| Term 
 
        | What is the goal for acute antibiotic treatment? prophylactic? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acute - bacterial eradication Prophylactic - reduced progression |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two "prongs" for prevention of pulomary disease progression? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. reducing/eradicating inflammation (decreases cellular and tissue alterations) 2. reducing bacterial burden on pulmonary tree (decrease acute exacerbations and alter disease course) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What genes are involved in CF? |  | Definition 
 
        | gene on the long arm of chromosome 7 that encodes for the cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator (CFTR) protein   delta-F508 allele (3 base-pair deletion = absence of phenylalanine) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the four classes of mutations? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. defective protein production 2. defective protein processing 3. defective channel regulation 4. defective channel conductance |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What organ systems are affected in CF? |  | Definition 
 
        | GI: Pancreas - digestive enzyme & insulin deficiency Intestines - viscous secretions (obstruction) Liver - biliary cirrhosis/fatty infiltration (portal HTN/esophageal varices)   Pulmonary - viscous secretions, infection   Sweat glands - failure to reabsorb sodium (hypoNa)   Reproductive - obstruction of epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles (aspermia) or viscous cervical mucus (decreased fertility)   Hematologic - anemia   Bone and Joint - arthritis, osteopenia   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | loss of functional CFTR → defective 3-5-monophosphate stim Cl transport→ decreased Cl secretion and increased Na absorption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | small bowel obstruction (10-16% of pt) = bowel that cannot be evacuated |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is distal intestinal obstruction syndrome or meconium ileus equivalent? |  | Definition 
 
        | When meconium ileus occurs in older pt |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the affected enzymes? |  | Definition 
 
        | trypsin chymotrypsin carboxypeptidase amylase lipase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of cloride receptor is the CFTR? |  | Definition 
 
        | cyclic-3-5-AMP (cAMP)-dependent chloride channel |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What vitamin deficiencies would you worry about with a CF pt? |  | Definition 
 
        | Fat soluble (ADEK) - from lipase deficiency Vitamin B12 + Zinc - pancreatic enzyme def |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the pathology of carbohydrate intolerance in CF pts? |  | Definition 
 
        | low insulin concentrations & enhanced peripheral sensitivity    without islet cell or antiinsulin antibodies   not usually associated with ketosis     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most common laboratory abnormality associated with hepatic involvement? |  | Definition 
 
        | hepatic isoenzymes: gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase (GGP) alanine aminotransferase (ALT) aspartate aminotransferase (AST) alkaline phosphatase (ALP) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the defective innate host defenses at the airway surface that result in pulmonary manifestations of CF? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. exaggerated inflammatory response 2. bactericidal activity 3. altered mucus clearance |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 factors that influence endobronchitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. airway infection 2. inflammation 3. obstruction |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the result of defective anion-mediated fluid secretion in mucus glands?   hyposecretion or hyperabsorption |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the three most common bacterial pathogens isolated from the respiratory secretions (sputum) of CF pts? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Staphylococcus aureus 2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 3. Haemophilus influenzae   P. aeruginosa - predominates throughout life |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the characteristics of P. aeruginosa that are associated with particularly high resistance to antibiotics? |  | Definition 
 
        | mucoid strands (alginate producers) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 distinct syndromes associated with Burkholderia cepacia (contageous)? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. asymptomatic colonization 2. chronic deterioration with fever/weight loss 3. rapid, usually fatal deterioration |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which organisms have prognostic significance in pt <2? |  | Definition 
 
        | P. aeruginosa or P. aeruginosa plus S. aureus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | P. aeruginosa produces:     extracellular toxins     proteases     hemolysins     exopolysaccharides that may be associated with what 3 problems? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. direct airway damage 2. increased mucin production by epithelium 3. production of immune complexes (immunoglobins G and M) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What inflammatory mediators are seen in CF pts? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. granulocyte elastase 2. TNF-alpha 3. IL-1 4. IL-2 5. neutrophil elastase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which inflammatory mediator clearly contributes to pulmonary patho?   How? |  | Definition 
 
