Term
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Definition
| 61 (2 flight crew + 1 observer + 2 cabin crew + 50 pax + 6 infants) |
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Term
| 300 single cabin crew ops requirements? |
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Definition
| As per 200 max occupants; authorised by Cabin Crew Manager and Manager Flying Operations |
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Definition
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| Maneouvering load limit factors? |
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Definition
Flaps retracted: +2.5 to -1G
Flaps extended: +2 to -0G |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| Max altitude for takeoff/landing? |
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Definition
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Term
| Max/min temperature operating range? |
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Definition
Maximum: 48.9° or ISA +35 whichever is less
Minimum: -54° |
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Term
| Limitation landing with bleed air on? |
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Definition
| OAT + 7° must be less than 48.9° |
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Term
| Max runway slope takeoff/landing? |
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Definition
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Term
| Xwind component (hard, dry runway)? |
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Definition
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Term
| Xwind component (standing water, slush or loose snow)? |
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Definition
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Term
| Xwind component (compacted snow)? |
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Definition
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Term
| Xwind component (narrow runway)? |
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Definition
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Term
| Tailwind component (hard, dry runway)? |
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Definition
| 10kts (Up to 20kts permitted in compliance with AFM supplement 3) |
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Term
| Tailwind component (standing water, sluch, loose snow)? |
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Definition
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Term
| Tailwind component (compacted snow)? |
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Definition
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Term
| Tailwind component (narrow runway)? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| Max speed gear doors open? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| Max airstart altitude (powerplant)? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| With bypass doors open, MTOP and MCP are limited to what max ambient temp limitation? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| Below what oil pressure is engine shutdown required? |
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Definition
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Term
| Below 75%NH what is the oil pressure range alllowed? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| MTOP/MCP max NL RPM (300)? |
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Definition
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Term
| MTOP/MCP MAX NH RPM (300)? |
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Definition
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Term
| MTOP/NTOP/Max reverse RPM (300)? |
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Definition
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Term
| MTOP/NTOP/MCP/Max reverse oil pressure (300)? |
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Definition
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Term
| MTOP/NTOP/MCP/Max reverse oil temperature (300)? |
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Definition
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Term
| RNAV app light must be displayed by when? |
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Definition
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Term
| What page must be displayed during RNAV approach? |
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Definition
| Page displaying TO waypoint name |
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Term
| Armed RNAV approach will activate automatically provided what conditions are satisfied? |
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Definition
- Approach RAIM is available
- Track error <80 degrees
- Approach label has been passed
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| 130-180kts not below Vref/Vref ice (140-180kts on reversal of NPA) |
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Term
| What occurs with RNAV missed approach selection? |
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Definition
- EOA label ignored (FMS will sequence to missed approach after missed approach waypoint)
- VNAV pseudo glideslope removed
- FMS change from approach to terminal mode
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Term
| TCAS definition of proximate traffic? |
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Definition
| 6nm radius +/- 1200ft vertically of TCAS aircraft |
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Term
| TCAS Monitor Vertical Speed |
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Definition
| Monitor vertical speed to prevent entering red arc range |
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Term
| TCAS "maintain vertical speed, maintain?" |
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Definition
| Maintain present vertical speed and direction, prevent entering red arc range |
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Term
| TCAS hardware consists of what? |
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Definition
- Antennas
- TCAS computer unit
- Mode S transponders
- Flight deck displays/controller
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Term
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Definition
| Red and green colouring on the VSI to depict target range of speeds to be adopted or maintained to avoid a collision |
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Term
How does TCAS interact with a Mode A transponder?
