Term
| Which regions of the body are considered endocrine? |
|
Definition
pituitary
thyroid
parathyroid
adrenal glands
pancreas |
|
|
Term
| Which tests are considered thyroid function tests? |
|
Definition
TSH
Free T4
Free T3
TSH receptor antibody
anti-thyroid peroxidase
anti-thyroglobulin antibody
TRH stimulation test |
|
|
Term
| Which thyroid function tests are used to detection Hashimoto's thyroiditis? |
|
Definition
anti-thyroid peroxidase antibody
and
anti-thyroglobulin antibody
(these are always ordered together) |
|
|
Term
| What is the main test used to detect thyroid dysfunction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TSH tests are sensitive for both... |
|
Definition
hypothyroidism
and
hyperthyroidism |
|
|
Term
| What are the critical values for TSH tests? |
|
Definition
< 0.1 mU/L
and
> 20 mU/L
the lab will call you if you get these |
|
|
Term
| If the thyroid is the cause of low T4 then the TSH will be ______________. |
|
Definition
| If the thyroid is the cause of low T4 then the TSH will be _elevated_. |
|
|
Term
| If the pituitary is the cause of low T4 then TSH will be _____________. |
|
Definition
| If the pituitary is the cause of low T4 then TSH will be __depressed__. |
|
|
Term
| What medications can increase TSH levels? |
|
Definition
Potassium Iodine
lithium
anti-thyroid medications
Amiodarone |
|
|
Term
| What medications can decrease TSH levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Over ___% of thyroid hormone is T4 and ___% of circulating T4 is protein bound |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why would you order a free T4 test? |
|
Definition
1. to diagnose hyper- or hypothyroidism
2. to monitor response to replacement or suppressive therapies |
|
|
Term
| What will elevate levels of free T4? |
|
Definition
exogenous T4
heparin
propranolol |
|
|
Term
| What drugs will decrease levels of free T4? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hyperthyroid hormone levels
high or low TSH?
high or low T4? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hypothyroid hormone levels
high or low TSH?
high or low T4? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why would you order a TSH receptor antibody test? |
|
Definition
to support a diagnosis of Grave's disease if it is in doubt
normal levels <130% of basal activity |
|
|
Term
| Why would TSH and T4 both be abnormally high? |
|
Definition
| secondary hyperthyroidism from a TSH producing tumor |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of patients with hypothyroidism due to Hashimoto's have elevated anti-thyroid peroxidase and anti-thyroglobulin antibody levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How would you do a TRH stimulation test? |
|
Definition
1. get a baseline TSH level
2. give an IV bolus of TRH
3. in 30 minutes get another TSH level |
|
|
Term
| Why would you do a TRH stimulation test? |
|
Definition
| if there are low TSH and low free T4 levels |
|
|
Term
| After a TRH stimulation test if the TSH does NOT rise then... |
|
Definition
| the problem is the pituitary |
|
|
Term
| After a TRH stimulation test, if the TSH level DOES rise then... |
|
Definition
| the problem is with the hypothalamus |
|
|
Term
| TRH stimulation test is used to differentiate ____________ from ________________ hypothyroidism. |
|
Definition
| TRH stimulation test is used to differentiate secondary from tertiary hypothyroidism. |
|
|
Term
| Thyroid cancers are often associated with... |
|
Definition
| normal thyroid function tests |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
hypermetabolism: weight loss, inc appetite, heat intolerance
epinephrine effect: strong rapid pulse, tremors and anxiety, atrial fibrillation
Thyroid storm: which can be life threatening if the pt has a serious illness of trauma |
|
|
Term
| With thyroid storm you can run the risk of... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 90% of the time ____________ is the cause of hyperthyroidism. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides Grave's disease, what are some other causes of hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
hyperactive multinodular goiter or thyroid tumor
factitious: pt took synthroid to get smarter or lose weight
secondary hyperthyroidism: TSH producing tumors
tertiary hyperthyroidism: TRH producing tumors |
|
|
Term
| What are some reasons to order thyroid function tests? |
|
Definition
unexplained weight loss,
anxiety, tremor,
new onset of atrial fibrillation
or a mental status change |
|
|
Term
| If the pt has primary hyperthyroidism what will their hormone levels be? |
|
Definition
TSH will be very low
Free T4 will be high
antibody to TSH receptor will be + |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
mental slowness, fatigue, loss of interest
weight gain, constipation, hair falling out, cold intolerance
delayed deep tendon reflexes |
|
|
Term
| Hypothyroidism can mimic __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major causes of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
hashimoto's
iatrogenic: surgery or radiation
iodine deficiency
meds: valproic acid
secondary or tertiary hypothyroidism (rare) |
|
|
Term
| Iodine deficiency hypothyroidism can cause what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Primary hypothyroidism hormone levels
(like hashimoto's)
high or low TSH?
