Term
| how many names can a drug have? |
|
Definition
generic or non-proprietary
chemical name
brand name |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| what your body does to the drug |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| what the drug does to your body |
|
|
Term
| what organ reduces the bioavailability of a drug due to first-pass metabolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which drug route of administration is considered the most dangerous? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion |
|
|
Term
| can the pH of an organ affect drug absorption? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 4 things can affect drug distribution? |
|
Definition
1. organ blood flow
2. plasma protein binding
3. lipid solubility
4. molecular size |
|
|
Term
| what drug metabolism uses the F symbol to signify the fraction of the drug in its active form getting into the circulation of the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 methods of drug excretion in the kidney? |
|
Definition
1. filtration
2. reabsorption
3. secretion |
|
|
Term
| what are the 5 steps in enterohepatic recycling? |
|
Definition
1. drug is taken
2. enters liver to be conjugated
3. passes through bile duct to intestines
4. hydrolyzed by bacteria
5. re-enters liver via blood circulation |
|
|
Term
| define the first order of kinetics |
|
Definition
| when the amount of the drug eliminated over time is proportional to the plasma drug concentration so when drug conc goes up, the rate of elimination goes up |
|
|
Term
| define zero order of kinetics |
|
Definition
very few drugs exhibit
when the amount of the drug eliminated over time is constant, and does not depend on drug concentration |
|
|
Term
| the steady state of a drugs concentration can be reached in how many half lifes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what drug dose is often given to reach steady state quicker? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what drug dose is often given to reach steady state quicker? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pharmacodynamics is known as what drugs do to the body and what other form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pharmacodynamics is known as what drugs do to the body and what other form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| g-protein-coupled receptors(GPRC's), enzymes, membrane transport proteins, and steroid hormone receptors are all considered to be what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a competitive inhibitor? |
|
Definition
| when the inhibitor binds to the endogenous substrate target receptor site |
|
|
Term
| what is a non-competitive inhibitor? |
|
Definition
| when an inhibitor binds to another site and not the endogenous target receptor but changes the target receptor site so that endogenous substrate cannot bind |
|
|
Term
| what are 3 types of reversible bond types? |
|
Definition
1. ionic
2. hydrophobic
3. hydrogen |
|
|
Term
| what do antagonists block? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| agonists action on receptor sites are what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how many clinical phases does a new drug have to go through before getting to the patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the average a company can sell its brand name drug before the patent is lost and generic drugs can be made? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which schedule 1-5 has the highest abuse potential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| excessive pharmacologic effects, hypersensitivity reactions, adverse effects on organs, and idiosyncratic reactions are all forms of what drug effects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| change in the pharmacological effect of a drug when it is given concurrently with another drug or food |
|
|
Term
| altered absorption, drug distribution, drug biotransformation, and drug excretion are all forms of what type of interaction? |
|
Definition
| pharmacokinetic interactions |
|
|
Term
| what 2 factors influence drug safety? |
|
Definition
| pregnancy and lactation, and disease |
|
|
Term
| what organ systems influence drug safety the most in our bodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ach=cholinergenic neurons and ne=adrenergic neurons are both forms of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| muscarinic and nicotinic receptors are both in what family? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ne and e receptors are also called adrenoreceptors and are made up of what 2 types of adrenoreceptors? |
|
Definition
| a-adrenoreceptors and b-adrenoreceptors |
|
|
Term
| what type of drugs affect neurotransmission? |
|
Definition
| adrenergic and cholinergic |
|
|
Term
| ach receptor antagonists are made up of what types of antagonists? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nicotinic rec antag block nicotine receptors which yields what effect in the body? |
|
Definition
| paralysis of skeletal muscles |
|
|
Term
| muscarinic rec are made up of M1, M2, and M3 types. what systems do these 3 effect? |
|
Definition
| neural, cardiac, and glandular |
|
|
Term
| choline esters and plant alkaloids are? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| acetylcholinesterase inhibitors both reversible and irreversible are? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| adrenoreceptors are made up of 8 types which are what? |