(No altitude information) |
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Definition
| Cannot generate an RA but may generate a TA. |
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Term
| What two types of RAs exist? |
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Definition
| Preventative or corrective |
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Term
| Within what time frame does the TCAS assume corrective action will be initiated? |
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Definition
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Term
| Within what timeframe does TCAS assume a reversal will be initiated? |
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Definition
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Term
| RAs are inhibited within what parameters? |
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Definition
| 1100ft AGL climbing and 900ft descending |
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Term
| TA audio annuciations are inhibited within what parameters? |
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Definition
| Below 600ft AGL climbing and 400ft AGL descending |
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Term
| When are CLIMB voice and visual advisories inhibited? |
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Definition
| During a one engine inop condition. |
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Term
| Under what conditions are INCREASE CLIMB voice and visual advisories inhibited? |
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Definition
| Gear down and flap 15 or greater, OR autofeather selected and ARM illuminated. |
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Term
| What fog visibility represents icing conditions? |
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Definition
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Term
| Minimum time windshield heat in the warm up position? |
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Definition
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Term
| Takeoff performance data for ice protection on assumes what? |
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Definition
| Ice protection systems on except airframe de-icing and no ice accumulated. Ice accumulation is, however, assumed for 4th segment climb. |
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Term
| Enroute and landing performance data corrections assume what conditions? |
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Definition
Ice protection systems on, accumulation of ice on unprotected surfaces plus an allowance for ice buildup on protected surfaces between boot cycles.
Landing speed, distance and brake energy penalties apply for landing if ice protection systems are on. |
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Term
| If taxi route is through slush/snow/standing water in freezing conditions then what flaps setting must be used? |
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Definition
| Flaps zero until after clear of the contaminated areas, hold the flaps checklist item until then. |
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Term
| Prior to takeoff what representative area must be checked to ensure the airframe is free from ice/frost/snow? |
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Definition
| Left outboard roll spoiler. |
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Term
| When must airframe deicing be selected? |
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Definition
| As soon as icing is observed. (Do not wait for accumulation of ice prior to selection) |
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Term
| Validity period of an instrument rating? |
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Definition
| 1 year from end of the month in which it was issued. (CAO 40.2.1) |
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Term
| With the issue of an instrument rating what must be entered into the holder's logbook? |
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Definition
The grade of instrument rating (ME-CIR, SE-CIR or CP) and any aids which the holder is endorsed on (RNAV, ILS, VOR, NDB, DGA etc)
(CAO 40.2.1) |
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Term
| May an endorsement entered in a person's logbook for a navaid/procedure be used with any grade of instrument rating? |
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Definition
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Term
| Aeronautical experience for initial issue of instrument rating? |
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Definition
- 50 hours cross country as pilot in command
- 40 hours instrument time, minumum 20 hours in category of aircraft for which rating is sought
- 20 hours cross country instrument time
- 10 hours dual instrument flight instruction time
- 10 hours night flight not less than 5 hours PIC if rating is to be used for night flights.
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Term
| RNAV recency requirements |
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Definition
- 1 approach last 90 days
- 1 approach in last 6 months on same type of GNSS reciever as the approach intended to be flown (or one determined in writing by CASA to be the same type)
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Term
| DME/GPS arrival recency requirements? |
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Definition
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Term
| NDB recency requirements? |
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Definition
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Term
| VOR recency requirements? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which arrivals satisfy recency requirements for other approaches? |
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Definition
- GPS satisfies requirement for DME and vice-versa
- ILS/LLZ satisfies requirements for VOR but VOR does not satisfy ILS/LLZ requirements
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Term
| ILS/LLZ recency requirements? |
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Definition
1 approach in last 35 days
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Term
| Additional recency requirement for single pilot operations under IFR? |
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Definition
| 1 hour single pilot operations in last 90 days and instrument rating test was passed as single pilot operation |
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Term
| Person may not exercise IR unless test has been passed in previous how many months? |
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Definition
| 15, however this does not apply to a holder of a command instrument rating who is employed by an operator with a cyclic proficiency program and is compliant with all required standards. |
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Term
| Instrument rating may be renewed how long prior to its expiry and is valid for how long? |
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Definition
| May be renewed 90 days prior to expiry and its expiry will be 12 months from the original date of expiry. However this does not apply to a person working for a company with a cyclic program who is compliant with required standards of the program. |
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Term
If an instrument rating is expired for less than 12 months what is required to renew it?
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Definition
Pass test applicable to instrument rating renewal
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Term
If and instrument rating is expired for more than 12 months what is required to renew it?