high or low free T4?
+ or - anti-thyroid peroxidase?
+ or - anti-thyroglobulin? |
|
Definition
TSH will be high
free T4 will be low
anti-thyroid peroxidase and/or anti-thyroglobulin will be + |
|
|
Term
| What controls secretion of PTH from the parathyroid? |
|
Definition
| ionized Ca++ in the blood |
|
|
Term
| Low ionized Ca++ stimulates what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does PTH increase serum Ca++ levels? |
|
Definition
1. mobilizing Ca++ from the bone
2. increasing kidney reabsorption of Ca++, decreasing phosphate reabsorption
3. stimulates kidney to convert Vit D
4. increases GI absorption of Ca++
(step 3 is used to allow step 4) |
|
|
Term
| What are the different tests used to access parathyroid function? |
|
Definition
total Calcium
ionized Calcium
PTH
PTH-related protein
phosphorus (if its increased Ca++ is lowered) |
|
|
Term
| What type of calcium does the body respond to? |
|
Definition
| ionized, which makes the ionized Ca++ test a better choice |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of hypercalcemia? |
|
Definition
| elevation of serum Ca++ on 3 separate occassions |
|
|
Term
| What are the critical levels of total Ca++? |
|
Definition
< 6.0 mg/dL
or
> 13.0 mg/dL |
|
|
Term
What are the normal levels for total Ca++?
Ionized Ca++? |
|
Definition
total Ca++ : 9.0-10.5 mg/dL
ionized Ca++ : 4.5-5.6 mg/dL |
|
|
Term
| What are the SSx of hypercalcemia? |
|
Definition
N/V
somnolence: drowsiness
coma |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of hypercalcemia? |
|
Definition
hyperparathyroidism - most common
malignancy - 2nd most common
drugs: thiazide diuretics, antacids, vit D |
|
|
Term
| What other test should always be ordered with a PTH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why would you order a PTH? |
|
Definition
evaluation of hypercalcemia
monitoring in chronic renal failure |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal range for PTH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If both Ca++ and PTH are elevated, what does that indicated? |
|
Definition
| primary hyperparathyroidism, which is likely to cause a parathyroid adenoma |
|
|
Term
| If Ca++ is elevated but PTH is very low, what does that indicate? |
|
Definition
hypercalcemia likely due to a malignancy like lung cancer
(order a PTHrP and work up for occult tumor) |
|
|
Term
| If PTH is elevated but Ca++ is low or low-normal, what does that indicate? |
|
Definition
secondary hyperparathyroidism seen in Chronic renal failure
|
|
|
Term
| High PTH and high Ca++ in the setting of chronic renal failure is... |
|
Definition
| tertiary hyperparathyroidism |
|
|
Term
| What abnormalities will you see in the tests of a patient with chronic renal failure? |
|
Definition
high BUN
high Creatinine
low Ca++
high phosphorus (this binds up the Ca++) |
|
|
Term
| Elevated aldosterone cause an increase in ____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the adrenals produce too much cortisol, what sxs do you see?