        | neutrophil elastase   1. overwhelms and neutralizes native antiproteases (a1-antitrypsin and secretory leukocyte protease inh) 2. destroys structural fibers 3. inh complement-mediated phagocytosis and antipseudomonal antibodies |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which fungus may induce steroid-responsive allergic reaction? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why do CF pt get a barrel chest? |  | Definition 
 
        | they are having to use accessory muscles to move the air through the obstructed muscles   increased anterior-posterior chest diameter |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some of the respiratory complications of CF? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. relative exercise intolerance 2. increased resting energy expenditure 3. hemoptysis 4. gastroesophageal reflux 5. pneumothorax (collapsed lung) 6. right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale) secondary to pulmonary hypertension 7. digital clubbing (related to chronic hypoxia) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why do CF pts have high concentrations of Na and Cl in their sweat? |  | Definition 
 
        | defective chloride absorption across the water-impermeable sweat duct epithelium   the levels are normal in the gland lumen because chloride is secreted through other channels too, but as the sweat progresses through the duct towards the skin's surface, absorption is reduced |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What 3 obstructions cause 95% of males with CF sterile? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. epidydymis 2. vas deferens 3. seminal vesicles |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Anemia can occur in pts with CF despite chronic hypoxia because of what 2 disturbances? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. iron availability (decreased GI absorption) 2. erythropoietin regulation (nl to low levels) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are you concerns for CF pt's bones and joints? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Arthritis - usually nondestructive and episodic from immune complexes secondary to chronic pulmonary infections   2. Hypertrophic osetoarthropathy - occurs in association with pulmonary diseases   3. Osteopenia/osteoporosis - from bone demineralization |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some reasons that bone demineralization would occur in CF pts? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. vitD malabsorption 2. decreased vitD conversion (via sunlight) 3. deayed puberty and endocrine development 4. poor nutrition 5. limited physical activity  6. chronic acidosis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the characteristics of a CF poop? |  | Definition 
 
        | foul odorous bulky greasy more frequent in # steatorrhea |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What pattern of respiratory status is seen? |  | Definition 
 
        | cyclical   relative well-being to acute pulmonary deterioration   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sweat test: 1. how many samples do you need? 2. how are they collected? 3. what level is diagnostic? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. 2 samples 2. collected using pilocarpine iontophoresis  3. chloride concentrations >60mEq/L |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the life expenctacy for CF patients? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What FEV1 level, PaO2 level, or PCO2 level is associated with 2-year motality rate >50%? |  | Definition 
 
        | FEV1 <30% predicted PaO2 <50mmHg PCO2 >55mmHg   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the chief variable in enzyme replacement products?   What are the ingredients? |  | Definition 
 
        | lipase content   lipase/protease/amylase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the ADE of pancreatic supplementation? |  | Definition 
 
        | Perianal irritation resembling diaper rash (excess powder)   Hyperuricosuria - high purine content of products   Proximal colonic stricture (fibrosing colonopathy) if dose >24000u/kg/day |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat meconium ileus and distal intestinal obstruction syndrome? |  | Definition 
 
        | enemas with isoosmolar contrast   often surgery is required |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can be used for prevention and treatment of cirrhosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ursodeoxycholic acid (a bile acid with choleretic properties) at doses of 15-20mg/kg/day   sometimes used in combo with taurine supplementation   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the three areas of pulmonary therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. antiobstructive 2. antiinflammatory 3. antiinfective |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the antiobstructive therapies? |  | Definition 
 
        | percussion and postural drainage (1-2x/day healthy, ~6x/day in exacerbation)   Flutter devices - produces vibrations in airways when exhaled through   Nebulizer therapy - sterile water of 0.9% sodium chloride, might use bronchodialators and mucolytics too (N-acetylcysteine, Mucomyst)   RhDNAse - inhalation QD-BID   hypertonic saline inhalation - 7% solution generally (must be compounded) - do not mix with other nebulizer solutions   systemic bronchodilators (theophylline + B-ag) Theophylline clearance and BA may be decreased so use larger dose (2nd line) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What immunizations should CF get? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. yearly influenza (amantadine prophylaxisis or treatment if indicated) 2. pneumococcal 3. H. influenzae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the possible antiinflammatory therapies? |  | Definition 
 