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Definition
Pass test applicable to instrument rating initial issue
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Term
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Can a holder of an instrument rating renew it using an overseas flight simulator training provider?
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Definition
Yes provided it is passed in a contracting state whose flight simulation qualifications are recognised by CASA
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Term
Privileges and limitations of instrument rating?
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Definition
Authorised to fly aircraft as PIC or co-pilot under IFR
Only using navaids endorsed in logbook (however GPS for navigation only ok without RNAV endorsement as long as CASA approved training has been received and logbook endorsed as such)
May not exercise privileges following a failed renewal until renewal is passed unless receiving flying instruction (however DME may be used for navigation)
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Term
What requirements must be satisfied for a person to fly an RNAV as PIC using equipment they have not used before?
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Definition
3 approaches in flight or using a synthetic flight trainer using that receiver or one CASA has deemed to be the same
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Term
A member of a flight crew may conduct, without an endorsement, a GNSS approach and landing procedure, and RNAV-based approach using the FMS, an MLS under what conditions?
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Definition
· Aircraft is operated by an AOC holder approved by CASA with a check/training organisation approved under CAR 217
· Pilot is employed by the AOC holder and has received training in accordance with the holder’s approved training syllabus
· For a precision approach holds and ILS endorsement
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Term
A co-pilot may use a navaid or procedure not endorsed in logbook provided what conditions are satisfied?
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Definition
Crew member of an aircraft operated by and AOC holder with cyclic training and proficiency program approved under 217 and has received training and demonstrated competency in the navaid to a standard applicable to its entry into a logbook |
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Term
Charter flights may fly by night under night VFR procedures provided what conditions are satisfied?
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Definition
Aeronautical experience: 10 hours cross country under NVFR including a minimum of 2 exercises (300nm or 3hrs duration) as PIC/ICUS exceeding a distance of 100nm from departure and one landing at an area remote from extensive ground lighting
Recent experience: 3 night takeoffs/landings withing preceding 90 days and night cross country flight of at least 1 hr/100nm or a night check within preceding 6 months
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Term
Normal flight tolerances (heading, speed, height)?
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Definition
Heading +/-5
Speed +/- 10kts not below minimum approach speed for congfiguration
Height +/- 100ft, or at minimum altitudes +100ft minus 0ft
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Term
Assymetric flight tolerances?
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Definition
Heading (from datum heading) +/-20° initially, then +/-5°
Airspeed: Initial climb +/-5kts from nominated 1 engine inop climb speeds
Subsequent operations +/-10kts not below minimum approach speeds for configuration.
Height: as per normal operations
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Term
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Definition
5° of nominated track, for procedure descent may not be commenced until within tolerance
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Term
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Definition
5° of nominated track, for procedure descent may not be commenced until within tolerance
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Term
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Definition
+/- ½ scale deflection (and equivalent on expanded scale); must be able to land from minimum altitude without undue manoeuvring
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Term
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Definition
Tracking as per NDB/VOR on defined track otherwise within specified sector and descent in accordance with steps
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Term
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Definition
+/- ½ scale deflection at each waypoint passage and on final approach descent must not be started unless established within this tolerance; approach mode must be activated during final approach
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Term
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Definition
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Term
For the purposes of a renewal may proficiency in approaches be demonstrated in a synthetic flight trainer?
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Definition
As long as proficiency in at least 1 other navaid is demonstrated in flight or in an approved flight simulator
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Term
What approaches may be used to demonstrate proficiency in other approaches for the purposes of a renewal?
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Definition
ILS/LLZ may demonstrate proficiency in VOR provided 1 other non- precision instrument approach is demonstrated as part of the test.
LLZ may be used to demonstrate proficiency in ILS provided ILS proficiency was demonstrated at the previous renewal.
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Term
Does DGA need to be tested for a renewal?
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Definition
No, provided it is entered into the logbook previously having demonstrated proficiency.
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Term
What standard temperature lapse rates are used for the purposes of determining freezing level?
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Definition
3° per 1000ft in clear air otherwise 1.5° per 1000ft in cloud.