What is this condition called? |
|
Definition
hyperglycemia
hypernatremia
HTN
hypokalemia
CUSHING SYNDROME |
|
|
Term
| What are some noticable changes in a person with Cushing syndrome? |
|
Definition
moon-face, round
acne
buffalo hump
facial hair
striae
weight gain
thin extremities with mm atrophy
thinning of hair
red cheeks |
|
|
Term
| What else can cause Cushing's like symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens if you have too little cortisol and aldosterone? |
|
Definition
hypoglycemia
hyponatremia
hypotension
hyperkalemia
ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY
addison's disease if the problem is the adrenal itself and not any precursors |
|
|
Term
| Normal cortisol levels: ___ - ___ mcg/dL |
|
Definition
5-23 mcg/dL
tends to peak around 8 am and drops to about 1/2 this level by 4 pm
diurnal variation |
|
|
Term
| What can cause cortisol levels to be too high? |
|
Definition
stress and obesity
drugs: estrogen, BCPs, amphetamines |
|
|
Term
| What test do you do to figure out why cortisol levels are too high? |
|
Definition
dexamethasone suppression test
helps distinguish pathologic causes from those related to stress or obesity |
|
|
Term
| How do you do a dexamethasone suppression test? |
|
Definition
a low dose (1 mg) is given at 11 pm
cortisol is then drawn at 8 am
this should have suppressed the ACTH with > 50% reduction in the 8 am cortisol (if its a stress or obesity issue)
if it doesn't consider a referral
pt will need an extensive work up for adrenal/pituitary pathology |
|
|
Term
| ACTH suppression test: if an exaggerated elevation of cortisol occurs then... |
|
Definition
| the problem is not in the adrenal gland |
|
|
Term
| ACTH suppression test: if a below normal elevation of cortisol occurs then... |
|
Definition
| the problem is in the adrenal gland |
|
|
Term
| What is a pheochromocytoma? |
|
Definition
a tumor of the adrenal medulla that makes NorEpi and Epi
it increases BP/HR
increases glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis and lipolysis
very uncomfortable for the pt, puts them at risk for a stroke |
|
|
Term
| Pheochromocytomas put the pt at greater risk of having a ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you have a pt with a pheochromocytoma you should consider ordering a... |
|
Definition
a 24 hour urine checking for:
epi and norepi
metanephrine and normetanephrine
VMA (the product catabolism of both metanephrine and normetanephrine)
hard test to do |
|
|
Term
If AM cortisol is high and
ACTH is low,
what should you suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The exocrine pancreas produces what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The endocrine pancreas is involved in... |
|
Definition
| glucose metabolism via insulin and glucagon production |
|
|
Term
| A primary disorder of the endocrine pancreas is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a lack of insulin so this must be supplied by injections |
|
|
Term
| Glucagon concentration is influenced by what 2 things? |
|
Definition
| blood glucose and insulin concentration |
|
|
Term
| Type II DM is caused by... |
|
Definition
insulin resistance of tissues, therefore concentration ranges from high (early) to low (late)
glucagon concentration often elevated
|
|
|
Term
Fasting glucose levels
normal?
impaired glucose tolerance?
