Term
Antibodies detected in the immediate spin crossmatch are usually which of the following immunoglobulin classes?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD |
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Definition
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Term
Antibody screening cells are positive at the antihuman globulin phase of testing. The first step of the investigation should be to:
A. Check transfusion and pregnancy history
B. Perform a direct antiglobulin test using anti-C3
C. Repeat the ABO typing
D. Crossmatch units until one is compatible |
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Definition
| A. Check transfusion and pregnancy history |
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Term
In an antibody identification panel, only one red cell was negative at the antihuman globulin phase. On ruling out and matching the pattern, an anti-k was identified. What further testing is necessary to confirm the antibody?
A. Two more k-negative cells should be tested
B. Two more K-negative cells should be tested
C. Treat the panel cells with enzymes and perform the panel again
D. Perform an adsorption using k-positive cells |
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Definition
| A. Two more k-negative cells should be tested |
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Term
Cold autoantibodies are typically of which specificity?
A. M
B. N
C. I
D. Le b |
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Definition
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Term
The Weak D test detects:
A. The Du antigen
B. The missing D mosaic
C. A weak D antibody
D. A weak D antigen |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following products is tested for bacterial contamination following storage?
A. Cryoprecipitated AHG
B. Red blood cells, frozen
C. Platelets
D. Fresh frozen plasma |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f?
A. rr
B. R2R2
C. R1R2
D. R1R1 |
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Definition
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Term
When group O blood is not available for transfusion, what is the next alternative?
A. Washed group B red blood cells
B. Group AB red blood cells
C. None
D. Group A red blood cells |
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Definition
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Term
Unacceptable quality control results for the antiglobulin test performed in test tubes may be noticed if:
A. The reagents used were improperly stored
B. The technologist performing the test was never trained
C. Preventative maintenance has not been performed on the cell washer
D. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Select the test that uses IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells):
A. Rh-antigen typing
B. B-antigen detection
C. Antiglobulin test
D. D-antigen typing |
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Definition
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Term
The temperature of a shipment of red blood cell units that were received from the local blood center was recorded at 8 C. The correct course of action is to:
A. Place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable
B. Have the units tested for bacterial contamination before release
C. Send the units back to the blood center
D. Quarantine the units until approved by the supervisor |
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Definition
| A. Place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable |
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Term
The immunoglobulin class of anti-M antibodies is:
A. Frequently a mixture of IgA and IgG
B. Frequently a mixture of IgG and IgM
C. IgM
D. IgG |
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Definition
| B. Frequently a mixture of IgG and IgM |
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Term
The unit of whole blood collected from an adult should contain approximately:
A. 550 mL of blood
B. 475 mL of blood
C. 500 mL of blood
D. 450 mL of blood |
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Definition
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Term
What immunodominant sugar is responsible for H specificity?
A. L-fucose
B. D-glucose
C. D-galactose
D. N-acetygalactosamine |
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Definition
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Term
Pretransfusion testing begins with:
A. Prelabeled tube
B. Proper identification of the patient
C. Four day old serum
D. Hemolyzed |
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Definition
| B. Proper identification of the patient |
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Term
The D antigen of the Fisher-Race nomenclature corresponds to which of the following antigens of the Wiener nomenclature?
A. Rho
B. rh'
C. hr'
D. rh'' |
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Definition
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Term
It would not be unusual for pregnant women to express which Lews phenotype?
A. Le (a-b+)
B. Le (a+b-)
C. Le (a-b-)
D. Le (a+b+) |
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Definition
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Term
Absorbance of a solution may be converted to percent transmittance (%T) using the formula:
A. 1+log%T
B. 2+log%T
C. 1-log%T
D. 2-log%T |
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Definition
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Term
As part of a hyperlipidemia screening program, the following results were obtained on a 25-year-old woman 6 hours after eating. Triglycerides 260 mg/dL, cholesterol 120 mg/dL.