|
Definition
| a-1, a-2, b-1, b-2, b-3, dopamine receptors(d-1 and d-2), imidazoline receptors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| shock, acute heart failure |
|
|
Term
| isoproterenol is drug of choice for? |
|
Definition
| asthma, av block, bradycardia |
|
|
Term
| dobutamine is the drug of choice for use in? |
|
Definition
| shock, acute heart failure |
|
|
Term
| albuterol is a b2 receptor, method of action is bronchodilation and is used what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| clonidine is a non-catecholamine and used in htn and opiod dependence due to its what? |
|
Definition
| decreased sympathetic outflow |
|
|
Term
| amphetamine causes what effects? |
|
Definition
| vasoconstriction, cardiac stimulation, increased blood pressure, cns stimulation |
|
|
Term
| tyramine is a vaso-active amino acid found in ? and metabolized by MAO's |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cocaine inhibits what? causes what? and is a what? |
|
Definition
inhibits catecholamine reuptake
causes vasoconstriction, cardiac stimulation
is a local anesthetic |
|
|
Term
| epinephrine was a common weight loss drug banned for what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pseudoephedrine produces vasoconstriction and is a mixed-acting adrenoreceptor agonist. this drug has been recently moved behind the counter, losing over the counter privileges due to its use in what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what drug was developed to treat urinary retention in bph? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| minipress, cardura, and hytrin were developed originally for htn but also used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| propranolol is a non-selective b blocker which competitively blocks the effects of what? |
|
Definition
| ne at b1 and b2 receptors |
|
|
Term
| esmolol is used for acute supraventricular tachycardia-svt and is a what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| metoprolol(lopressor and toprol) is used in what applications of treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| bisoprolol is used for what treatments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| carvediol or coreg yields vasodilation, decreased hr and bp and increased cardiac output in patients with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| labetolol is used for htn and causes which effects? |
|
Definition
| vasodilation, decreased hr and bp |
|
|
Term
| how many people have htn in the us? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| primary htn is caused by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| secondary htn is caused by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the cardiac output equation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| peripheral vascular resistance is the resistance to blood flow through the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| antihypertensive medications are classified into what types? |
|
Definition
| diuretics, vasodilators, sympatholytics, angiotensin inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| thiazides are loop diuretics and potassium sparing that do what? |
|
Definition
| increase NA and H2O excretion, decrease in blood volume, decrease CO, decrease pvr with chronic use |
|
|
Term
| hydrochlorothiazide(hctz) is the most commonly used and the drug of choice for who? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sympatholytics cause vasodilation and decrease heart rate, and inhibit renin secretion. name the sympatholytics |
|
Definition
| alpha 1 blockers-azosins, beta 1 blockers- olols, clonidine |
|
|
Term
| ace inhibitors(angiotensin-converting enzyme) decrease pvr without an effect on what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pregnancy category d, cough, angioedema, hyperkalemia |
|
|
Term
| calcium channel blockers(ccb) are vasodilators and block calcium channels in the membranes of smooth muscle of the vasculature system and what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in htn emergencies/urgencies the goal of management and treatment is to reduce bp by 25% in up to 1 hour and to ? within the next two hours, and then to normal range within 24-48 hours. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in the treatment of angina the goals are? |
|
Definition
| prevent ischemia, increase exercise tolerance, reduce angina attacks, increase oxygen supply while decreasing oxygen demands to the heart |
|
|
Term
| drugs used to treat angina are? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nitrates exhibit extensive first pass metabolism. what is their most common adverse drug reaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| calcium channel blockers used for angina include? |
|
Definition
| amlodipine, nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem |
|
|
Term
| beta blockers are metoprolol and propranolol. what is their role in angina? |
|
Definition
| decrease hr, prevent exercise induced tachycardia, decrease myocardial oxygen demand, prevent reflex tachycardia, post mi-decrease risk of reoccurance and improve survival |
|
|
Term
| ranolazine(ranexa) reduces angina episodes and decreases the need for nitroglycerin. what is its role in angina therapy? |