diabetes? |
|
Definition
normal: <100 mg/dL
impaired glucose tolerance: 100-125 mg/dL
diabetes: >125 mg/dL |
|
|
Term
Glucose Tolerance Test: In order to be considered normal, glucose levels should be <____ after a 1 hr,
AND they should be <____ after 2 hrs. |
|
Definition
1 hr: <200 mg/dL
2 hr: < 140 mg/dL (both are normal)
if at 2 hr its 140-200 you have IGT
if its > 200 you have DM |
|
|
Term
| What are some things that can cause a false positive on an oral glucose tolerance test? |
|
Definition
stress and exercise
drugs: anti-HTNs, beta-blockers, lasix, nicotine and BCPs |
|
|
Term
| A1c values are directly proportional to: |
|
Definition
| the concentration of glucose in the blood over the full life span of the RBCs |
|
|
Term
| The amount of C-peptide in the blood estimates the amount of ______________ produced by the pancreas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| C-peptide levels rise when... |
|
Definition
there is insulin resistance
use of hypoglycemic drugs
or an insulinoma |
|
|
Term
| C-peptide levels decrease when... |
|
Definition
there is suppression of secretion by exogenous insulin adminstration
or Beta-cell failure |
|
|
Term
| What substances can cause a false negative in C-peptide levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tests access adrenal function? |
|
Definition
cortisol
ACTH
24 hour urine for catecholamines, metanephrines and VMA |
|
|
Term
| What tests access pancreatic function endocrinogically? |
|
Definition
fasting glucose
oral glucose tolerance test
HgA1c
insulin
C-peptide
insulin and C-peptide tests should always go hand in hand |
|
|
Term
| What does the immune system do? |
|
Definition
1. defends against infection and foreign antigens of other origin
2. also attacks: tissues by autoimmunity, transplants by rejection, some antigens causing allergy |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does an abnormal M spike indicate? |
|
Definition
multiple myeloma
or a benign problem that in 10-15% of people will turn into multiple myeloma in the next 15 years |
|
|
Term
| A serum electrophoresis is ordered when you think there is something wrong with ____________ synthesis. |
|
Definition
protein
ie liver disease, GI loss and bloody urine |
|
|
Term
| What does a polyclonal gammopathy indicate? |
|
Definition
acute phase reaction, mostly with inflammatory disease
(ie liver or kidney disease)
general increase in plasma cells |
|
|
Term
| Antigens provoke _____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HIV introduced what kind of testing? |
|
Definition
| the use of combined humoral and cellular testing. |
|
|
Term
| What happens when we lose the ability to distinguish self from non-self immunologically? |
|
Definition
suppressor T cells overcome helper T cells
or there is a helper T cell deficiency |
|
|
Term
| Antigens are present in _________ infections |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T and B cells coordinate... |
|
Definition
defense against invaders
often almost solely antibody
other times, like with TB, its all cellular
also can be mixed |
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin responses first after recent antigenic exposure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is the most frequently used class of immunoglobulins in testing? |
|
Definition
IgG
used to diagnose most common immunodeficiencies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
secretions: tears, GI tract, genital areas
testing is used to define IgA levels/deficiency |
|
|
Term
| Relative deficiency of IgA is... |
|
Definition
| common and apparently benign |
|
|
Term
| Absent or extremely low IgA is... |
|
Definition
| the most common cause of anaphylactic transfusion reactions |
|
|
Term
| For which immunoglobulin has no reason for an assay been established? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased total IgE is frequently found in... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What test do you use to determine the presence of IgE directed against specific antigen/allergens? |
|
Definition
RAST test
(panel of antigens) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an immune response to self antigens, failure of immune tolerance |
|
|
Term
| What does a Direct Coombs (anti-humanglobulin) test identify? |
|
Definition
| IgG and/or complement (C3) on red cells |
|
|
Term
| Warm autoimmune anemia results are positive for... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cold autoimmune anemia results are positive for... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| +C3 only tells you that you are dealing with... |
|
Definition
an unusual group of diagnoses
viral infections
various malignancies |
|
|
Term
| What are the normal ranges for complements: THC, C4, C3? |
|
Definition
THC 150-250 units/ml
C4 16-40 mg/dl
C3 100-180 mg/dl |
|
|
Term
| What are the complement (THC, C4, C3) levels during an acute phase response? |
|
Definition
THC -- 250
C4 -- 40
C3 -- 200 |
|
|
Term
| What are the complement (THC, C4, C3) levels during Classic Pathway activation? |
|
Definition
THC -- 100
C4 -- 10
C3 -- 80 |
|
|
Term
| What are the complement (THC, C4, C3) levels during Alternative Pathway activation? |
|
Definition
THC -- 100
C4 -- 30
C3 -- 50 |
|
|
Term
| Complement goes up if you're... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the complement (THC, C4, C3) levels if you have an inherited deficiency or in vitro activation? |