        | corticosteroid therapy - but problems with glucose and growth   ibuprofen - beneficial but therapeutic drug monitoring is required |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When are AB indicated in acute exacerbations? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. finding known pathogens at high density in airways 2. increased cough 3. increased sputum production (thicker, darker) 4. decrease in lung function 5. loss of appetite 6. reduced exercise tolerance |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What AB can generally be used as suppressive therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole amoxicillin-clavulanic acid any of the oral cephalosporins |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What AB should be used for specific therapy if P. aeruginosa and S.aureus are proven or likely? |  | Definition 
 
        | AG and an extended-spectrum PCN (ticarcillin, piperacillin) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which agents can be used as single-agent therapies on an outpatient basis in areas where there is no significant resistance? |  | Definition 
 
        | ceftazidime aztreonam ciprofloxacin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Can you achieve complete eradication of S.aureus and H. influenzae? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What AB can be used with B. cepacia? |  | Definition 
 
        | trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole chloramphenicol ceftazidime |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What AB can be used with S.maltophilia? |  | Definition 
 
        | trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole chloramphenicol doxycycline piperacillin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How are many CF pts different in regards to kinetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. increased total body clearence for many ABs (AG, some BL, TPM/SMZ) 2. variations in hepatic metabolic activity  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Table 32-3: Which drug has an increased elimination half-life in some CF pts? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which drugs have a decreased elimination half-life in some CF pts? |  | Definition 
 
        | cloxacillin, azlocillin, piperacillin, ticarcillin, aztreonam, ceftazidime, tmp/smz, fleroxacin, theophylline |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In general, the apparent Vd of the AB and theophylline are increased or decreased? |  | Definition 
 
        | increased   fleroxacin is decreased dicloxacillin, ticarcillin, tmp-smz are not affected |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which AB have an increased renal clearance in many CF patients? |  | Definition 
 
        | methicillin, cloxacillin, dicloxacillin, ticarcillin, aztreonam, ceftazidime, tmp, amikacin   theophylline is increased too   fleroxacin is decreased |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Table 32-4:Oral AB 1. what AB are listed? 2. which oral ABs can be used BID? 3. which oral ABs have an adult max dose?  4. what is the adult max dose?   |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Amoxicillin, Amox/Clav, Cipro, Cephalexin, Dicloxacillin, TMP/SMZ   2. Ciprofloxacin and TMP/SMZ   3/4.  TMP/SMZ - 0.64g/day (of TMP)  Cipro - 1.5g/day  Cephalexin - 6g/day  Dicloxacillin - 6g/day |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T32-4: Parenteral ABs 1. which drugs are listed? 2. which drugs can be given q8h? 3. q6-8? 4. q6? 5. q4-6? 6. which have adult max doses? what are the doses |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. tobramycin, gentamicin, netilmicin, amikacin, azlocillin, aztreonam, ceftazidime, colistin, imipenem, nafcillin, ticarcillin, ticarcillin/clav, piperacillin   2. tobra, gent, netilmicin, amikacin, ceftazidime   3. colistin   4. aztreonam, imipenem   5. azlocillin, nafcillin, ticarcillin, ticarcillin/clav, piperacillin   6.     imipenem - 4g/day  ceftazidime - 6g/day  nafcillin - 6g/day  aztreonam - 8g/day  ticarcillin - 18g/day  piperacillin - 18g/day  azlocillin - 24g/day |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | P. aeruginosa is resistant to what drugs? by what mechanism? |  | Definition 
 
        | quinolones (altered DNAgyrase target site) B-lactams (prod.of Bush group 1 B-lactamase) AG (dec. permeability and modifying enzymes) carbapenems (decreased permeability)   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs should be given with AGs? why? |  | Definition 
 