A. Both results are normal and not affected by the recent meal
B. The cholesterol is normal but the triglycerides are elevated, which may be attributed to the recent meal.
C. Both results are elevated, indicating a metabolic problem in addition to the nonfasting state
D. Both results are below normal despite te recent meal, indicating a metabolic problem |
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Definition
| B. The cholesterol is normal but the triglycerides are elevated, which may be attributed to the recent meal |
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Term
The conversion of glucose or other hexoses to lactate or pyruvate is called:
A. Glycogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Glycolysis |
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Definition
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Term
In a specimen collected for plasma glucose analysis, sodium fluoride:
A. Serves as a coenzyme of hexokinase
B. Prevents reactivity of non-glucose reducing substances
C. Precipitates proteins
D. Inhibits glycolysis |
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Definition
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Term
Increased serum albumin concentrations are seen in which of the following conditions?
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Acute hepatitis
C. Chronic inflammation
D. Dehydration |
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Definition
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Term
A drug that relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passages is:
A. Acetominophen
B. Lithium
C. Phenytoin
D. Theophylline |
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Definition
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Term
Specimens for blood gas determinations should be drawn into a syringe containing:
A. No preservative
B. Heparin
C. EDTA
D. Oxalate |
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Definition
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Term
What is the proper pH for the buffered solution used to perform serum protein electrophoresis?
A. 5.6
B. 7.6
C. 8.6
D. 9.6 |
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Definition
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Term
A reciprocal relationship exists between:
A. Sodium and potassium
B. Calcium and phosphate
C. Chloride and CO2
D. Calcium and magnesium |
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Definition
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Term
A patient has the following test results: Increased serum calcium levels, decreased serum phosphate levels, increased levels of parathyroid hormone. This patient most likely has:
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Nephrosis
D. Steatorrhea |
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Definition
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Term
Serum anion gap is increased in patients with:
A. Renal tubular acidosis
B. Diabetic alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis due to diarrhea
D. Lactic acidosis |
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Definition
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Term
In respiratory acidosis, a compensatory mechanism is the increase in:
A. Respiration rate
B. Ammonia formation
C. Blood PCO2
D. Plasma bicarbonate concentration |
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Definition
| D. Plasma bicarbonate concentration |
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Term
Metabolic acidosis is describes as:
A. Increase in CO2 content and PCO2 with decreased pH
B. Decreased CO2 content with an increased pH
C. Increase in CO2 with an increased pH
D. Decrease in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH |
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Definition
| D. Decrease in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH |
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Term
Serum levels that define hypoglycemia in pre term or low birth weight infants are:
A. The same as adults
B. Lower than adults
C. The same as a normal full term infant
D. Higher than a normal full term infant |
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Definition
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Term
This cardiac marker rises at 12 to 18 hours, peaks at 48-72 hours, and returns to normal after 6-10 days.
A. Troponin I
B. Troponin II
C. Lactate Dehydrogenase
D. Myoglobin |
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Definition
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Term
The most critical distinction between Staphylococcus aureus and other staphylococci is:
A. Phosphatase reaction
B. DNA production
C. Coagulase production
D. Hemolysis |
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Definition
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Term
A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar but not MacConkey that is indole and urease negative, oxidase-positive, and positive on wet mount motility testing is most likely:
A. Treponema
B. Leptospira
C. Borrelia
D. Sphingomonas |
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Definition
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Term
Profuse watery diarrhea (rice water stools), leading to dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration, and hypotension that frequently leads to death, is the hallmark of which toxin activity?