|
Definition
THC -- <10 or 0
C4 --30
C3 -- 140 |
|
|
Term
| What are the complement (THC, C4, C3) levels if you have a partial C4 deficiency or fluid-phase activation? |
|
Definition
THC -- 50
C4 -- <8
C3 -- 100 |
|
|
Term
| Detectable THC excludes a complete deficiency of ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| total hemolytic complement |
|
|
Term
| Which tests access esophageal and gastric function? |
|
Definition
occult blood testing
Helicobacter pylori testing |
|
|
Term
| What can cause a false positive on an occult blood test? |
|
Definition
eating red meat within 72 hours of the test
taking oral iron |
|
|
Term
| Can gastric/duodenal ulcers and gastritis cause a positive occult blood test? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a urease-producing Gram-negative bacterium
(it destroys the mucous lining) |
|
|
Term
| H. pylori is responsible for what percentage of ulcers? |
|
Definition
100% of duodenal
80% of gastric ulcers |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 ways to test for H. pylori? |
|
Definition
1. serum antibody testing
2. urease breath test
3. upper endoscopy w/ CLO test
4. upper endoscopy w/ biopsy |
|
|
Term
| Which is the most non-invasive way to test for H. pylori? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a serum antibody test is positive what does that tell you? |
|
Definition
| the patient is infected or has been recently infected w/ H. pylori |
|
|
Term
| How long can a serum antibody test for H. pylori be positive after an infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An upper endoscopy is performed in an individual with H. pylori when... |
|
Definition
| they don't respond to H. pylori treatments |
|
|
Term
| How long does acute diarrhea last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does persistent diarrhea last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does chronic diarrhea last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of acute diarrhea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When would you do a work up on a patient with acute diarrhea? |
|
Definition
melena > 48 hrs in duration
severe abd pain
immunocompromised |
|
|
Term
If diarrhea persists >14 days,
is bloody,
and is negative for fecal leukocytes
what should you test for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long do you have to get stool samples to the lab if you are testing for ova and parasites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can cause a false positive ova/parasite test? |
|
Definition
| if the specimen is contaminated by water from the toilet or bed pan |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if your pt has chronic diarrhea? |
|
Definition
| consider a GI referral, bc the longer the duration the less likely it is to be infectious |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of chronic diarrhea? |
|
Definition
Crohn's disease
ulcerative colitis
malabsorption
IBS - diagnosis of exclusion |
|
|
Term
| What tests will access pancreatic function/damage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the pancreas is injured it releases... |
|
Definition
| enzymes into the blood and surrounding tissues (which digest fat in and around the pancreas) |
|
|
Term
| Which of the main 2 pancreatic enzymes in predominately found in the pancreas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In acute pancreatitis serum amylase will rise within ________ of the damage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| produced by the pancreas/salivary glands to breakdown carbs |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal amylase range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the damage to the pancreas resolves how fast will the amylase levels return to normal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| breaks down fats (lipids) |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal lipase range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How soon after the pancreas is damaged will the lipase levels start to rise? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How fast will the lipase levels return to normal if the pancreas damage is resolved? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which enzyme is more specific for pancreas injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is lipase better for later diagnosis of acute pancreatitis than amylase? |
|
Definition
| bc it remains elevated up to 7 days |
|
|
Term
| Why are Ca++ levels decreased if the pancreas is injured? |
|
Definition
bc as lipase breaks down fats it produces fatty acids with strong negative charges
Ca++ has a strong positive charge and binds to these exposed fatty acids which lowers serum Ca++ levels
low Ca++ in pancreatitis is a bad sign, esp if it stays persistently low |
|
|
Term
| 80% of acute pancreatitis is due to either... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the pancreas is slowly and completely destroyed what happens? |
|
Definition
amylase and lipase are not elevated
DM -- elevated glucose
malabsorption and malnutrition -- decreased serum protein |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Since chronic pancreatitis is most often caused by alcohol abuse what else would you expect to see? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How could you distinguish acute pancreatitis caused by alcohol or gall stones? |