|
Definition
| alternative or adjunct to other medications |
|
|
Term
| besides beta blockers, long acting nitrates, ccb's and sublingual nitro prn, what other drug should be taken to manage angina? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the pathophysiology of chf? |
|
Definition
| ischemic heart disease and hypertension |
|
|
Term
| the pathophysiology of chf is due to both diastolic and systolic dysfunction of the heart. one of the above decreases cardiac wall relaxation and the other leads to decreased cardiac contractility. all of this leads to an impaired ability for the ventricle to ? with blood and ? the blood |
|
Definition
| fill with blood, pump the blood |
|
|
Term
| left sided heart failure causes what conditions? |
|
Definition
blood backing up into the lungs
pulmonary congestion
hypoxia
dyspnea |
|
|
Term
| right sided heart failure causes what symptoms? |
|
Definition
blood back up into veins
peripheral edema |
|
|
Term
| there are 4 classes of chf, which class causes marked limitation of physical activity, but comfortable at rest but less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitation, or dyspnea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the mode of action for treatment of chf is to attempt what? |
|
Definition
| increase stroke volume(ejection fraction), increase cardiac output, decrease preload and afterload |
|
|
Term
| drugs of choice for chf include? |
|
Definition
positive intotrops- digoxin vasodilators- ace inhibitors, arbs, hydralazine, nitrates
aldosterone antagonists- spironolactone diuretics- furosemide
beta blockers- carvediol, metaprolol |
|
|
Term
| digoxin has what mode of action on the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ace inhibitors mode of action in chf are? |
|
Definition
| decreased preload and afterload, deacreased ventricular remodeling and decreased mortality |
|
|
Term
| beta blockers carvedilol and metoprolol reduce what in the heart? |
|
Definition
| excessive sympathetic stimulation |
|
|
Term
| aldosterone antagonists in chf block aldosterone receptors leading to increased sodium and water what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| furosemide is a diuretic which reduces plasma volume and relieves symptoms of edema and acts mainly in the ? of the kidney |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which diuretic is an osmotic diuretic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which diuretic is a loop diuretic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which diuretic is a thiazide diuretic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| spironolactone is a what kind of diuretic? |
|
Definition
| potassium-sparing diuretic |
|
|
Term
| conivaptan is what type of diuretic? |
|
Definition
| anti-diuretic hormone antagonist |
|
|
Term
| acetazolamide(diamox) is a what kind of diuretic? |
|
Definition
| carbonic anhydrase inhibitor |
|
|
Term
| passive tubular reabsorption occurs where in the kidney? |
|
Definition
| across entire renal tubule |
|
|
Term
| active tubular secretion occurs in which part of the kidney? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| an arrhythmia is an abnormal rhythm or rate in heartbeat. what is it called with a slow arrhythmia rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter are two common atrial arrhythmias. what is their main complication they produce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which ventricular arrhythmia is more lethal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what letters make up the cardiac action potential curve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pathophysiology of arrhythmias are caused by which factors? |
|
Definition
| overstimulation of sympathetic nervous system, electrolyte disturbances, medications, reentry |
|
|
Term
| class 1 sodium channel blockers are made to treat supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias and ventricular tachycardia. name the sodium channel blockers |
|
Definition
| procainamide, quinidine, lidocaine, flecanide |
|
|
Term
| which of the class 2 beta blockers are used in early treatment of mi and maintenance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| class 3 potassium channel blocker amiodarone is used for? |
|
Definition
| po-suppression of ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmia, iv- terminate v fib or sustained vent tachycardia |
|
|
Term
| solatol is a class 3 potassium channel blocker and used for? |
|
Definition
| ventricular and atrial arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
| class 4 calcium channel blockers diltiazem and verapamil are used to treat what? |
|
Definition
termination of svt
reduce ventricular rate in a fib patients who have rapid vent responses |
|
|
Term
| what drug is used to terminate acute psvt by preventing reentry conduction impulses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what drug is used to slow ventricular rate in patients with a. fib? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hyperlipoproteinemia is caused by primarily genetic factors in some people and secondary factors of? |
|
Definition
| alcoholism, diabetes mellitus, beta blockers, oral contraceptives, thiazide diuretics |
|
|
Term
| ideally total cholesterol should be <200mg/dl and hdl cholesterol should be below ? mg/dl |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| statins or hmg-coa reductase inhibitors are which drugs? |