A. Cholera toxin
B. Enteric endotoxin
C. Shiga toxin
D. Toxin A |
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Definition
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Term
Production of exotoxin A, which kills host cells by inhibiting protein synthesis, and production of several proteolytic enzymes and hemolysins that destroy cells and tissue are factors that contribute to the pathogenicity of:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Burkholderia cepacia
C. Ralstonia pickettii
D. Burkolderia mallei |
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Definition
| A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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Term
A convenient and reliable identification scheme for P. aeruginosa involves the following conventional tests:
A. Oxidase, TSI slant, growth at 42 C on Mueller-Hinton agar or typticase soy agar
B. Catalase, LIA slant, growth at 42 C on Mueller-Hinton agar ot trypticase soy agar
C. Oxidase, TSI slant, growth at 24 C on Mueller-Hinton agar to trypticase soy agar
D. Catalase, TSI slant, growth at 42 C on sheep blood agar or blood trypticase soy agar |
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Definition
| A. Oxidase, TSI slant, growth at 42 C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar |
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Term
Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are nonhemolytic, nonmotile and penicillin-susceptible and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as:
A. Corynebacterium dephtheriae
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Corynebacterium jeikeium |
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Definition
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Term
Choose the genus tat is best described as a catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus that is a facultative anaerobe and that forms chains.
A. Streptococcus
B. Stomatococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Micrococcaceae |
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Definition
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Term
Not only normal flora of humans and animals, this genus of bacteria contains agents of important diseases such as rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis, and exudative pharyngitis
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Enterococcus
D. Microccocus |
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Definition
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Term
The bacterial species that can be describe as susceptible ot bile and optochin, alpha hemolytic, a major cause of bacterial meningitis, and often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule is:
A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus agalactiae |
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Definition
| B. Streptococcus pneumoniae |
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Term
The resident human flora staphylococcus that is more likely to cause infections in compromised hosts such as cancer patients is:
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Staphylococcus intermedius |
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Definition
| C. Staphylococcus epidermidis |
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Term
The slide coagulase test is a rapid screening test for the production of:
A. Clumping factor
B. Free coagulase
C. Extracellular coagulase
D. Catalase |
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Definition
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Term
The most common etiologic agent of community-acquired pneumonia in adults is:
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Chlamydopila pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Kebsiella pneumoniae |
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Definition
| C. Streptococcus pneumoniae |
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Term
Evaluation of the quality of the sputum specimen sent to the laboratory for bacterial culture is best done by:
A. Measuring the amount of mucous found
B. Checking for mucous or blood
C. Examining microscopically via Gram-stained smear for leukocytes
D. Examining microscopically via Gram-stained smear for squamous epithelial cells |
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Definition
| D. Examining microscopically via Gram-stained smear for squamous epithelial cells |
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Term
Proper storage of CSF sent to the laboratory for bacterial culture includes:
A. Refrigeration for up to 23 hours
B. Freezing at 70 C
C. Incubation at 35 C
D. Freezing at temperatures above 70 C |
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Definition
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Term
The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include:
A. Klebsiella pneumococci
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Moraxell catarrhalis |
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Definition
| B. Haemophilus influenzae |
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Term
The most common etiologic agent in uncomplicated communty-acquired urinary tract infections is:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella spp.
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes |
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Definition
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Term
The predominant organism in vaginal secretions from normal women of reproductive age is:
A. Lactobacilli
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Enterobacteriaceae
D. Staphylococci |
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Definition
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Term
Proper design of a urogenital swab designed expressly for collection of urethral discharge should include what feature?
A. Made of charcoal treated cotton or rayon
B. Made of antibiotic treated calcium alginate
C. Shaft made of wood and not flexible
D. All of the above are correct |
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Definition
| A. Made of charcoal treated cotton or rayon |
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Term
A culture performed on a vaginal specimen collected from a 60-year-old woman would likely grow primarily
A. Group B beta-emolytic streptococci
B. Staphylococci and corynebacteria
C. Enterobacteriaceae, streptococci, staphylococci, lactobacilli, and anaerobes
D. Gardnerella vaginalis, Prevotella spp., peptostreptococci, nd Mobiluncus spp |
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Definition
| B. Staphylococci and corynebacteria |
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Term
The M:E ratio in chronic granulocytic leukemia is usually:
A. Normal
B. High
C. Low
D. Variable |
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Definition
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Term
Which cell type shows the most intense staining with peroxidase?
