigA-like toxin
Botulinum toxin
Cholera toxin
Diptheria toxin
Erythrogenic toxin of S. pyogenes |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria produces CAMP factor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is positive in the Hippurate test? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is diagnosed as gram-postive rods with metachromatic granules and Elek's test for toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do toxin A and B do of C. difficile? |
|
Definition
Toxin A, enterotoxin that binds to the brush border of the gut
Toxin B, cytotoxin, destroys the cytoskeletal structure of enterocytes |
|
|
Term
| What does cord factor in virulent strains of Mycobacteria do? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits macrophage maturation and induces release of TNF-alpha. Sulfatides (surface glycolipids) inhibit phagolysosomal fusion. |
|
|
Term
| Which gram negative pleomorphic bacteria is catalase + and oxidase +? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Legionella detected clinically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What toxins does Pseudomonas produce? |
|
Definition
| Endotoxin (fever, shock) and exotoxin A (inactives EF2 by ADP ribosylation) |
|
|
Term
| What are E. coli's virulence factors? |
|
Definition
Fimbriae-cystits, pyelonephritis
K capsule- pneumonia, neonatal meningitis
LPS endotoxin- septic shock |
|
|
Term
| What causes Weil's disease? |
|
Definition
Leptospira interrogans
Severe form of leptospirosis with jaundice, azotemia, fever, hemorrhage and anemia. |
|
|
Term
| What organism is detected by aniline dyes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parasite that causes brain cysts and seizures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parasite that causes liver cysts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parasite that causes B12 deficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parasite that causes biliary tract disease, cholangiocarcinoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parasite that causes hemopytis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parasite that causes porta hypertension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parasite that causes hematuria, risk of bladder cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parasite that causes microcytic anemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parasite that causes perianal pruritus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you suspect with an HIV positive patient that has low grade fevers, cough, hepatosplenomegaly and a tongue ulcer? |
|
Definition
| Histoplasma capsulatum (causes only pulmonary symptoms in immunocompetent hosts) |
|
|
Term
| How do bacteria confer resistance to aminglycosides? |
|
Definition
| Transferase enzymes that inactive the drug by acetylation, phosphorylation or adenylation |
|
|
Term
| How do bacteria confer resistance to tetracyclines and how is doxycycline eliminated? |
|
Definition
Decrease uptake into cells or increased efflux out of cells by plasmid encoded transport pumps.
Doxycycline is eliminated fecally, can be used in patients with renal failure. |
|
|
Term
| How do bacteria confer resistance to macrolides? |
|
Definition
| Methylation of 23S rRNA binding site |
|
|
Term
| How do bacteria confer resistance to chloramphenicol? |
|
Definition
| Plasmid-encoded acetyltransferase that inactivates the drug |
|
|
