Term
1) When assessing a patient suspected of having vertigo, which description provided by the patient is most consistent with the diagnosis?
a) A sensation of imbalance while walking
b) A sensation of spinning or rotating
c) A sensation of ‘passing out’
d) A sensation of lightheadedness when changing positions from reclining to standing |
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Definition
| b) A sensation of spinning or rotating |
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Term
2) A 72 year old man reports a crusty and non healing small ulcer on his upper lip that he has had for several years. Which of the following would you recommend?
a) Triamcinolone acetonide cream BID for 2 weeks
b) Triply antibiotic ointment BID for 2 weeks
c) Hydrocortisone 1% cream BID for 2 weeks
d) Evaluation by a dermatologist |
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Definition
| d) Evaluation by a dermatologist |
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Term
3) All of the following skin findings are considered macules except:
a) A freckle
c) Acne
d) A flat, 0.5cm brown birthmark |
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Definition
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Term
4) Which of the following drug classes is recommended for the treatment of postherpetic neuralgia?
a) Tricyclic antidepressants
b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
c) Atypical antidepressants
d) Benzodiazepines |
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Definition
| a) Tricyclic antidepressants |
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Term
5) The following are considered benign lesions of the skin except:
a) Lentigo
b) Seborrheic keratosis
c) Actinic keratosis
d) Rosacea |
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Definition
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Term
6) The components of brief intervention for treating tobacco use include:
a) Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange
b) Advise, Intervene, Counsel, Follow up, Prescribe
c) Document, Counsel, Caution, Describe, Demonstrate
d) Ask, Acquire, Acknowledge, Arrange, Anticipate |
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Definition
| a) Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange |
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Term
7) Brief intervention that provides motivation to quit tobacco use should be:
a) Used at every clinical visit that the tobacco user has, regardless of reason for the visit.
b) Offered when the tobacco user voices concern about the health effects of smoking
c) Applied primarily during visits for conditions that are clearly related to or exacerbated by tobacco use
d) When the clinician is conducting a comprehensive health assessment, such as the annual physical examination. |
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Definition
| a) Used at every clinical visit that the tobacco user has, regardless of reason for the visit. |
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Term
8) The use of FDA approved pharmacologic intervention in tobacco use:
a) Makes little difference in smoking cessation rates.
b) Reliably increases long term smoking abstinence rates
c) Is helpful but generally poorly tolerated
d) Poses a greater risk to health than continued tobacco use |
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Definition
| b) Reliably increases long term smoking abstinence rates |
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Term
9) You see a 54 year old patient who started taking varenicline (Chantix) 4 weeks ago to aid in smoking cessation. Which of the following is the most important question to ask during todays visit?
a) How many cigarettes a day are you currently smoking?
b) On a scale of 0 to 10, how strong is your desire to smoke?
c) Have you noticed any changes in your mood?
d) Are you having any trouble sleeping? |
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Definition
| c) Have you noticed any changes in your mood? |
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Term
10) A flat discoloration less than 1 cm in diameter is a:
a) Macule
b) Plaque
c) Wheal
d) Patch |
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Definition
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Term
11) A flat discoloration greater than 1 cm in diameter is:
a) Macule
b) Plaque
c) Wheal
d) Patch |
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Definition
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Term
12) A raised lesion, larger than 1 cm, may be same or different color from the surrounding skin describes a:
a) Macule
b) Plaque
c) Wheal
d) Patch |
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Definition
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Term
13) Clinical features of bullous impetigo include:
a) Intense itch
b) Vesicular lesions
c) Dermatomal pattern
d) Systemic symptoms such as fever and chills |
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Definition
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Term
14) First line therapy for acne vulgaris with closed comedones includes:
a) Oral antibiotics
b) Isotretinoin
c) Benzoyl peroxide
d) Hydrocortisone cream |
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Definition
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Term
15) In a 13 year old female patient with mild acne and who experiences an inadequate response to benzoyl peroxide treatment, an appropriate treatment option would be to:
a) Add a topical retinoid
b) Add an oral antibiotic
c) Consider isotretinoin
d) Consider hormonal therapy |
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Definition
| a) Add a topical retinoid |
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Term