A. Segmented neutrophil
B. Basophil
C. Band
D. Monocyte |
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Definition
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Term
Into what other hematologic disease does Myelodysplastic Syndrome often convert?
A. Megaloblastic anemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia
D. Myeloproliferative disease |
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Definition
| C. Acute myelogenous leukemia |
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Term
In polycythemia vera, the hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell count are:
A. Elevated
B. Normal
C. Decreased |
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Definition
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Term
Hemoglobin Barts is composed of:
A. alpha 4
B. gamma 4
C. beta 4
D. delta 4 |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is seen most often is thalassemia?
A. Chronic blood loss
B. Target cells
C. Basophilic stippling
D. Ringed sideroblasts |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following sets of lab findings is consistent with hemolytic anemia?
A. Normal or slightly increased erythrocyte survival; normal osmotic fragility
B. Decreased erythrocyte survival; increased catabolism of heme
C. Decreased serum LDH; normal catabolism of eme
D. Normal concentration of haptoglobin; marked hemoglobinuria |
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Definition
| B. Decreased erythrocyte survival; increased catabolism of heme |
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Term
Heinz bodies are:
A. Readily identified with polychrome stains
B. Rarely found in G6PD deficient erythrocytes
C. Closely associated with spherocytes
D. Denatured hemoglobin inclusions tat are readily removed by the spleen |
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Definition
| D. Denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen |
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Term
In laser flow cytometry, histograms combining the data from forward light scatter with the data from right angle scatter permit the operator to:
A. Quantitate cell surface protein
B. Determine absolute cell size
C. Distinguish internal cell structures
D. Differentiate cell populations from one another |
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Definition
| D. Differentiate cell populations from one another |
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Term
The following results were obtained on a leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain. 4+ 35; 3+ 33, 2+ 28, 1+ 2, 0 4. What is the correct LAP score?
A. 198
B. 113
C. 251
D. 297 |
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Definition
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Term
A patient with polycythemia vera who is treated by phlebotomy is most likely to develop a deficiency of:
A. Iron
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic acid
D. Erythropoietin |
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Definition
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Term
Elevation of the granulocyte percentage above 75% is termed:
A. Absolute lymphocytosis
B. Leukocytosis
C. Relative neutrophilic leukocytosis
D. Absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis |
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Definition
| C. Relative neutrophilic leukocytosis |
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Term
What bone marrow cells can differentiate into ALL of the blood cells?
A. BFU-E
B. CFU-GM
C. CFU-GEMM
D. Hematopoietic stem cells |
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Definition
| D. Hematopoietic stem cells |
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Term
A patient as a MCV of 72 fL and a MCHC of 28 g/dL. The anemia classification woud be:
A. Normocytic normochromic
B. Microcytic hypochromic
C. Macrocytic normochromic
D. Macrocytic macrochromic |
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Definition
| B. Microcytic hypochromic |
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Term
Megaloblastic anemia is:
A. Microcytic RBCs
B. Very large RBCs
C. Hypersegmented neutrophils
D. Very large RBCs and hypersegmented neutrophils |
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Definition
| D. Very large RBCs and hypersegmented neutrophils |
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Term
In healthy individuals, the red cells can be described as:
A. Microcytic hypochromic
B. Macrocytic normochromic
C. Normocytic normochromic
D. Normocytic hypochromic |
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Definition
| C. Normocytic normochromic |
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Term
When compared to mature erythrocytes, reticulocytes:
A. Are larger and bluer on Wright stain from remnant RNA
B. Are large and have more vacuoles on Wright stain from remnant DNA
C. Stain pinker with new methylene blue
D. Still have a nucleus |
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Definition
| A. Are larger and bluer on Wright stain from remnant RNA |
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