|
Definition
atorvastatin(lipitor)
rosuvastatin(crestor)
simvastatin(zocor) |
|
|
Term
| all statins should be taken at what time of the day? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| bile acid binding resins bind to other drugs in the gut and alter absorption. what drugs are these? |
|
Definition
cholestyramine(questran)
colestipol(colestid) |
|
|
Term
| ezetimibe(zetia) is an adjunct to statins and inhibits absorption of dietary cholesterol in what location? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| niacin/b3/nicotinic acid(niaspan) inhibit the formation and secretion of ? in the liver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| fibric acid derivative drugs fenofibrate(tricor) and gemfibrozil(lopid) are used mainly to treat what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| metabolic syndrome is made up of what criteria? |
|
Definition
| increased central obesity, high fasting triglycerides, low hdl cholesterol, high bp, high fasting glucose |
|
|
Term
| warfarin inhibits synthesis of vitamin k dependent clotting factors, the main adr is bleeding, maximal dosing effect is not seen for 3-5 days and it has a narrow therapeutic window or range. what is it used for? |
|
Definition
| dvt, afib, artificial heart valves |
|
|
Term
| the international normalized ratio or inr should be in what range with warfarin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pradaxa(dabigatran) is safer and more effective than warfarin in use and is a direct thrombin inhibitor. what other advantage does it have? |
|
Definition
| no inr monitoring, no known food or drug interactions, taken orally |
|
|
Term
| heparin(lmwh) and fondaparinux are all what kind of drug? |
|
Definition
| parenteral anticoagulants |
|
|
Term
| while heparin requires a ptt to monitor its use and lmwh and fondaparinux dont. what is the range that heparins ptt should be in maximum effective dosing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 2 adr of heparin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| both aspirin and dipyridamole/aspirin(aggrenox) are what kind of drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| adenosine diphosphate inhibitors like copidogrel(plavix) and ticlopidine both prevent adp induced platelet aggretion. which of the two drugs require cbc monitoring? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| abciximab(reopro) basically prevents the binding of fibrinogen and the cross linking of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| fibrinolytic drugs like streptokinase, urokinase, alteplase(activase) and reteplase(retavase) are used via iv route to treat acute patients having what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| iron mineral given as a medication, binds to newly absorbed dietary iron and transports it to ? and ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| folic acid is given for the increased needs in what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| b12/cyanocobalamin is often given to the elderly patients due to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| epoetin(procrit) stimulates red blood cell production in the kidneys and used in? |
|
Definition
| anemia of chronic kidney disease, anemia due to cancer chemotherapy |
|
|
Term
| filgastrim is used in neutropenia associated with what? |
|
Definition
| cancer chemotherapy and bone marrow transplantation |
|
|
Term
| what is the ability to calm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the ability to induce sleep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| insomnia is usually treated with sedative hypnotics like? |
|
Definition
| zolpidem(ambien), ramelteon(rozerem) |
|
|
Term
| benzodiazepines have adr of what symptoms? |
|
Definition
anterograde amnesia
cns depression
physical dependence |
|
|
Term
| barbiturates have adr of what symptoms? |
|
Definition
sedation
physical dependence |
|
|
Term
| antihistamines are used for mild insomnia and benadryl(diphenhydramine) is the most common. what is its main adr? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| of the other sedative/hypnotics like zolpidem(ambien) and ramelteon(rozerem) which one is non-controlled of the two? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| buspirone(buspar) is a nonsedating anxiolytic drug, what is its usual time to take effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which seizure class in partial seizures has no loss of consciousness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which class of seizures is grand mal in nature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most antiepileptics act on inhibiting sodium and calcium influx for nerve depolarization, augment inhibitory gaba receptors and what? |
|
Definition
| inhibition of excitatory glutamate neurotransmission |
|
|
Term
| antiepileptics supress the formation or spread of abnormal electrical discharges in the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| drugs that prolong sodium channel inactivation are? |
|
Definition
carbamazepine/tegretol-cbz
phenytoin(dilantin)-pht |
|
|
Term
| the drug of choice for prolonging calcium channel inactivation, facilitating gaba receptors and inhibit glutamate transmission is? |
|
Definition
| valproate(valproic acid)/depakote-vpa |