16) In a 22 year old woman using isotretinoin (Accutane) therapy, the NP ensures follow up to monitor for all of the following tests except:
a) Hepatic enzymes
b) Triglyceride measurements
c) Pregnancy test
d) Platelet count |
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Definition
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Term
17) A common infective agent in domestic pet cat bites is:
a) Viridans streptococcus species
b) Pasteurella multocida
c) Bacteriodes species
d) Haemophilus influnzae |
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Definition
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Term
18) A significant rabies risk is associated with a bite from all of the following except:
a) A human
b) A fox
c) A bat
d) A skunk |
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Definition
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Term
19) You see a 24 year old in the walk in center who reports he was bitten in the thigh by a raccoon while walking in the woods. The exam reveals a wound that is 1 cm deep on the right thigh. The wound is oozing bright red blood. You next best action is to:
a) Administer high dose parenteral penicillin
b) Initiate antibacterial prophylaxis with amoxicillin
c) Give rabies immune globulin and rabies vaccine
d) Suture the wound after proper cleansing. |
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Definition
| c) Give rabies immune globulin and rabies vaccine |
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Term
20) One of the most common trigger agents for contact dermatitis is:
a) Exposure to nickel
b) Use of fabric softener
c) Bathing with liquid body wash
d) Eating spicy foods |
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Definition
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Term
21) A common site for atopic dermatitis in an adult is on the the:
a) Dorsum of the hand
b) Face
c) Neck
d) Flexor surfaces |
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Definition
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Term
22) Shingles most commonly involve the dermatomes of the:
a) Legs and pubic area
b) Face
c) Upper arms and shoulders
d) Thorax |
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Definition
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Term
23) The zoster vaccine (Zostavax) is a(n):
a) Inactivated/killed virus vaccine
b) Conjugate vaccine containing a virus like particle (VLP)
c) Live, attenuated vaccine
d) Inactivated toxin vaccine |
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Definition
| c) Live, attenuated vaccine |
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Term
24) Which of the following best describes seborrheic dermatitis lesions?
a) Flaking lesions in the antecubital and popliteal spaces
b) Greasy, scaling lesions in the nasolabial folds
c) Intensely itchy lesions in the groin folds
d) Silvery lesions on the elbows and knees |
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Definition
| b) Greasy, scaling lesions in the nasolabial folds |
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Term
25) You see a 67 year old man with seborrheic dermatitis that has failed to respond to treatment with ketoconazole shampoo. An appropriate second line treatment option can include any of the following except:
a) Oral fluconazole
b) A topical immune modulator
c) Topical propylene glycol
d) High potency topical corticosteroid |
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Definition
| d) High potency topical corticosteroid |
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Term
26) A 56 year old truck driver present with a new nodular, opaque lesion with nondistinct borders on his left forearm. This most likely represents a(n):
a) Actinic keratosis
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Basal cell carcinoma
d) Malignant melanoma |
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Definition
| b) Squamous cell carcinoma |
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Term
27) A skin biopsy result indicates the presence of malignant melanoma for your patient. You recommend:
a) Excision of the entire lesion.
b) Electrodissection with curettage
c) Initiating treatment with topical cancer chemotherapy
d) Consultation with a skin care expert to direct next best action. |
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Definition
| d) Consultation with a skin care expert to direct next best action. |
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Term
28) A 62 year old woman presents 2 days after noticing a ‘bug bite’ on her left forearm. Exam reveals a warm, red, edematous area with sharply demarcated borders. The patient is otherwise healthy with no fever. This most likely represents:
a) Contact dermatitis
b) An allergic reaction
c) Cellulitis
d) Erysipelas |
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Definition
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Term
29) Topical treatments for rosacea include all of the following except:
a) Metronidazole cream
b) Azelaic acid gel
c) Medium potency corticosteroid cream
d) Benzoyl peroxide |
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Definition
| c) Medium potency corticosteroid cream |
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Term
30) Oral antimicrobial treatments recommended for rosacea include all of the following except:
a) Metronidazole
b) Levofloxacin
c) Erythromycin
d) Doxycycline |
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Definition
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Term
1) A 52- year old woman who has had Type 2 diabetes for 15 years is concerned about her kidneys. She has a history of three urinary tract infections within the past 8 months, but is currently asymptomatic. Which of the following is the best course to follow?