        | extended-spectrum PCNs ticarcillin, azlocillin, piperacillin (dose of at least 350mg/kg/day divided into 4-6doses)   they have synergy and prevent emergence of resistance |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Since there is a possible increased incidence of fever and exanthema with the newer PCNs, what B-lactam can be used safely in pt experiencing these serum sickness-like reactions? |  | Definition 
 
        | aztreonam (azactam, cayson inh) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can be used to predict total lenght of therapy necessary for intravenous antibiotics? |  | Definition 
 
        | FEV1 at the end of 1 week of treatment   recovered >40% = 2 weeks of therapy   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some of the potential/experimental treatments? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. growth hormone 2. protease inh - for inflammation (a1-antitrypsin aerosol, secretory leukocyte PInh) 3. pentoxifylline - inh TNF-a and stim PMN 4. amiloride - diuretic may block Na reabsorption 5. adenosine and uridine triphosphate - increase chloride excretion in epithelial cells   6. phenylbutyrate - increases amt of functional protein that reactes the cell surface 7. 8-cyclopentyl-1,3-dipropylxanthine (CPX) 8. milrinone (PDEI) 9. genistein (tyrosine-kinase inh) - all activate mutant CFTR   10. gentamicin - suppresses certain premature stop mutations in CFTR     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Tobramycin 1. Brand? 2. BBW? 3. Dosing? 4. Age minimum? 5. Admin? 6. Storage 7. prego? 8. serum levels |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. TOBI (R) 2. nephrotoxicity/neurotoxicity 3. 300mg q12h (NOT<6h apart), 28d on/28d off 4. 6yo 5. inh ~15m using PARI-LC PLUS hh neb 6. refrigerate, at RT in foil pouch for 28d 7. pregD, AG cause fetal harm, breast milk + 8. ~1mcg/mL 1h post 300mg dose |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | if using multiple nebulizer treatments what order should you administer the drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | bronchodilator hypertonic saline pulmozyme airway clearance technique (vest, flutter, chest pt, ipv) antibiotics steroids |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is tobramycin's 1. drug class? 2. MOA? 3. spectrum 4. ADE |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. aminoglycoside 2. binds to 30S and 50S ribosomal subunits 3. gram-negative bacilli (including Pseudomonas aeruginosa), Burkholderia cepacia 4. can cause voice alterations |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Aztreonam: 1. Brand 2. Dosing 3. Min age 4. Admin 5. Storage   |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Cayston (inh), Azactam (IM/IV) 2. inhalation - 75mg TID (at least 4h apart) for 28 days, do not repeat for 28 days 3. >7 years old 4. only use Altera(R) neb system, admin over 2-3min, doses > 4h apart; if used with a SA bronchodilator use 15m-4h before, LA use 30m-12h before) 5. refrigerate, store aztreonam and diluent at room temp for up to 28days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Aztreonam: 1. class 2. MOA 3. spectrum 4. prego 5. ADEs   |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. synthetic monocyclic beta-lactam AB 2. binds to PBPs to inh trspep in pep-gly synth 3.pseudomonas aeruginosa, acinetobacter, alcaligenes, klebsiella, serratia (almost pure aerobic g- activity) 4. PregB, milk+ 5. fever, cough, congestion, pharyngeal p, wheezing |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Colistimethate 1. Brand 2. Dosing 3. Storage 4. ADEs 5. Prego |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Coly-Mycin M 2. 50-75mg in NS via neb 2-3x/day  3. intact vials at RM temp, reconstit 24rt or frige 4. paresthesia, slurred speech, renal toxicity, respiratory arrest, superinfection 5. pregC, unknown if in milk |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Colistimethate/Coly-Mycin(R) M 1. Class 2. MOA 3. Spectrum 4. DDI |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Misc, polymixin B 2. PRODRUG: hydrolyzed to colistin that acts as a cationic detergent damaging the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane = leakage 3. pseudomonas aeruginosa, gram-neg bacilli resistant to other AB 4. AG, AmphB, Capreomycin, Polymyxin B, Typhoid Vaccin, Vanc, NMBlk |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Dornase Alfa 1. Brand 2. Min Age 3. Dosing 4. Storage 5. Prego 6. ADE |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Pulmozyme 2. > 3mo (Pari-Baby nebulizer) 3. 2.5mg once daily for pt with FVC>40% 4. Refrigerate and protect from light 5. PregB, unknown lactation 6. chest p, fever, rash, pharyngitis, rhinitis, voice |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Dornase alfa is a DNAenzyme that selectively cleaves DNA to reduce viscosity of lung secretions   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | pancreatic elastase test:  what is it? what do your results mean?   |  | Definition 
 