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Term
| Normal operations dry landing distance factor? |
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Definition
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Term
| Normal operations wet runway landing distance factor? |
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Definition
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Term
| Must a landing distance factor be applied in an emergency situation? |
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Definition
CAO requirements do not apply but QRH abnormality requirements do apply. However, if the CAO requirements cannot be applied in the abnormal secenario then a diversion to a longer runway should be first consideration.
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Term
| How is unfactored landing distance calculated? |
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Definition
| 50ft above runway at Vref to a complete stop. (Power levers to disc on landing, ground spoilers retracted and maximum anti skid braking. |
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Term
1 inop fuel reserve requirements?
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Definition
Fixed: 190lb (10 minutes)
Reserve: 10% of flight fuel |
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Term
| Timeframe within an intruder must enter caution zone to generate a TCAS TA? |
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Definition
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Term
| Timeframe within which an intruder entering the warning zone will generate a TCAS RA? |
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Definition
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Term
| TCAS open blue diamond meaning? |
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Definition
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Term
| TCAS solid blue diamond meaning? |
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Definition
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Term
| TCAS yellow circle meaning? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Actual threat, Resolution Advisory will be generated. |
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Term
| In the event of an attitude failure what will be displayed on the EADI? |
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Definition
- Pitch scale and roll pointer removed
- Sphere painted blue
- Red ATT FAIL displayed in middle upper half of sphere
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Term
| MAIN BATT HOT warning light |
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Definition
| Main batt temp exceeds 65°C |
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Term
| AUX BATT HOT warning light |
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Definition
| Aux batt temp exceeds 65°C |
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Term
| MAIN BATTERY caution light |
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Definition
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Indicates the main battery is not connected to the DC Bus or is switched OFF
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Term
| AUX BATTERY caution light |
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Definition
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Indicates the aux battery is not connected to the DC Bus or is switched OFF
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Term
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Definition
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Indicates the BBPU has detected a failt within the DC Buses and has opened the bus tie contactors and inhibited manual bus tie switch. After a 7 second delay the affected DC generator is automatically shut down and the affected battery is isolated from the faulty DC bus.
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Term
#1/#2 DC GEN caution light |
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Definition
Indicates the applicable generator is inoperative/offline, there is an open circuit breaker, or it is switched to OFF
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Term
#1/#2 DC GEN HOT caution light |
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Definition
Indicates the applicable generator windings have overheated, DC generator needs to be manually switched off
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Term
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Definition
Indicates the applicable TRU is inoperative/offline, or an open circuit breaker.
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Term
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Definition
Indicates the applicable TRU has overheated. No automatic TRU shutdown and no switch, the TRU can only be shutdown via pilot action pulling the applicable circuit breaker |
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Term
| Rapid Depressurisation/Emergency Descent recall? |
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Definition
- Oxygen Mask - ON
- Mic Switch - Mask
- Passenger Signs - ON
EMERGENCY DESCENT, accomplish as required
- Power Levers - Flight Idle
- Condition Levers - Max
- Airspeed - Vmo
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Term
| Aborted Engine Start/Failure to Light Up |
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Definition
Aborted Engine Start Failure to Light Up (Within 10 secs)
· Condition Lever – Fuel Off
· Ignition (affected engine) – Off
Motor engine for 15 secs
· Start Select – Off