a) Recheck urine during the visit, send a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity, and refer to a nephrologist
b) Order a urinalysis dipstick test to be repeated monthly
c) Order a CT scan of the kidneys
d) Provide empiric treatment for UTI |
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Definition
| a) Recheck urine during the visit, send a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity, and refer to a nephrologist |
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Term
2) A 35 year old patient is being worked up for microscopic hematuria. All of the following are differential diagnoses of microscopic hematuria except:
a) Kidney stones
b) Bladder cancer
c) Acute pyelonephritis
d) Renal artery stenosis |
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Definition
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Term
3) A patient who has been prescribed warfarin sodium (Coumadin) is advised to avoid eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables because:
a) The high vitamin K levels will decrease the INR
b) They have too much ascorbic acid, which can interact with the medicine
c) The high fiber content will decrease the absorption of the warfarin
d) The vitamins in the vegetables will bind with, and inactivate, the warfarin
4) In the US, the most common cause of cancer deaths in men is: |
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Definition
| a) The high vitamin K levels will decrease the INR |
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Term
4) In the US, the most common cause of cancer deaths in men is:
a) lung cancer
b) prostate cancer
c) colon cancer
d) skin cancer |
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Definition
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Term
5) The red blood cells in pernicious anemia will show:
a) Microcytic cells
b) Hyperchromic cells
c) Macrocytic cells
d) Hemolytic cells |
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Definition
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Term
6) Beta thalassemia minor is considered a:
a) Macrocytic anemia
b) Normocytic anemia
c) Microcytic anemia
d) Hemolytic anemia |
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Definition
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Term
7) A 65 year old Hispanic woman has a history of type 2 diabetes. A routine urinalysis reveals a few epithelial cells and is negative for leukocytes, nitrites, and protein. The serum creatinine is 1.5 mg/dL. Which of the following actions would you recommend next?
a) Order a urine test for culture and sensitivity
b) Order a spot urine for microalbumin to creatinine ratio
c) Because the urinalysis is negative, no further tests are necessart
d) Recommend a screening intravenous pyelogram |
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Definition
| b) Order a spot urine for microalbumin to creatinine ratio |
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Term
8) The most common cause of cancer deaths for women in the US is:
a) Breast cancer
b) Lung cancer
c) Colon cancer
d) Uterine cancer |
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Definition
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Term
9) Which of the following tests would you recommend to patients to confirm the diagnosis of sickle cell anemia?
a) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
b) Bone marrow biopsy
c) Peripheral smear
d) Reticulocyte count |
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Definition
| a) Hemoglobin electrophoresis |
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Term
10) You would recommend the pneumococcal vaccine to patient with all of the following conditions except:
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Splenectomy
c) HIV infection
d) G6PD deficiency anemia |
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Definition
| d) G6PD deficiency anemia |
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Term
11) A 16 year old female patient is being treated for her first UTI. She had an allergic reaction with hives after taking sulfa as a child.. Which of the following antibiotics would be contraindicated?
a) Cephalexin (Keflex)
b) Amipicillin (Amoxil)
c) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
d) Nitrofurantoin crystals (Macrobid) |
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Definition
| c) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) |
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Term
12) Which of the following individuals is more likely to be affected by alpha thalassemia anemia?
a) 53 year old Greek patient
b) 25 year old Chinese patient
c) 62 year old Russian patient
d) 38 year old African American patient |
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Definition
| b) 25 year old Chinese patient |
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Term
13) What is the name of the immune process that is responsible for anaphylactic reactions?
a) IgE mediated reaction
b) IgG mediated reaction
c) Antibody reaction
d) Atopic reaction |
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Definition
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Term
14) A new patient is being interviewed. She reports that she had a gastrectomy procedure 5 years ago to treat severe obesity. Currently, her body mass index is 25 and the patient denies complications from the procedure. The nurse practitioner is aware that the patient is at higher risk for which of the following disorders?
a) Folate deficiency anemia
b) B12 deficiency anemia
c) Iron deficiency anemia
d) Normocytic anemia |
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Definition
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Term
15) Which of the following human papillomavirus (HPV) strains is associated with cervical cancer?