        | fecal test   severe <100 nl >200 (200-500) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are Hi-Vegi-LipTablets?   |  | Definition 
 
        | pancreatin   gluten, lactose, and sugar free 4800/60,000/60,000 L/P/A   OTC |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the different pancrelipase formulation names? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pancreaze Zenpep Creon Tri-Pase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the different dosages of Pancreaze DR Capsules? |  | Definition 
 
        | 4200/10,000/17,500 10,500/25,000/43,750   enteric-coated microtablets   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the different Creon DR capsule dosages? |  | Definition 
 
        | 6,000/19,000/30,000 12,000/38,000/60,000 24,000/76,000/120,000   enteric-coated spheres |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the different Zenpep DR capsule formulations? |  | Definition 
 
        | 5,000/17,000/27,000 10,000/34,000/55,000 15,000/51,000/82,000 20,000/68,000/109,000   enteric-coated beads |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the different Tri-Pase dosages? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tri-Pase 8: 8t/30t/30t Tri-Pase 16: 12t/60t/60t |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Mucomyst?   MOA:   ADE: |  | Definition 
 
        | N-acetylcysteine   mucolytic agent   unpleasant taste and odor, may cause bronchospasm |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which 2 AG antibiotics have similar kinetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amikacin and Kanamycin  Therapeutic peaks: 16-32, 15-40  Toxic P/T: >35, >10  Dose mg/kg/d: 15   Gentamicin and Tobramycin  Therapeutic peaks: 4-8mcg/mL  Toxic P/T: >12, >2  Dose: 3-5mg/kg/day |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the relative nephrotoxicity of the AGs? |  | Definition 
 
        | kana=amikacin=gent > tobra> strepto |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the relative OTOXICITY of AGs?   vestibular toxicity? auditory? |  | Definition 
 
        | kana=strepto>amikacin=gent=tobra   vestibular: streptomycin and gentamicin   auditory: kanamycin and amikacin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which nebulizer can be used wirelessly? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which nebulizable drug should be mixed with an ampule of saline before use? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following statements best describes the pathophysiology of diarrhea in CF pts? A. GI system is unabe to absorb water in foods consumed B. bowel bc fibrotic + unable to absorb nutr. C. liver promotes enh metabolism of nut. D. pancreas doesn't produce enough enzymes for digestion E. stomach doesn't produce enough acid to digest food |  | Definition 
 
        | D. Pancrease doesn't produce enzymes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Suppressive antibiotic therapy is aimed at which of the following? A. bacterial proliferation B. normalizing pulmonary fx tests C. reducing sputum viscosity D. suppressing airway inflammation E. increasing biofilm production |  | Definition 
 
        | A. bacterial proliferation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following best describes the abnormality observed by the sweat test? A. increased Na, decreased Cl B. increased Na, normal Cl C. normal Na, decreased Cl D. decreased Na, increased Cl E. increased Na, increased Cl |  | Definition 
 
        | E. increased Na and increased Cl |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ursodeoxycholic acid can be use if the pt is experiencing which of the following situations? A. serum liver function enzymes increased B. pulmonary exacerbation with P. aeruginosa C. frequent, watery, foul-smelling stools D dehydration from sweat loss E. hospitalization for any pulm or pancreatic reason |  | Definition 
 
        | A. serum liver function enzyme increases |  | 
        |  |