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Term
| Aborted Engine Start/Imminent Overtemperature |
|
Definition
Aborted Engine Start Imminent Overtemperature
· Condition Lever – Fuel Off
If ITT does not decrease immediately
· Pull Fuel Off Handle (affected engine) – Off
· Ignition (affected engine) – Off
Motor engine for 15 secs
Start Select Switch – Off |
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Term
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Definition
- Confirm APU automatic shutdown (APU RUN advisory light out and APU BTL discharge light illuminated)
If APU BTL or APU fire advisory light remains illuminated:
· Extg switch – Extinguish
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Term
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Definition
· Emerg Brake – ON
· Power Levers – Flight Idle
· Condition levers – Fuel Off
· Pull Fuel Off Handle (Affected engine) – Pull
· Tank Aux Pumps 1 & 2 – Off
If fire:
· Extg switch (affected engine) – Fwd Btl
Wait up to 30 secs, IF fire persists:
· Extg switch (affected engine) – Aft Btl
If evacuation
· Emergency Lights – On
· Fasten Belts – Off
· Evacuate – as req’d
· AC/DC Ext Pwr/APU – Off
· Battery Master - Off
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Term
Oil Pressure Below 40psi
or
#1/2 Engine Oil Pressure Warning Light |
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Definition
Affected engine:
· Engine Fail/Fire/Shutdown Checklist (pg 5.14) accomplish
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Term
| Propeller Overspeed Recall |
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Definition
· Synchrophase - Off
· Airspeed – Reduce towards minimum for flap configuration and flight conditions
Affected engine:
· Power levers – Flight idle
· Condition levers – Start/feather
· Alternate feather (If req’d) – Fthr
If propeller does not feather:
- DO NOT SHUT DOWN ENGINE
Alternate feather – Norm
Condition levers – Max
Power lever (affected engine) – Advance (Do not exceed 1212RPM)
Power lever (non-affected engine) as required to maintain desired flight profile
- Land immediately at nearest suitable airport
If propeller feathers:
· Engine Fail/Fire/Shutdown Checklist (p5.14) - accomplish
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Term
| Unscheduled Propeller Feathering |
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Definition
Above 400ft AGL
Affected engine
· Engine Fail/Fire/Shutdown checklist (p5.14) - accomplish
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Term
| Propeller Ground Range Advisory Light Cycling |
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Definition
· Power levers – Advance above flight idle
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Term
Engine Fail/Fire/Shutdown (In flight) Recall
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Definition
Affected engine
· Power lever – Flight idle
· Condition lever – Fuel off
· Alternate feather (if req’d) – Feather
· Pull Fuel Off Handle – Pull
· Tank Aux Pump – Off
If fire
· Extg switch (affected engine) – Fwd Btl
If fire persists wait up to 30 secs
· Extg switch (affected engine) – Aft Btl
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Term
| Smoke Warning Light Recall |
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Definition
· Oxygen Masks – On/100%
· Smoke goggles – On
· Mic Switch – Mask
· Recirc fans – Off
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Term
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Definition
|
· Oxygen Masks – On/100%
· Smoke goggles – On
· Mic Switch – Mask
· Recirc fans – Off
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Term
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Definition
|
· Autopilot – Disengage
· Roll Disc Handle – Pull and turn 90°
Control Wheels - Both pilots attempt roll control
-Pilot with free control wheel will fly the aircraft
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Term
| Roll Control Malfunction Recall |
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Definition
|
· Roll control – apply to hold wings level
IF continuous illumination of SPLR 1 or SPLR 2 Push Off switchlights:
· Illuminated switchlight – Push Off
IF SPLR 1 or SPLR 2 Push Off Switchlights do not illuminate:
· Power – Apply
· Airspeed – Increase
·
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Term
|
Definition
|
· Autopilot – Disengage
· Flap and Airspeed – Maintain at time of jam
· Pitch control – Attempt to overcome jam
If unable to overcome jam:
· Relax control column force
· Pitch disconnect handle- pull and turn 90°
Control Wheels - Both pilots attempt pitch control
-Pilot with free control wheel will fly the aircraft
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Term
| An acceptable approximation for driftdown speed is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Engine boost ejector pump has failed (output below 5.5psi) |
|
|
Term
| #1/#2 FUEL FILTER BYPASS CAUTION |
|
Definition
| Fuel filter restricted or blocked |
|
|
Term
| Holding limitations up to and including FL140 |
|
Definition
- 230kt or 170kt where the approach is limited to Cat A & B aircraft only
- 1 minute outbound timing or limitation specified on the chart
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Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Minimum obstacle clearance requirements |
|
Definition
Cat A/B - 300ft
Cat C/D - 400ft
Cat E - 500ft
(Company minimum circling altitude 600ft) |
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Term
|
Definition
Cat A - 1.68nm
Cat B - 2.66nm
Cat C - 4.2nm
Cat D - 5.28nm
Cat E - 6.94nm |
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