a) HPV subtypes 12 and 14
b) HPV subtypes 16 and 18
c) HPV subtypes 20 and 26
d) HPV subtype 30 |
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Definition
| b) HPV subtypes 16 and 18 |
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Term
16) Typical symptoms of lung cancer caused by a primary tumor include all of the following except:
a) Chest discomfort
b) Dyspnea
c) Hoarseness
d) Hemoptysis |
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Definition
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Term
17) Current limitations of screening smokers with CT scan include all of the following except:
a) A high false positive rate
b) Low sensitivity
c) Radiation exposure from multiple CT scans
d) Patient anxiety |
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Definition
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Term
18) Which of the following is true concerning colorectal cancer?
a) Most colorectal cancers are found during rectal examination
b) Rectal carcinoma is more common than cancers involving the colon
c) Early manifestations include abdominal pain and cramping
d) Later disease presentation often includes iron deficiency anemia. |
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Definition
| d) Later disease presentation often includes iron deficiency anemia. |
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Term
19) All of the following can cause an increased PSA except:
a) Prostate infection
b) Cystoscopy
c) BPH
d) Prostatectomy |
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Definition
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Term
20) Which part of the prostate is readily palpable during a DRE?
a) Anterior lobe
b) Median lobe
c) Lateral lobes
d) Posterior lobe |
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Definition
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Term
21) A 68 year old man presents with suspected bladder cancer. You consider that its most common presenting sign or symptom is:
a) Painful urination
b) Fever and flank pain
c) Painless gross hematuria
d) Palpable abdominal mass |
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Definition
| c) Painless gross hematuria |
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Term
22) You see a 33 year old woman whose Pap smear result reveals atypical cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US). She is also positive for HPV, with genotype testing revealing the presence of HPV type 16. You recommend:
a) Repeating Pap test immediately
b) Repeating the Pap test in 3 to 4 months
c) Referral for colposcopy
d) Administering the HPV vaccine |
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Definition
| c) Referral for colposcopy |
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Term
23) Which of the following is most consistent with iron deficiency anemia?
a) Low MCV, normal MCH
b) Low MCV, Low MCH
c) Low MCV, elevated MCH
d) Normal MCV, normal MCH |
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Definition
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Term
24) Which of the following is the best advice on taking ferrous sulfate to enhance iron absorption?
a) Take with other medications
b) Take on a full stomach
c) Take on an empty stomach
d) Do not take with vitamin C |
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Definition
| c) Take on an empty stomach |
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Term
25) Pernicious anemia causes which of the following changes in RBC indices?
a) Microcytic, normochromic
b) Normocytic, normochromic
c) Microcytic, hypochromic
d) Macrocytic, normochromic |
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Definition
| d) Macrocytic, normochromic |
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Term
26) Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein that influences a stem cell to become a:
a) Lymphocyte
b) Platelet
c) Neutrophil
d) Red blood cell |
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Definition
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Term
27) All of the following electrolyte disorders are commonly found in a person with chronic renal failure except:
a) Hypernatremia
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hyperkalemia
d) Hypophosphatemia |
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Definition
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Term
28) All of the following are common precipitating factors in acute renal failure except:
a) Anaphylaxis
b) Infection
c) Myocardial infarction
d) Type 1 diabetes |
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Definition
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Term
29) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can limit the progression of some forms of renal disease by:
a) Increasing intraglomerular pressure
b) Reducing efferent arteriolar resistance
c) Enhancing afferent arteriolar tone
d) Increasing urinary protein excretion |
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Definition
| b) Reducing efferent arteriolar resistance |
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Term
30) Common causes of chronic renal failure include all of the following except:
a) Type 2 diabetes
b) Recurrent pyelonephritis
c) Hypotension
d) Polycystic kidney disease |
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Definition
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Term
31) Which of the following is the most likely candidate to initiate dialysis due to chronic kidney disease?
a) A 46 year old man with hypertension and GFR = 42 ML/min
b) A 64 year old woman with type 2 diabetes and GFR = 28 ML/min
c) A 76 year old man with anemia and GFR = 55 ML/min
d) A 58 year old woman with heart disease and GFR = 46 ML/min |
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Definition
| b) A 64 year old woman with type 2 diabetes and GFR = 28 ML/min |
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