|
Definition
| if the liver function tests are normal you'd lean towards gall stones or if bilirubin was high indicated a biliary tract blockage |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 main functions of the liver? |
|
Definition
1. synthesis of many plasma proteins
2. detoxification and excretion into bile of waste products
3. processing dietary elements... aas, fats, proteins and vits
4. clearing blood of any microbes or toxins that have been absorbed in the GI tract |
|
|
Term
| What do we want to evaluate when we do liver tests? |
|
Definition
how well the liver cells are doing their job
Heptaocyte function
how well the liver is excreting bile
biliary excretion function
if the liver cells themselves have been damaged
hepatocyte integrity |
|
|
Term
| What are the tests you do to access hepatocyte function? |
|
Definition
serum albumin
prothrombin time
serum ammonia |
|
|
Term
| What tests do you do to access biliary excretion function? |
|
Definition
total bilirubin
conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
|
|
|
Term
| What are the tests that check to see if the biliary tree has been damaged? |
|
Definition
alkaline phosphate
gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) |
|
|
Term
| What tests do you do to access hepatocyte integrity? |
|
Definition
aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) |
|
|
Term
| Serum albumin levels are decreased in... |
|
Definition
hepatocyte disorders such as chronic liver disease
malnutrition
malabsorption
or if the kidneys are damaged |
|
|
Term
| Why would PT change if the liver was damaged? |
|
Definition
| bc the liver produces blood clotting factors |
|
|
Term
| In disorders involving liver cells the PT will _____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is one of the most sensitive tests of liver cell dysfunction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides liver damage what are some reasons PT might increase? |
|
Definition
biliary tract blockage
coumadin therapy |
|
|
Term
| Serum ammonia is a byproduct of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The liver converts serum ammonia into what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the hepatocytes are not functioning what happens to the serum ammonia levels? |
|
Definition
| they increase bc they are not being converted into urea so they can be excreted |
|
|
Term
| If serum ammonia is elevated what do you need to be concerned about? |
|
Definition
liver failure
get a GI consultation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a degradation product of heme
and is water insoluble (unconjugated bilirubin) |
|
|
Term
| What is conjugated bilirubin? |
|
Definition
| bilirubin that is conjugated with sugars to make it water soluble |
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
| At what level does total bilirubin have to be at to see jaundice clinically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normally, unconjugated bilirubin makes up _____% of the total bilirubin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is medical jaundice? |
|
Definition
| if total bilirubin is elevated and <20% is conjugated |
|
|
Term
| What is surgical jaundice? |
|
Definition
if total bilirubin is elevated and >50% is conjugated
(blockage of the biliary tract) |
|
|
Term
| What can cause surgical jaundice? |
|
Definition
anything that blocks bile getting from the liver to the duodenum
gallstones
pancreatic tumors |
|
|
Term
| What can cause medical jaundice? |
|
Definition
excessive RBC hemolysis that overwhelms the livers ability to conjugate the incoming bilirubin
the liver itself is damaged and cannot conjugate the normal amount of incoming bilirubin |
|
|
Term
| What is alkaline phosphatase? |
|
Definition
| an enzyme produced by cells that line the biliary tree |
|
|
Term
| What can cause an increase in alkaline phosphatase? |
|
Definition
blockage to the biliary tree
or bone disease |
|
|
Term
| What is the most sensitive test for biliary damage? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| If alkaline phosphatase is elevated and GGT is not then its probably due to... |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| GGT is elevated in 75% of ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How fast does AST rise after liver damage? |
|
Definition
about 8 hrs
peaks in 24-36 hours
returns to normal in 3-7 days |
|
|
Term
| In acute hepatitis AST can rise to about... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In blockage of the biliary tract (gallstone), AST can rise to about... |
|
Definition
| 10xs normal and falls quickly |
|
|
Term
| Is ALT or AST more specific for liver damage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you tell if a patient has jaundice from RBC hemolysis or liver injury? |
|
Definition
| if ALT is increased its probably liver injury |
|
|
Term
| If the ratio of AST/ALT is <1 this points towards... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If AST/ALT ratio is >1 this points towards... |
|
Definition
| alcoholic liver injury or tumor |
|
|
Term
| Which 2 tests of hepatocyte integrity are on almost all chem 20 panels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| damage is caused by alcohol abuse |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| damage is caused by viral hepatitis |
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|