|
|
Term
| which seizure class is the most serious in nature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most first line seizure medications have a narrow therapeutic window and require blood level monitoring for? |
|
Definition
liver function-hepatotoxicity
cbc blood dyscrazias |
|
|
Term
| phenytoin/dilantin requires a corrected drug level formula due to its effect on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| loss of pain sensation is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| loss of all sensation is called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most commonly used local anesthetic is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the main problem with general anesthetics is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| analgesics cause what effect on pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the opioid agonists? |
|
Definition
| morphine, methadone, fentanyl, oxycodone |
|
|
Term
| which opioid antagonist reverse opioid over dosage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a physiologic state in which a persons continued use of a drug is required for their well being is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| one opioid drug can be substituted for another at equipotent doses and prevent withdrawal symptoms called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| buprenorphine is used to prevent what? |
|
Definition
| the mode of action of less respiratory depression and dependence |
|
|
Term
| ? symptoms are due to over activity of nerves in the brain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ? symptoms are due to under activity of nerves in the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| haloperidol(haldol) is a typical antipsychotic and an older medication which has more extrapyramidal side effects and more neuroleptic malignant syndrome side effects than what drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| antipsychotics have the following side effects or adrs? |
|
Definition
| dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, sedation and increased apetite, blurred vision, constipation, dry mouth, urinary retention |
|
|
Term
| nms is seen usually within 4 weeks of starting an antipsychotic and include the following? |
|
Definition
hyperthermia
muscle rigidity
mental status changes
unstable bp |
|
|
Term
| risperidone(risperdal) is an atypical apsy which even though newer in production than haldol has which adrs? |
|
Definition
weight gain
hyperlipidemia
hyperglycemia
qt prolongation
black box warning for increased cardiovascular issues and stroke in dementia patients |
|
|
Term
| almost all apsy take how long to reach maximum response time in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
elavil
prozac
effexor
wellbutrin |
|
|
Term
| drugs like amphetamines and methylphenidate(ritalin) are what kind of stimulants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the mood stabilizing meds? |
|
Definition
valproic acid(depakote/depakene)
carbamazepine(tegretol)
lithium |
|
|
Term
| a drug that increases dopamine levels in parkinsons is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| other drugs that also increase dopamine levels in parkinsons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a dopamine rec ag used for the treatment of park and rls is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| benzotopine is an ach rec antag and is helpful in what indication for parks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| huntingtons is known for its dance like movements. which drugs treat this disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| alzheimers is mainly due to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| treatment of alz is mainly with which drugs that slow the progression of the disease only? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ms is treated with betaseron to treat the ? and with baclofen to assist in ? |
|
Definition
| immune system, muscle relaxation |
|
|
Term
| als is treated with the meds ? to assist with the symptoms and ? which extends life by 3 months average |
|
Definition
baclofen, neurotin
rilutek |
|
|
Term
| which pattern of subs abuse is an individual cont preoccupied with drug procurement and use and neglects resp and relationships? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ethanol is a cns depressent and works on zero order kinetics, which adr does it exhibit in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which cns dep is nicknamed roofies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the cns stimulants? |
|
Definition
| amphetamines, cocaine, ex, caffeine and nicotine |
|
|
Term
| which of the 2 cannabis drugs weed or marinol contains thc? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which drugs produce hallucinations? |
|
Definition
lsd
peyote
mushrooms
angel dust |
|
|
Term
| prescript drugs, otc drugs, and chemicals being abused today are? |
|
Definition
| vicodin, oxycontin, inhalants, steroids, otc cough products |
|
|
Term
| alcohol drugs for treatment are? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in opioid treatment for drug dep, which drugs are commonly used? |
|
Definition
| metadone, suboxone, naloxone |
|
|
Term
| nicotine prep, wellbutrin, chantix are all used to treat what dependence? |
|
Definition
|
|
